Search Results

Search found 8286 results on 332 pages for 'defined'.

Page 250/332 | < Previous Page | 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257  | Next Page >

  • What happened to the .NET version definition with v4.0?

    - by Tom Tresansky
    I'm building a C# class library, and using the beta 2 of Visual Web Developer/Visual C# 2010. I'm trying to save information about what version of .NET the library was built under. In the past, I was able to use this: // What version of .net was it built under? #if NET_1_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 1.0"; #elif NET_1_1 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 1.1"; #elif NET_2_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 2.0"; #elif NET_3_5 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 3.5"; #else public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET version unknown"; #endif So I figured I could just add: #elif NET_4_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 4.0"; Now, in Project-Properties, my target Framework is ".NET Framework 4". If I check: Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().ImageRuntimeVersion I can see my runtime version is v4.0.21006 (so I know I have .NET 4.0 installed on my CPU). I naturally expect to see that my NETFrameworkVersion variable holds ".NET 4.0". It does not. It holds ".NET version unknown". So my question is, why is NET_4_0 not defined? Did the naming convention change? Is there some simple other way to determine .NET framework build version in versions 3.5?

    Read the article

  • Searching a column containing CSV data in a MySQL table for existence of input values

    - by Adarsh R
    Hi, I have a table say, ITEM, in MySQL that stores data as follows: ID FEATURES -------------------- 1 AB,CD,EF,XY 2 PQ,AC,A3,B3 3 AB,CDE 4 AB1,BC3 -------------------- As an input, I will get a CSV string, something like "AB,PQ". I want to get the records that contain AB or PQ. I realized that we've to write a MySQL function to achieve this. So, if we have this magical function MATCH_ANY defined in MySQL that does this, I would then simply execute an SQL as follows: select * from ITEM where MATCH_ANY(FEAURES, "AB,PQ") = 0 The above query would return the records 1, 2 and 3. But I'm running into all sorts of problems while implementing this function as I realized that MySQL doesn't support arrays and there's no simple way to split strings based on a delimiter. Remodeling the table is the last option for me as it involves lot of issues. I might also want to execute queries containing multiple MATCH_ANY functions such as: select * from ITEM where MATCH_ANY(FEATURES, "AB,PQ") = 0 and MATCH_ANY(FEATURES, "CDE") In the above case, we would get an intersection of records (1, 2, 3) and (3) which would be just 3. Any help is deeply appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Scapy install issues. Nothing seems to actually be installed?

    - by Chris
    I have an apple computer running Leopard with python 2.6. I downloaded the latest version of scapy and ran "python setup.py install". All went according to plan. Now, when I try to run it in interactive mode by just typing "scapy", it throws a bunch of errors. What gives! Just in case, here is the FULL error message.. INFO: Can't import python gnuplot wrapper . Won't be able to plot. INFO: Can't import PyX. Won't be able to use psdump() or pdfdump(). ERROR: Unable to import pcap module: No module named pcap/No module named pcapy ERROR: Unable to import dnet module: No module named dnet Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/runpy.py", line 122, in _run_module_as_main "__main__", fname, loader, pkg_name) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/runpy.py", line 34, in _run_code exec code in run_globals File "/Users/owner1/Downloads/scapy-2.1.0/scapy/__init__.py", line 10, in <module> interact() File "scapy/main.py", line 245, in interact scapy_builtins = __import__("all",globals(),locals(),".").__dict__ File "scapy/all.py", line 25, in <module> from route6 import * File "scapy/route6.py", line 264, in <module> conf.route6 = Route6() File "scapy/route6.py", line 26, in __init__ self.resync() File "scapy/route6.py", line 39, in resync self.routes = read_routes6() File "scapy/arch/unix.py", line 147, in read_routes6 lifaddr = in6_getifaddr() File "scapy/arch/unix.py", line 123, in in6_getifaddr i = dnet.intf() NameError: global name 'dnet' is not defined

