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• How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

  - by Michael Hopkins

  I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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• memcache is not storing data accross requests

  - by morpheous

  I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

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• jQuery update not replacing js files in Drupal 6.16.

  - by vr3690

  Hi, I am using jquery update in drupal 6.16 along with a lot of other modules. I am trying to use jquery ui 1.7.2 to render tabs. But unfortunately they don't work properly since jquery update is not replacing the jquery file (jquery 1.3.2). I checked the version using $.fn.jquery (in firebug) and got 1.2.6 (not 1.3.2 as required) as the result - and as expected the aggregated js file was using the 1.2.6 version of jquery (see source). earlier I had just replaced the core script files in /misc with the js files in sites/default/modules/jquery_update/replace folder (like you'd do in 5.x) and got the necessary result (i also renamed jquery.min.js to jquery.js ). now suddenly that stopped working after i upgraded to 6.x-2.0-alpha1 and also installed the mollom module. disabling/uninstalling mollom or down-grading jQuery update does not seem to help. the problem only occurs on the front page though. other content pages have jQuery 1.3.2 the problem can be seen here. So, basically, for some reason, jquery update is not replacing the jquery files (as it is supposed to) on the front page. and i cannot figure out why that happens. any ideas?

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• Question about the evolution of interaction paradigm between web server program and content provider program?

  - by smwikipedia

  Hi experts, In my opinion, web server is responsible to deliver content to client. If it is static content like pictures and static html document, web server just deliver them as bitstream directly. If it is some dynamic content that is generated during processing client's request, the web server will not generate the conetnt itself but call some external proram to genearte the content. AFAIK, this kind of dynamice content generation technologies include the following: CGI ISAPI ... And from here, I noticed that: ...In IIS 7, modules replace ISAPI filters... Is there any others? Could anyone help me complete the above list and elabrate on or show some links to their evolution? I think it would be very helpful to understand application such as IIS, TomCat, and Apache. I once wrote a small CGI program, and though it serves as a content generator, it is still nothing but a normal standalone program. I call it normal because the CGI program has a main() entry point. But with the recenetly technology like ASP.NET, I am not writing complete program, but only some class library. Why does such radical change happens? Many thanks.

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• Formvalidator from the iframe.

  - by basit74

  Hello I have a following formvalidatior function in my document. function formValidator(formid) { var form = cic.$(formid); if(!form) return (''); var errors = []; var len = form.elements.length; for(var elementIdx = 0; elementIdx < len; elementIdx++) { var element = form.elements[elementIdx]; if(!element && !element.getAttribute('validationtype')) return (''); switch (element.getAttribute('validationtype')) { case 'text' : if(cic.getValue(element).strip() == "") errors.push(element.getAttribute('validationmsg')); break; case 'email' : if(!cic.isEmail(cic.getValue(element))) errors.push(element.getAttribute('validationmsg')); break; case 'numeric' : if(isNaN(cic.getValue(element).replace(',', '.'))) errors.push(element.getAttribute('validationmsg')); break; case 'confirm' : if(cic.getValue(cic.$(element.getAttribute('sourcefield'))) !== cic.getValue(element)) errors.push(element.getAttribute('validationmsg')); break; } } return (errors.length > 0) ? '<li>' + errors.uniq().join("<li>") : ''; } It works fine, now I have an Iframe in my document, and that I frame contains the form to validate. What will be the best practice to change this function in such a way that it can validate document forms and iframe from simeltaniously. Thanks

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• FluentNHibernate mapping of composite foreign keys

  - by Faron

  I have an existing database schema and wish to replace the custom data access code with Fluent.NHibernate. The database schema cannot be changed since it already exists in a shipping product. And it is preferable if the domain objects did not change or only changed minimally. I am having trouble mapping one unusual schema construct illustrated with the following table structure: CREATE TABLE [Container] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item] ( [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Container_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) The existing domain model has the following class structure: The Property class contains other members representing the property's name and value. The ContainerProperty and ItemProperty classes have no additional members. They exist only to identify the owner of the Property. The Container and Item classes have methods that return collections of ContainerProperty and ItemProperty respectively. Additionally, the Container class has a method that returns a collection of all of the Property objects in the object graph. My best guess is that this was either a convenience method or a legacy method that was never removed. The business logic mainly works with Item (as the aggregate root) and only works with a Container when adding or removing Items. I have tried several techniques for mapping this but none work so I won't include them here unless someone asks for them. How would you map this?

