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  • Custom NSView in NSMenuItem not receiving mouse events

    - by Dennis
    I have an NSMenu popping out of an NSStatusItem using popUpStatusItemMenu. These NSMenuItems show a bunch of different links, and each one is connected with setAction: to the openLink: method of a target. This arrangement has been working fine for a long time. The user chooses a link from the menu and the openLink: method then deals with it. Unfortunately, I recently decided to experiment with using NSMenuItem's setView: method to provide a nicer/slicker interface. Basically, I just stopped setting the title, created the NSMenuItem, and then used setView: to display a custom view. This works perfectly, the menu items look great and my custom view is displayed. However, when the user chooses a menu item and releases the mouse, the action no longer works (i.e., openLink: isn't called). If I just simply comment out the setView: call, then the actions work again (of course, the menu items are blank, but the action is executed properly). My first question, then, is why setting a view breaks the NSMenuItem's action. No problem, I thought, I'll fix it by detecting the mouseUp event in my custom view and calling my action method from there. I added this method to my custom view: - (void)mouseUp:(NSEvent *)theEvent { NSLog(@"in mouseUp"); } No dice! This method is never called. I can set tracking rects and receive mouseEntered: events, though. I put a few tests in my mouseEntered routine, as follows: if ([[self window] ignoresMouseEvents]) { NSLog(@"ignoring mouse events"); } else { NSLog(@"not ignoring mouse events"); } if ([[self window] canBecomeKeyWindow]) { dNSLog((@"canBecomeKeyWindow")); } else { NSLog(@"not canBecomeKeyWindow"); } if ([[self window] isKeyWindow]) { dNSLog((@"isKeyWindow")); } else { NSLog(@"not isKeyWindow"); } And got the following responses: not ignoring mouse events canBecomeKeyWindow not isKeyWindow Is this the problem? "not isKeyWindow"? Presumably this isn't good because Apple's docs say "If the user clicks a view that isn’t in the key window, by default the window is brought forward and made key, but the mouse event is not dispatched." But there must be a way do detect these events. HOW? Adding: [[self window] makeKeyWindow]; has no effect, despite the fact that canBecomeKeyWindow is YES.

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  • How to bind DataTable to Chart series?

    - by user175908
    Hello, How to do bind data from DataTable to Chart series? I get null reference exception. I tried binding with square brackets and it did not worked either. So, how to do the binding? Thanks. P.S: I included DataGrid XAML and CS which works just fine. Converting data to List<KeyValuePair<string,int>> works good but it is kinda slow and is unnessesary trash in code. I use WPFToolkit (the latest version). XAML: <Window x:Class="BindingzTest.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="606" Width="988" xmlns:charting="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls.DataVisualization.Charting;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.DataVisualization.Toolkit"> <Grid Name="LayoutRoot"> <charting:Chart Title="Letters and Numbers" VerticalAlignment="Top" Height="400"> <charting:Chart.Series> <charting:ColumnSeries Name="myChartSeries" IndependentValueBinding="{Binding Letter}" DependentValueBinding="{Binding Number}" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> </charting:Chart.Series> </charting:Chart> <DataGrid Name="myDataGrid" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0,400,0,50" ItemsSource="{Binding}" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Letter" Binding="{Binding Letter}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Number" Binding="{Binding Number}"/> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> <Button Content="Generate" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Name="generateButton" Width="128" Click="GenerateButtonClicked" Height="52" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" /> </Grid> CS: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } DataTable GenerateMyTable() { var myTable = new DataTable("MyTable"); myTable.Columns.Add("Letter"); myTable.Columns.Add("Number"); myTable.Rows.Add("A", 500); myTable.Rows.Add("B", 400); myTable.Rows.Add("C", 500); myTable.Rows.Add("D", 600); myTable.Rows.Add("E", 300); myTable.Rows.Add("F", 200); return myTable; } private void GenerateButtonClicked(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var myGeneratedTable = GenerateMyTable(); myDataGrid.DataContext = myGeneratedTable; myChartSeries.DataContext = myGeneratedTable; // Calling this throws "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" exception } }