    Read the article

  • django-social-auth for Facebook is redirecting home and not logging in

    - by Scott Rogowski
    I have had django-social-auth working for Google for quite some time now but am having problems with Facebook. I am at the point where clicking on the /login/facebook/ link will take me to the Facebook authorization page. I then click "go to app" and it redirects me to my home page but does not log in or create a user but does put some strange "#=" onto the back of my URL. Reading up on that, here https://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/552/, and here https://github.com/omab/django-social-auth/issues/199, it seems that would be happening if the redirect uri was not defined. However, on my facebook app settings, I have the following (replacing my site with example.com): + App Namespace: "example" + Site URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" + Site Domain: "example.com" + Sandbox Mode: "On" + Post-Authorize Redirect URL: "http://apps.facebook.com/example/" + Deauthorize URL: "http://www.example.com/" + Post-Authorize URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" The request that django-social-auth is sending to facebook is (replacing my info again): "https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?scope=email&state=*&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fexample.com%2Fcomplete%2Ffacebook%2F%3Fredirect_state%3D***&client_id=*" The /complete/facebook/ is what is in the documentation and google works as /complete/google/ What am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

    - by user292662
    Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Zipping with padding in Haskell

    - by Travis Brown
    A couple of times I've found myself wanting a zip in Haskell that adds padding to the shorter list instead of truncating the longer one. This is easy enough to write. (Monoid works for me here, but you could also just pass in the elements that you want to use for padding.) zipPad :: (Monoid a, Monoid b) => [a] -> [b] -> [(a, b)] zipPad xs [] = zip xs (repeat mempty) zipPad [] ys = zip (repeat mempty) ys zipPad (x:xs) (y:ys) = (x, y) : zipPad xs ys This approach gets ugly when trying to define zipPad3. I typed up the following and then realized that of course it doesn't work: zipPad3 :: (Monoid a, Monoid b, Monoid c) => [a] -> [b] -> [c] -> [(a, b, c)] zipPad3 xs [] [] = zip3 xs (repeat mempty) (repeat mempty) zipPad3 [] ys [] = zip3 (repeat mempty) ys (repeat mempty) zipPad3 [] [] zs = zip3 (repeat mempty) (repeat mempty) zs zipPad3 xs ys [] = zip3 xs ys (repeat mempty) zipPad3 xs [] zs = zip3 xs (repeat mempty) zs zipPad3 [] ys zs = zip3 (repeat mempty) ys zs zipPad3 (x:xs) (y:ys) (z:zs) = (x, y, z) : zipPad3 xs ys zs At this point I cheated and just used length to pick the longest list and pad the others. Am I overlooking a more elegant way to do this, or is something like zipPad3 already defined somewhere?

    Read the article

  • Assign click event to addon icon on navigation bar

    - by Charsee
    We have created a chrome extension for our app. Where we call a METHOD from a "js file" on CLICK event of the "extension icon" placed on the navigation bar. For this we use message passing between the app.js (file containing the METHOD to be called on icon click) and background.html (using a js file included in this html). The script used to pass message is:(from background.html) chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function (tab) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tab.id, "showPopup"); }); and to listen the message :(in app.js) chrome.extension.onMessage.addListener(function(request) { if (request === "showPopup") { showPopup(); } }); The click event works as expected. But now we want to do same thing in mozilla extension. and we can't pass message to app.js on the click of the icon,so that it can execute the containing methods. We have also added the app.js using pageMod, something like this exports.main = function(options, callbacks) { pageMod.PageMod({ include: ["*"], contentScriptWhen: 'start', contentScriptFile: [data.url('jquery-1.7.1.min.js'),data.url('app.js')] }); createAndAddNavBarButton(); }; function createAndAddNavBarButton() { var navBar = document.getElementById('nav-bar');//assume document has been defined if (!navBar){return;}; var nbBtn = document.createElement('navbaricon'); nbBtn.setAttribute('id', 'navButton'); nbBtn.setAttribute('image', data.url('icon_16.png')); nbBtn.onclick = function(){ showPopup(); return true; } navBar.appendChild(btn); } But the click event does nothing and showPopup() is undefined. When a new page loads event associated with it in the app.js executes without any error but the click event doesn't work. Is there a method from where we can assign click event directly to this icon, as we have done in the case of chrome extension.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically added JTable not displaying