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• R: manipulating data.frames containing strings and booleans.

  - by Mike Dewar

  Hello. I have a data.frame in R; it's called p. Each element in the data.frame is either True or False. My variable p has, say, m rows and n columns. For every row there is strictly only one TRUE element. It also has column names, which are strings. What I would like to do is the following: For every row in p I see a TRUE I would like to replace with the name of the corresponding column I would then like to collapse the data.frame, which now contains FALSEs and column names, to a single vector, which will have m elements. I would like to do this in an R-thonic manner, so as to continue my enlightenment in R and contribute to a world without for-loops. I can do step 1 using the following for loop: for (i in seq(length(colnames(p)))) { p[p[,i]==TRUE,i]=colnames(p)[i] } but theres's no beauty here and I have totally subscribed to this for-loops-in-R-are-probably-wrong mentality. Maybe wrong is too strong but they're certainly not great. I don't really know how to do step 2. I kind of hoped that the sum of a string and FALSE would return the string but it doesn't. I kind of hoped I could use an OR operator of some kind but can't quite figure that out (Python responds to False or 'bob' with 'bob'). Hence, yet again, I appeal to you beautiful Rstats people for help!

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• How use unobtrusive validation without a model

  - by Ross Cyrus

  i have simple a form wich made by htmlHelper(mvc3) then inside of it i have 2 input field 1:type=text 2:type=submit to submit the form. there is no model behind.so i need to perfom a clientside validation on the textfield before submit it to the server.but i dont know how. i tried this puting manualy the 'data-* artibute , but does not work : @using( Html.BeginForm()) { <label for="UserName" >User Name</label> <div class="editor-field"> <input type="text" data-val="true" data-val-requierd="You must provide an user Name" id="userName" name="userName" placeholder="Enter Your User Name" /> </div> <input type="submit" value="Recover" /> } the "jquery.validate.min.js" and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js and jquery.validate.min.js and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js are loaded to the page. It doesnt let me to answer my self ,so i put it here : I solve it my self,just made an other view wich has its own model and Required on its propertyis and then just copy the renderd html to my own,and i got this and works : <input data-val="true" data-val-required="You must provide an user Name" id="UserName" name="UserName" type="text" value="" placeholder="Enter your User Name"/> <span class="field-validation-valid" data-valmsg-for="UserName" data-valmsg-replace="true"></span> And there is no type="Required".any way thank you guys.

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• Unit Testing a rails 2.3.5 plugin

  - by brad

  I'm writing a new plugin for a rails 2.3.5 app. I've included an app directory (which makes it an engine) so i can easily load some extra routes. Not sure if that affects anything. Anyway, in the test directory i have two files: test_helper.rb and my_plugin_test.rb These files were generated automatically using script/generate plugin my_plugin When I go to vendor/plugins/my_plugin directory and run rake test they don't seem to run. I get the following console output: (in /Users/me/Repos/my_app/source/trunk/vendor/plugins/my_plugin) /Users/me/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/bin/jruby -I"lib:lib:test" "/Users/me/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/my_plugin_test.rb" So it obviously sees my test file, but none of the tests inside get run, I just get back to my console prompt. What am I missing here? I figured the generated code would work out of the box Here are the two files test_helper.rb require 'rubygems' require 'active_support' require 'active_support/test_case' my_plugin_test.rb require 'test_helper' class MyPluginTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end test "Factories are supported" do assert_not_nil Factory end end File structure vendor - plugins - my_plugin - app - config - routes.rb - generators - my_plugin - some generator files.rb - lib - my_plugin.rb - my_plugin - my_plugin_lib_file.rb - rails - init.rb - Rakefile - tasks - my_plugin_tasks.rake - test - test_helper.rb - my_plugin_test.rb

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• Is there a supplementary guide/answer key for ruby koans?

  - by corroded

  I have recently tried sharpening my rails skills with this tool: http://github.com/edgecase/ruby_koans but I am having trouble passing some tests. Also I am not sure if I'm doing some things correctly since the objective is just to pass the test, there are a lot of ways in passing it and I may be doing something that isn't up to standards. Is there a way to confirm if I'm doing things right? a specific example: in about_nil, def test_nil_is_an_object assert_equal __, nil.is_a?(Object), "Unlike NULL in other languages" end so is it telling me to check if that second clause is equal to an object(so i can say nil is an object) or just put assert_equal true, nil.is_a?(Object) because the statement is true? and the next test: def test_you_dont_get_null_pointer_errors_when_calling_methods_on_nil # What happens when you call a method that doesn't exist. The # following begin/rescue/end code block captures the exception and # make some assertions about it. begin nil.some_method_nil_doesnt_know_about rescue Exception => ex # What exception has been caught? assert_equal __, ex.class # What message was attached to the exception? # (HINT: replace __ with part of the error message.) assert_match(/__/, ex.message) end end Im guessing I should put a "No method error" string in the assert_match, but what about the assert_equal?