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  • iPhone JSON Object

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to create a application that will retrieve JSON data from an HTTP request, send it to a the application main controller as a JSON object then from there do further processing with it. Where I'm stick is actually creating a class that will serve as a JSON class in which will take a URL, grab the data, and return that object. Alone, im able to make this class work, however I can not get the class to store the object for my main controller to retrieve it. Because im fairly new to Objective-C itself, my thoughts are that im messing up within my init call: -initWithURL:(NSString *) value { responseData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; NSString *theURL = value; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:theURL]]; [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:self]; return self; } The processing of the JSON object takes place here: - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [connection release]; NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [responseData release]; NSError *jsonError; SBJSON *json = [[SBJSON new] autorelease]; NSDictionary *parsedJSON = [json objectWithString:responseString error:&jsonError]; // NSArray object. listings = [parsedJSON objectForKey:@"posts"]; NSEnumerator *enumerator = [listings objectEnumerator]; NSDictionary* item; // to prove that it does work. while (item = (NSDictionary*)[enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog(@"posts:id = %@", [item objectForKey:@"id"]); NSLog(@"posts:address = %@", [item objectForKey:@"address"]); NSLog(@"posts:lat = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lat"]); NSLog(@"posts:lng = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lng"]); } [responseString release]; } Now when calling the object within the main controller I have this bit of code in the viewDidLoad method call: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; JSON_model *jsonObj = [[JSON_model alloc] initWithURL:@"http://localhost/json/faith_json.php?user=1&format=json"]; NSEnumerator *enumerator = [[jsonObj listings] objectEnumerator]; NSDictionary* item; // while (item = (NSDictionary*)[enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog(@"posts:id = %@", [item objectForKey:@"id"]); NSLog(@"posts:address = %@", [item objectForKey:@"address"]); NSLog(@"posts:lat = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lat"]); NSLog(@"posts:lng = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lng"]); } }

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  • NSZombieEnabled breaking working code?

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I have the following method in UIImageManipulation.m: +(UIImage *)scaleImage:(UIImage *)source toSize:(CGSize)size { UIImage *scaledImage = nil; if (source != nil) { UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(size); [source drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, size.width, size.height)]; scaledImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); } return scaledImage; } I am calling it in a different view with: imageFromFile = [UIImageManipulator scaleImage:imageFromFile toSize:imageView.frame.size]; (imageView is a UIImageView allocated earlier) This is working great in my code. I resizes the image perfectly, and throws zero errors. I also don't have anything pop up under build - analyze. But the second I turn on NSZombieEnabled to debug a different EXC_BAD_ACCESS issue, the code breaks. Every single time. I can turn NSZombieEnabled off, code runs great. I turn it on, and boom. Broken. I comment out the call, and it works again. Every single time, it gives me an error in the console: -[UIImage release]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b1d600. This error doesn't appear if `NSZombieEnabled is turned off. Any ideas? --EDIT-- Ok, This is killing me. I have stuck breakpoints everywhere I can, and I still cannot get a hold of this thing. Here is the full code when I call the scaleImage method: -(void)setupImageButton { UIImage *imageFromFile; if (object.imageAttribute == nil) { imageFromFile = [UIImage imageNamed:@"no-image.png"]; } else { imageFromFile = object.imageAttribute; } UIImage *scaledImage = [UIImageManipulator scaleImage:imageFromFile toSize:imageButton.frame.size]; UIImage *roundedImage = [UIImageManipulator makeRoundCornerImage:scaledImage :10 :10 withBorder:YES]; [imageButton setBackgroundImage:roundedImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } The other UIImageManipulator method (makeRoundCornerImage) shouldn't be causing the error, but just in case I'm overlooking something, I threw the entire file up on github here. It's something about this method though. Has to be. If I comment it out, it works great. If I leave it in, Error. But it doesn't throw errors with NSZombieEnabled turned off ever.

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  • GOTO still considered harmful?

    - by Kyle Cronin
    Everyone is aware of Dijkstra's Letters to the editor: go to statement considered harmful (also here .html transcript and here .pdf) and there has been a formidable push since that time to eschew the goto statement whenever possible. While it's possible to use goto to produce unmaintainable, sprawling code, it nevertheless remains in modern programming languages. Even the advanced continuation control structure in Scheme can be described as a sophisticated goto. What circumstances warrant the use of goto? When is it best to avoid? As a followup question: C provides a pair of functions, setjmp and longjmp, that provide the ability to goto not just within the current stack frame but within any of the calling frames. Should these be considered as dangerous as goto? More dangerous? Dijkstra himself regretted that title, of which he was not responsible for. At the end of EWD1308 (also here .pdf) he wrote: Finally a short story for the record. In 1968, the Communications of the ACM published a text of mine under the title "The goto statement considered harmful", which in later years would be most frequently referenced, regrettably, however, often by authors who had seen no more of it than its title, which became a cornerstone of my fame by becoming a template: we would see all sorts of articles under the title "X considered harmful" for almost any X, including one titled "Dijkstra considered harmful". But what had happened? I had submitted a paper under the title "A case against the goto statement", which, in order to speed up its publication, the editor had changed into a "letter to the Editor", and in the process he had given it a new title of his own invention! The editor was Niklaus Wirth. A well thought out classic paper about this topic, to be matched to that of Dijkstra, is Structured Programming with go to Statements (also here .pdf), by Donald E. Knuth. Reading both helps to reestablish context and a non-dogmatic understanding of the subject. In this paper, Dijkstra's opinion on this case is reported and is even more strong: Donald E. Knuth: I believe that by presenting such a view I am not in fact disagreeing sharply with Dijkstra's ideas, since he recently wrote the following: "Please don't fall into the trap of believing that I am terribly dogmatical about [the go to statement]. I have the uncomfortable feeling that others are making a religion out of it, as if the conceptual problems of programming could be solved by a single trick, by a simple form of coding discipline!"