    - by Graza
    Java Newbie here. I have a JFrame that I added to my netbeans project, and I've added the following method to it, which creates a JTable. Problem is, for some reason when I call this method, the JTable isn't displayed. Any suggestions? public void showFromVectors(Vector colNames, Vector data) { jt = new javax.swing.JTable(data, colNames); sp = new javax.swing.JScrollPane(jt); //NB: "this" refers to my class DBGridForm, which extends JFrame this.add(sp,java.awt.BorderLayout.CENTER); this.setSize(640,480); } The method is called in the following context: DBGridForm gf = new DBGridForm(); //DBGridForm extends JFrame DBReader.outMatchesTable(gf); gf.setVisible(true); ... where DBReader.outMatchesTable() is defined as static public void outMatchesTable(DBGridForm gf) { DBReader ddb = new DBReader(); ddb.readMatchesTable(null); gf.showFromVectors(ddb.lastRsltColNames, ddb.lastRsltData); } My guess is I'm overlooking something, either about the swing classes I'm using, or about Java. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • questions about name mangling in C++

    - by Tim
    I am trying to learn and understand name mangling in C++. Here are some questions: (1) From devx When a global function is overloaded, the generated mangled name for each overloaded version is unique. Name mangling is also applied to variables. Thus, a local variable and a global variable with the same user-given name still get distinct mangled names. Are there other examples that are using name mangling, besides overloading functions and same-name global and local variables ? (2) From Wiki The need arises where the language allows different entities to be named with the same identifier as long as they occupy a different namespace (where a namespace is typically defined by a module, class, or explicit namespace directive). I don't quite understand why name mangling is only applied to the cases when the identifiers belong to different namespaces, since overloading functions can be in the same namespace and same-name global and local variables can also be in the same space. How to understand this? Do variables with same name but in different scopes also use name mangling? (3) Does C have name mangling? If it does not, how can it deal with the case when some global and local variables have the same name? C does not have overloading functions, right? Thanks and regards!

    Read the article

  • JSP: How can I still get the code on my error page to run, even if I can't display it?

    - by Josh Hinman
    I've defined an error-page in my web.xml: <error-page> <exception-type>java.lang.Exception</exception-type> <location>/error.jsp</location> </error-page> In that error page, I have a custom tag that I created. The tag handler for this tag e-mails me the stacktrace of whatever error occurred. For the most part this works great. Where it doesn't work great is if the output has already begun being sent to the client at the time the error occurs. In that case, we get this: SEVERE: Exception Processing ErrorPage[exceptionType=java.lang.Exception, location=/error.jsp] java.lang.IllegalStateException I believe this error happens because we can't redirect a request to the error page after output has already started. The work-around I've used is to increase the buffer size on particularly large JSP pages. But I'm trying to write a generic error handler that I can apply to existing applications, and I'm not sure it's feasible to go through hundreds of JSP pages making sure their buffers are big enough. Is there a way to still allow my stack trace e-mail code to execute in this case, even if I can't actually display the error page to the client?

    Read the article

  • C Run-Time library part 2

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I was suggested when I have some further questions on my older ones, to create newer Question and reffer to old one. So, this is the original question: What is the C runtime library? OK, from your answers, I now get thet statically linked libraries are Microsoft implementation of C standart functions. Now: If I get it right, the scheme would be as follow: I want to use printf(), so I must include which just tels compiler there us functio printf() with these parameters. Now, when I compile code, becouse printf() is defined in C Standart Library, and becouse Microsoft decided to name it C Run Time library, it gets automatically statically linked from libcmt.lib (if libcmt.lib is set in compiler) at compile time. I ask, becouse on wikipedia, in article about runtime library there is that runtime library is linked in runtime, but .lib files are linked at compile time, am I right? Now, what confuses me. There is .dll version of C standart library. But I thought that to link .dll file, you must actually call winapi program to load that library. So, how can be these functions dynamically linked, if there is no static library to provide code to tell Windows to load desired functions from dll? And really last question on this subject - are C Standart library functions also calls to winapi even they are not .dll files like more advanced WinAPI functions? I mean, in the end to access framebuffer and print something you must tell Windows to do it, since OS cannot let you directly manipulate HW. I think of it like the OS must be written to support all C standart library functions same way across similiar versions, since they are statically linked, and can differently support more complex WinAPI calls becouse new version of OS can have adjustements in the .dll file.