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• Sms via a nokia phone over a serial port

  - by abigblackman

  Hi, I'm trying to send a sms via a Nokia phone over serial which is easy enough via putty. The commands from the nokia documentation works fine. However, trying to send the same commands from a c# application fails miserably. I've run Sysinternals PortMon and can see the commands come through OK, the only difference I can see is in the way it connects but I am having trouble finding the commands that would iron out those differences. The code I'm running looks a little bit like this using (SerialPort port = new SerialPort(comPort, 9600, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One)) { port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); port.ErrorReceived += new SerialErrorReceivedEventHandler(port_ErrorReceived); //port.ReceivedBytesThreshold = 1; port.DtrEnable = true; port.RtsEnable = true; port.ReadTimeout = 1; port.Handshake = Handshake.XOnXOff; try { port.Open(); port.WriteLine("AT"); port.WriteLine("AT+CMGF=1"); port.WriteLine("AT+CMGS=\"" + number + "\""); port.WriteLine(message); port.Write(new byte[] { (byte)26 }, 0, 1); } finally { if (port.IsOpen) { port.Close(); } } The differences I'm seeing in the trace from the serial port are At the start 0.00001844 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_SET_HANDFLOW USBSER001 SUCCESS Shake:1 Replace:43 XonLimit:4096 XoffLimit:4096 And at the very end 0.00061153 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_PURGE USBSER001 SUCCESS Purge: RXABORT RXCLEAR 0.00004442 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_PURGE USBSER001 SUCCESS Purge: TXABORT TXCLEAR Has anyone got any tips on how to iron out these issues? I also notice that the phone is not responding back to the application with any acknowledgement when I issue a command so I suspect the problem is with the connection, not those messages at the end.

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• Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

  - by AspOnMyNet

  1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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• Set .aspx page title to that of an Eval

  - by user1860529

  I am trying to use an <%# Eval("name") %> to be the title of my page. I can't seem to figure out any solutions online. I have tried the other StackOverflow question but that did now work either. The page is a bio.aspx and on the site it is displayed as bio.aspx?id=123 so the page title needs to vary depending on the ID. I figured I could just use the Eval("name") but no luck yet. I currently am using JavaScript: window.onload = function() { document.title = '<%# Eval("name") %> | Title Line'; } This works, but it still leaves the title tags empty, and it's kind of spammy. Here is the codebehind: using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; public partial class DoctorBio : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Page.Title = "Your Page Title"; HtmlMeta metaDescription = new HtmlMeta(); metaDescription.Name = "description"; metaDescription.Content = "brief description"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(metaDescription); HtmlMeta metaKeywords = new HtmlMeta(); metaKeywords.Name = "keywords"; metaKeywords.Content = "keywords, keywords"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(metaKeywords); } protected void SetPageTitle(object title) { this.Title = title.ToString(); } protected string ReplaceLineBreaks(object text) { string newText = text as string; if (newText == null) { return string.Empty; } return newText.Replace("\r\n", "<br />"); } }

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• Can Content script set value of a text box within HTML frame? using Google Chrome extensions..

  - by devdreamers

  Hi all, I was working on a very simple extension, where on clicking extension icon, a webpage is opened in a new tab, the webpage has HTML frames, within which lies a textbox. I want to set a value for the same. The webpage which opens has: <HTML> <FRAMESET rows="15%, *" border="0"> <FRAME src="./files/abc.htm" id="abc_frame" name="abc_frame" onload="abcLoad()" scrolling="NO"> </FRAMESET> </HTML> and abc.htm has: <div align="center" valign="bottom" style="font-size: 1em;"> <form onSubmit="javascript:navigate(this);return false;"> <label for="loc">Loc</label>: <input type="text" size="50" id="loc" value="http://google.com"/> <input name="go" type="submit" value="Go" id="loc_go" onclick='navigate(this); return false;'/> </form> </div> how can I replace current textbox value with, say http://yahoo.com ? I guess, Content Script in Chrome extensions is required, but not sure, how/what should be it's code/content. Please guide/help. Thanks a lot. Appreciate it.