    Read the article

  • Getting a handle on GIS math, where do I start?

    - by Joshua
    I am in charge of a program that is used to create a set of nodes and paths for consumption by an autonomous ground vehicle. The program keeps track of the locations of all items in its map by indicating the item's position as being x meters north and y meters east of an origin point of 0,0. In the real world, the vehicle knows the location of the origin's lat and long, as it is determined by a dgps system and is accurate down to a couple centimeters. My program is ignorant of any lat long coordinates. It is one of my goals to modify the program to keep track of lat long coords of items in addition to an origin point and items' x,y position in relation to that origin. At first blush, it seems that I am going to modify the program to allow the lat long coords of the origin to be passed in, and after that I desire that the program will automatically calculate the lat long of every item currently in a map. From what I've researched so far, I believe that I will need to figure out the math behind converting to lat long coords from a UTM like projection where I specify the origin points and meridians etc as opposed to whatever is defined already for UTM. I've come to ask of you GIS programmers, am I on the right track? It seems to me like there is so much to wrap ones head around, and I'm not sure if the answer isn't something as simple as, "oh yea theres a conversion from meters to lat long, here" Currently, due to the nature of DGPS, the system really doesn't need to care about locations more than oh, what... 40 km? radius away from the origin. Given this, and the fact that I need to make sure that the error on my coordinates is not greater than .5 meters, do I need anything more complex than a simple lat/long to meters conversion constant? I'm knee deep in materials here. I could use some pointers about what concepts to research. Thanks much!

    Read the article

  • Delphi Client-Server Application using Firebird 2.5 embedded connection error

    - by Japster
    0 down vote favorite 1 share [fb] share [tw] I have got a lengthy question to ask. First of all Im still very new when it comes to Delphi programming and my experience has beem mostly developing small single user database applications using ADO and an Access database. I need to take the transition now to a client server application and this is where the problem starts. I decided to use Firebird 2.5 embeded as my database, as it is open source, and it is can be used with the interbase components in Delphi and that multiple clients can access the database simultanously. So I followed the interbase tutorial in Delphi. I managed to connect the client to the server and see the data in the example (While both are running on my pc), but when i tried to move the client to another pc, keeping the server on mine and running it to see if I can connect to the server it gave me the following error. Exception EIdSocketError in module clientDemo.exe at 0029DCAC. Socket Error # 10061 Connection refused. I understand that this might be because the host is defined as localhost in the client. But here is my first question. In the TSQLConncetion you can set die hostname under Driver-Hostname. The thing I want to know is how do you do this at run time, as I cannot get the property when I try and make an edit box to allow the user to enter the value and then set it via code like for example: SQLConncetion1.Driver.Hostname := edtHost.text; This cannot be done this way and the only way I see you can set the hostname is with the object inspector, but that is not available at runtime and I need to set the hostname on the client when the program is running the first time, so how do you set the hostname/IP address at runtime? Im using Delphi XE2 There is still a lot of questions to come especially when it comes to deployment, but I will take this piece by piece and I appreciate the advice.

    Read the article

  • Constructor Overloading

    - by Mark Baker
    Normally when I want to create a class constructor that accepts different types of parameters, I'll use a kludgy overloading principle of not defining any args in the constructor definition: e.g. for an ECEF coordinate class constructor, I want it to accept either $x, $y and $z arguments, or to accept a single array argument containg x, y and z values, or to accept a single LatLong object I'd create a constructor looking something like: function __construct() { // Identify if any arguments have been passed to the constructor if (func_num_args() > 0) { $args = func_get_args(); // Identify the overload constructor required, based on the datatype of the first argument $argType = gettype($args[0]); switch($argType) { case 'array' : // Array of Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromArray'; break; case 'object' : // A LatLong object that needs converting to Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromLatLong'; break; default : // Individual Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromXYZ'; break; } // Call the appropriate overload constructor call_user_func_array(array($this,$overloadConstructor),$args); } } // function __construct() I'm looking at an alternative: to provide a straight constructor with $x, $y and $z as defined arguments, and to provide static methods of createECEFfromArray() and createECEFfromLatLong() that handle all the necessary extraction of x, y and z; then create a new ECEF object using the standard constructor, and return that Which option is cleaner from an OO purists perspective?