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• converting numbers into alphabets.

  - by Nina

  Hi! i want to convert number into alphabets using javascript e.g. 01=n, 02=i 03=n,04=a and when someone enters the numbers:01020304 in the form he will get like this: nina. or whatever he enters it get replace with equivalent alphabets including spaces. i will be really thankful if you can provide full code including html form code as i am beginner. Thank you all for quick response. I have found this code in one site it converts alphabets into numbers, but code for converting numbers into alphabets isn't working. here is a code for converting alphabets into numbers: var i,j; var getc; var len; var num,alpha; num=new Array("01","02","03","04","05","06","07","08","09","10","11","12","13","14","15","16","17", "18","19","20","21","22","23","24","25","26","00","##","$$"); alpha=new Array("a","b","c","d","e","f","g","h","i","j","k","l","m","n","o","p","q","r","s","t","u"," v","w","x","y","z"," ",".",","); function encode() { len=document.f1.ta1.value.length; document.f1.ta2.value=""; for(i=0;i

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• Really cool way to create custom UITabBar for iPhone app?

  - by ludicco

  Hi, I am doing a lot of researching lately about how to get a different looking with nice effects UITabBar on my iPhone app, but unfortunately I am only finding things on how to replace background color etc. Well, I've checked out this app called Momento which is pretty cool and presents a very slick tabBar: So there are a couple of elements here I would like to ask you guys if you could help me by giving me the right directions on how to get a similar effect :) Arrow above items: as you can see this app has this animated arrow that runs above the selected item with a very smooth animation. Selected Stated of the item's image is not that blue-ish default one neither the default state which displays in a different shade of brown and gray version. nice Items separators with beveled vertical lines. diferrent background image for the tabBar different height for the tabBar At this point after some research I am able to set the height and background image by subclassing UITabBarController but I'm still not sure on how to accomplish the other items specially the first one related to the nice arrow effect. If someone knows about a very good tutorial on how to do this it would be great for clarifying what can or can't be done by subclassing the UITabBarController and specially if can be done in Interface Builder :) I am just starting on this world off app development for iOS so if you could help me on that it would be really appreciated Thanks a lot in advance

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• Wrapper Classes for Backward compatibility in Java

  - by Casebash

  There is an interesting article here on maintaing backwards compatibility for Java. In the wrapper class section, I can't actually understand what the wrapper class accomplishes. In the following code from MyApp, WrapNewClass.checkAvailable() could be replaced by Class.forName("NewClass"). static { try { WrapNewClass.checkAvailable(); mNewClassAvailable = true; } catch (Throwable ex) { mNewClassAvailable = false; } } Consider when NewClass is unavailable. In the code where we use the wrapper (see below), all we have done is replace a class that doesn't exist, with one that exists, but which can't be compiled as it uses a class that doesn't exist. public void diddle() { if (mNewClassAvailable) { WrapNewClass.setGlobalDiv(4); WrapNewClass wnc = new WrapNewClass(40); System.out.println("newer API is available - " + wnc.doStuff(10)); }else { System.out.println("newer API not available"); } } Can anyone explain why this makes a difference? I assume it has something to do with how Java compiles code - which I don't know much about.

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• Silverlight performance with many loaded controls

  - by gius

  I have a SL application with many DataGrids (from Silverlight Toolkit), each on its own view. If several DataGrids are opened, changing between views (TabItems, for example) takes a long time (few seconds) and it freezes the whole application (UI thread). The more DataGrids are loaded, the longer the change takes. These DataGrids that slow the UI chanage might be on other places in the app and not even visible at that moment. But once they are opened (and loaded with data), they slow showing other DataGrids. Note that DataGrids are NOT disposed and then recreated again, they still remain in memory, only their parent control is being hidden and visible again. I have profiled the application. It shows that agcore.dll's SetValue function is the bottleneck. Unfortunately, debug symbols are not available for this Silverlight native library responsible for drawing. The problem is not in the DataGrid control - I tried to replace it with XCeed's grid and the performance when changing views is even worse. Do you have any idea how to solve this problem? Why more opened controls slow down other controls? I have created a sample that shows this issue: http://cenud.cz/PerfTest.zip UPDATE: Using VS11 profiler on the sample provided suggests that the problem could be in MeasureOverride being called many times (for each DataGridCell, I guess). But still, why is it slower as more controls are loaded elsewhere? Is there a way to improve the performance?