    Read the article

  • Handle order dependence in loops

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm making a templating system where I instantiate each tag using a foreach loop. The issue is that some of the tags rely on each other so, I'm wondering how to get around that ordering from the looping. Here's an example: Class A { public $width; __construct() { $this->width = $B->width; // Undefined! Or atleast not set yet.. } } Class B { public $width; __construct() { $this->width = "500px"; } __tostring() { return "Hello World!"; } } Template.php $tags = array("A", "B"); foreach ($tags as $tag) { $TagObj[$tag] = new $tag(); } echo $TagObj['A']->width; // Nadamundo! EDIT: Ok just to clarify.. My main problem is that Class A relies on Class B, but class A is instantiated before class B, so therefore width has not yet been defined in class B. I am looking for a good way to make sure all the classes are loaded for everyone allowing the interdependencies to exist. For the future, please don't consider any syntax errors.. I just made up this example on the spot. Also assume that I have access to class B from class A after class B gets instantiated. I know this has applications elsewhere and I'm sure this has been solved before, if someone could enlighten me or point me in the right direction that'd be great! Thanks! Matt Mueler

    Read the article

  • Java many to many association map

    - by Raphael Jolivet
    Hi, I have to classes, ClassA and ClassB and a "many to many" AssociationClass. I want to use a structure to hold the associations between A and B such as I can know, for each instance of A or B, which are their counterparts. I thought of using a Hashmap, with pair keys: Hasmap<Pair<ClassA, ClassB>, AssociationClass> associations; This way, I can add and remove an association between two instances of ClassA and ClassB, and I can query a relation for two given instances. However, I miss the feature of getting all associations defined for a given instance of ClassA or ClassB. I could do it by brute force and loop over all keys of the map to search for associations between a given instance, but this is inefficient and not elegant. Do you know of any data structure / free library that enables this ? I don't want to reinvent the wheel. Thanks in advance for your help, Raphael NB: This is not a "database" question. These objects are pure POJO used for live computation, I don't need persistence stuff.

    Read the article

  • Does Perl auto-vivify variables used as references in subroutine calls?

    - by FM
    I've declared 2010 to be the year of higher-order programming, so I'm learning Haskell. The introduction has a slick quick-sort demo, and I thought, "Hey, that's easy to do in Perl". It turned to be easier than I expected. Note that I don't have to worry about whether my partitions ($less and $more) are defined. Normally you can't use an undefined value as an array reference. use strict; use warnings; use List::MoreUtils qw(part); my @data = (5,6,7,4,2,9,10,9,5,1); my @sorted = qsort(@data); print "@sorted\n"; sub qsort { return unless @_; my $pivot = shift @_; my ($less, $more) = part { $_ < $pivot ? 0 : 1 } @_; # Works, even though $less and $more are sometimes undefined. return qsort(@$less), $pivot, qsort(@$more); } As best I can tell, Perl will auto-vivify a variable that you try to use as a reference -- but only if you are passing it to a subroutine. For example, my call to foo() works, but not the attempted print. use Data::Dumper qw(Dumper); sub foo { print "Running foo(@_)\n" } my ($x); print Dumper($x); # Fatal: Can't use an undefined value as an ARRAY reference. # print @$x, "\n"; # But this works. foo(@$x); # Auto-vivification: $x is now []. print Dumper($x); My questions: Am I understanding this behavior correctly? What is the explanation or reasoning behind why Perl does this? Is this behavior explained anywhere in the docs?