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• Trigger ad-hoc activity within a workflow

  - by Chris Taylor

  I am looking to use WF 4 to replace an existing workflow solution we have. One feature that is currently used in the existing workflow engine is the ability to cancel a current activity and loopback to a FlowSwitch type activity. So given the following crude workflow where we start at 'O' and base in the input data the workflow follows the path to 'A2' which is currently blocking on s bookmark waiting for input. ---------A1--\ | \ /\ \ O------- ---->--(A2)-------| ^ \/ / | | | / | | ---------A3--/ | | | |----------------------| However in the meantime some out of band data comes in that means we should cancel 'A2' and return to the FlowSwitch to re-evaluate based on the new data. The question is what is the best way to handle the out of band data that arrived? My initial guess is to have a Parallel activity with one branch waiting for out of band data and the other branch containing the workflow sequence described above. If data came in on the brach waiting for the out of band data, how would I cancel the current activity in the workflow and force it to return to the FlowSwitch. Or of course is there a better way to handle this. I have not actually done any work with the WF4 stuff for WF3 for that matter so I might be missing something obvious here.

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• Old dll.config problem !

  - by user313421

  Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

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• Error logging in C#

  - by rschuler

  I am making my switch from coding in C++ to C#. I need to replace my C++ error logging/reporting macro system with something similar in C#. In my C++ source I can write LOGERR("Some error"); or LOGERR("Error with inputs %s and %d", stringvar, intvar); The macro & supporting library code then passes the (possibly varargs) formatted message into a database along with the source file, source line, user name, and time. The same data is also stuffed into a data structure for later reporting to the user. Does anybody have C# code snippets or pointers to examples that do this basic error reporting/logging? Edit: At the time I asked this question I was really new to .NET and was unaware of System.Diagnostics.Trace. System.Diagnostics.Trace was what I needed at that time. Since then I have used log4net on projects where the logging requirements were larger and more complex. Just edit that 500 line XML configuration file and log4net will do everything you will ever need :)

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• Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

  - by OUHSD Webmaster

  Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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• Boost binding a function taking a reference

  - by Jamie Cook

  Hi all, I am having problems compiling the following snippet int temp; vector<int> origins; vector<string> originTokens = OTUtils::tokenize(buffer, ","); // buffer is a char[] array // original loop BOOST_FOREACH(string s, originTokens) { from_string(temp, s); origins.push_back(temp); } // I'd like to use this to replace the above loop std::transform(originTokens.begin(), originTokens.end(), origins.begin(), boost::bind<int>(&FromString<int>, boost::ref(temp), _1)); where the function in question is // the third parameter should be one of std::hex, std::dec or std::oct template <class T> bool FromString(T& t, const std::string& s, std::ios_base& (*f)(std::ios_base&) = std::dec) { std::istringstream iss(s); return !(iss >> f >> t).fail(); } the error I get is 1>Compiling with Intel(R) C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32]... (Intel C++ Environment) 1>C:\projects\svn\bdk\Source\deps\boost_1_42_0\boost/bind/bind.hpp(303): internal error: assertion failed: copy_default_arg_expr: rout NULL, no error (shared/edgcpfe/il.c, line 13919) 1> 1> return unwrapper<F>::unwrap(f, 0)(a[base_type::a1_], a[base_type::a2_]); 1> ^ 1> 1>icl: error #10298: problem during post processing of parallel object compilation Google is being unusually unhelpful so I hope that some one here can provide some insights.

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• asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

  - by Jopache

  I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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• How to get the most out of a 3 month intern?

  - by firoso

  We've got a software engineering intern coming in who's fairly competent and shows promise. There's one catch: we have him for 3 months full time and can't count on anything past that. He still has a year of school left, which is why we can't say for sure that we have him past 3 months. We have a specific project we're putting him on. How can we maximize his productivity while still giving him a positive learning experience? He wants to learn about development cycles and real-world software engineering. Anything that you think would be critical that you wish you had learned earlier? Nearly six months later: He's preformed admirably and even I have learned a lot from him. Thank you all for the input. Now I want to provide feedback to YOU! He has benefited most from sitting down and writing code. However, he has had a nasty history of bad software engineering practices which I'm trying to replace with good habits (properly finishing a method before moving on, not hacking code together, proper error channeling, etc). He has also really gained a lot by feeling involved in design decisions, even if most of the time they're related to my own design plans.

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