    Read the article

  • Using KnockoutJs templates with jQuery

    - by balteo
    I would like to end up with the following HTML in the DOM using jQuery and KnockoutJs templates: <div class="messageToAndFromOtherMember" id="13"> <span>the message</span> <span>2012-12-02 14:05:45.0</span> </div> I have started writing my KO template as follows: <div class="messageToAndFromOtherMember" data-bind="attr:{ id: messageId}"> <span data-bind="text: message"></span> <span data-bind="text: sendDateFmted"></span> </div> Upon a successful ajax request, the following js is executed: var messageViewModel = { message: response.message, sendDateFmted: response.sendDateFmted, messageId: response.messageId }; ko.applyBindings(messageViewModel); Now I am not sure how and where to actually do the binding: since my message does not exist before the ajax request is complete and I can have as several messages... Can anyone please suggest a solution? EDIT: I have added this to the html page: <div data-bind="template: { name: 'message-template', data: messageViewModel }"></div> I now get the following js error: Uncaught Error: Unable to parse bindings. Message: ReferenceError: $messageViewModel is not defined; Bindings value: template: { name: 'message-template', data: messageViewModel }

    Read the article

  • How do I use IPTC/EXIF metadata to categorise photos?

    - by kbro
    Many photo viewing and editing applications allow you to examine and change EXIF and IPTC data in JPEG and other image files. For example, I can see things like shutter speed, aperture and orientation in the picture files that come off my Canon A430. There are many, many name/value pairs in all this metadata. But... What do I do if I want to store some data that doesn't have a build-in field name. Let's say I'm photographing an athletics competition and I want to tag every photo with the competitor's bib number. Can I create a "bib_number" field and assign it a values of "0001", "5478", "8124" etc, and then search for all photos with bib_number="5478"? I've spent a few hours searching and the best I can come up with is to put this custom information in the "keywords" field but this isn't quite what I'm after. With this socution I'd have to craft a query like "keywords contains bib_number_5478" whereas what I want it "bib_number is 5478". So do the EXIF and/or IPTC standards allow addtional user-defined field names? Thanks Kev

    Read the article

  • Iframe/Popup redirecting opener window

    - by Bara
    Hello all, I have a page located at x.com. On this page is a button that, when clicked, will launch a new window (using javascript's window.open() method) to a page that is located at z.com. The popup does a few things, then redirects the original window (the opener, x.com) to a different page based on some parameters defined in the popup. This works fine in Firefox/Chrome, but not in IE. In IE (8 specifically, but I believe 7 also has this problem) the original window (the opener) is not redirected. Instead, a new window comes up and THAT window is redirected. I've tried many different methods to try and get this to work, including changing the popup to an iframe loaded on the page and having a function on the opener that the popup/iframe call. The problem seems to be that IE refuses to allow cross-domain sites to talk to each other via javascript. Is there a way around this? How can I get the parent window to redirect to a page based on parameters in a popup or iframe? Bara

    Read the article

  • Android App - disappearance of app GUI

    - by Radek Šimko
    I'm trying to create a simple app, whose main task is to open the browser on defined URL. I've created first Activity: public class MyActivity extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); //setContentView(R.layout.main); Intent myIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse("http://my.url.tld")); startActivity(myIntent); } Here's my AndroidManifest.xml: <manifest ...> <application ...> <activity android:name=".MyActivity" ...> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> This code is fully functional, but before it opens the browser, it displays a black background - blank app GUI. I didn't figured out, how to go directly do the browser (without displaying the GUI). Anyone knows?

    Read the article

  • Hadoop/MapReduce: Reading and writing classes generated from DDL

    - by Dave
    Hi, Can someone walk me though the basic work-flow of reading and writing data with classes generated from DDL? I have defined some struct-like records using DDL. For example: class Customer { ustring FirstName; ustring LastName; ustring CardNo; long LastPurchase; } I've compiled this to get a Customer class and included it into my project. I can easily see how to use this as input and output for mappers and reducers (the generated class implements Writable), but not how to read and write it to file. The JavaDoc for the org.apache.hadoop.record package talks about serializing these records in Binary, CSV or XML format. How do I actually do that? Say my reducer produces IntWritable keys and Customer values. What OutputFormat do I use to write the result in CSV format? What InputFormat would I use to read the resulting files in later, if I wanted to perform analysis over them?

    Read the article

  • ldap login form works, but need to add active-directory group access

    - by Brad
    I created a form that asks you to log in, then verifies the user/pass against the ldap server/active-directory, if successful, it creates a session, which will be checked on every page. Now I want to check the session, which is the username of the person who is logged in, and do a search for them using ldap_search, so I can check what group they belong to and pass that group thru a function to verify that they can view that page. Each page will accessible to a certain group or groups of users, which those groups are defined within Active Directory. I am unsure on how I can do that using ldap_search, or maybe that is just one piece of the puzzle I am trying to solve. Any help is appreciated - thank you! In the example code below, it is seeing if the user belongs to the student active-directory group (I do not know if this code works, but it should give you an idea of what I want to accomplish). $filter = "CN=StudentCN=Users,dc=domain,dc=control"; $result = ldap_search($ldapconn,$filter,$valid_session_username); if($result == TRUE) { print $valid_session_username.' does have access to this page'; } else { print $valid_session_username.' does NOT have access to this page'; }

    Read the article

  • How do I get rid of these warnings?

    - by Brian Postow
    This is really several questions, but anyway... I'm working with a big project in XCode, relatively recently ported from MetroWorks (Yes, really) and there's a bunch of warnings that I want to get rid of. Every so often an IMPORTANT warning comes up, but I never look at them because there's too many garbage ones. So, if I can either figure out how to get XCode to stop giving the warning, or actually fix the problem, that would be great. Here are the warnings: It claims that <map.h> is antiquated. However, when I replace it with <map> my files don't compile. Evidently, there's something in map.h that isn't in map... this decimal constant is unsigned only in ISO C90 This is a large number being compared to an unsigned long. I have even cast it, with no effect. enumeral mismatch in conditional expression: <anonymous enum> vs <anonymous enum> This appears to be from a ?: operator. Possibly that the then and else branches don't evaluate to the same type? Except that in at least one case, it's (matchVp == NULL ? noErr : dupFNErr) And since those are both of type OSErr, which is mac defined... I'm not sure what's up. It also seems to come up when I have other pairs of mac constants... multi-character character constant This one is obvious. The problem is that I actually NEED multi-character constants... -fwritable-strings not compatible with literal CF/NSString I unchecked the "Strings are Read-Only" box in both the project and target settings... and it seems to have had no effect...

    Read the article

  • Asp.net Hidden field not having value in code behind, but *is* retaining value after postbacks

    - by KallDrexx
    In my ASCX, I have an asp.net hidden field defined as <asp:HiddenField ID="hdnNewAsset" runat="server" />. In the Code Behind I have the following code: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { _service = new ArticleDataService(PortalId); if (!IsPostBack) { string rawId = Request[ArticleQueryParams.ArticleId]; DisplayArticleDetails(rawId); } if (hdnNewAsset.Value.Trim() != string.Empty) ProcessNewAsset(); } Now, in my frontend, I have a javascript function to react to an event and set the hidden field and trigger a postback: function assetSelected(assetGuid) { $('input[id*="hdnNewAsset"]').val(assetGuid); __doPostBack() } What's happening is that my hidden field is being set in the markup (chrome shows [ <input type=?"hidden" name=?"dnn$ctr466$Main$ctl00$hdnNewAsset" id=?"dnn_ctr466_Main_ctl00_hdnNewAsset" value=?"98d88e72-088c-40a4-9022-565a53dc33c4">? ] for $('input[id*="hdnNewAsset"]')). However, when the postback occurs, hdnNewAsset.Value is an empty string. What's even more puzzling is that at the beginning of Page_Load Request.Params["dnn$ctr466$Main$ctl00$hdnNewAsset"] shows 98d88e72-088c-40a4-9022-565a53dc33c4, and after the postback my hidden field has the same value (so the hidden field is persisting across postbacks), yet I cannot access this value via hdnNewAsset.Value. Can anyone see what I"m doing wrong?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257  | Next Page >