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  • How to include a PHP generated XML file into flash vars, while ALSO passing through the current php functions into it?

    - by Sam
    Hello Given situation: In webpage.php the flashscript is calling a flash script with a flashvar: the playlist file which is a PHP generated XML file: playlist.php, it does that well so long as there are no extra functions in there. Now, in that XML-format playlistfile there needs to be a special function, besides the usual echo("");, namely the very special echo __(""); function that is already declared in webpage.php which needs to do something with the paragraphs residing within that xml file. However, currently the retrieved file misses the function echo __();and says "no such function declared in that xml-format [playlist.php] file". The php functions that are currently included at the very top of webpage.php somehow do not pass-through-the necessary functions into the playlist file for it to recognise how to handle it, in order for that playlist to get those necessary functions working. Apparently these are not passed through automatically/properly when residing in the flashvars?? Cause the echo __(""); works fine when called within webpage.php or via a normal php include(""); if those functions are in a different php file. But not working from the playlist.php file. Any ideas why/what is going on here? I appreciate your clues for this prob +1. Thanks very much. WEBPAGE.PHP the webpage, has at the top an include with functions: <?php include (functions.php); ?> // function that know what to do with echo __("paragraph") <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> run( 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'flashvars', 'xmlFile=/incl/playlist.php', // <<<< !! 'wmode', 'transparent', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', ); </script> <noscript> <object classid="blabla"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="movie" value="/movies/movie.swf" /> <param name="flashvars" value="xmlFile=/incl/playlist.php" /> // <<< !! <embed src="/movies/movies.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"/> </object> </noscript> PLAYLIST.PHP The PHP generated XML file which is retrieved into the webpage as flash variable (see above) <?php echo ('<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?>'); echo ('<songs>'); echo ('<song version="1. "') . __("boom blue blow bell bowl") . ('/>'); echo ('<song version="2. "') . __("ball bail beam bike base") . ('/>'); echo ('</songs>'); ?>

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  • How can arguments to variadic functions be passed by reference in PHP?

    - by outis
    Assuming it's possible, how would one pass arguments by reference to a variadic function without generating a warning in PHP? We can no longer use the '&' operator in a function call, otherwise I'd accept that (even though it would be error prone, should a coder forget it). What inspired this is are old MySQLi wrapper classes that I unearthed (these days, I'd just use PDO). The only difference between the wrappers and the MySQLi classes is the wrappers throw exceptions rather than returning FALSE. class DBException extends RuntimeException {} ... class MySQLi_throwing extends mysqli { ... function prepare($query) { $stmt = parent::prepare($query); if (!$stmt) { throw new DBException($this->error, $this->errno); } return new MySQLi_stmt_throwing($this, $query, $stmt); } } // I don't remember why I switched from extension to composition, but // it shouldn't matter for this question. class MySQLi_stmt_throwing /* extends MySQLi_stmt */ { protected $_link, $_query, $_delegate; public function __construct($link, $query, $prepared) { //parent::__construct($link, $query); $this->_link = $link; $this->_query = $query; $this->_delegate = $prepared; } function bind_param($name, &$var) { return $this->_delegate->bind_param($name, $var); } function __call($name, $args) { //$rslt = call_user_func_array(array($this, 'parent::' . $name), $args); $rslt = call_user_func_array(array($this->_delegate, $name), $args); if (False === $rslt) { throw new DBException($this->_link->error, $this->errno); } return $rslt; } } The difficulty lies in calling methods such as bind_result on the wrapper. Constant-arity functions (e.g. bind_param) can be explicitly defined, allowing for pass-by-reference. bind_result, however, needs all arguments to be pass-by-reference. If you call bind_result on an instance of MySQLi_stmt_throwing as-is, the arguments are passed by value and the binding won't take. try { $id = Null; $stmt = $db->prepare('SELECT id FROM tbl WHERE ...'); $stmt->execute() $stmt->bind_result($id); // $id is still null at this point ... } catch (DBException $exc) { ... } Since the above classes are no longer in use, this question is merely a matter of curiosity. Alternate approaches to the wrapper classes are not relevant. Defining a method with a bunch of arguments taking Null default values is not correct (what if you define 20 arguments, but the function is called with 21?). Answers don't even need to be written in terms of MySQL_stmt_throwing; it exists simply to provide a concrete example.

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  • NSObject release destroys local copy of object's data

    - by Spider-Paddy
    I know this is something stupid on my part but I don't get what's happening. I create an object that fetches data & puts it into an array in a specific format, since it fetches asynchronously (has to download & parse data) I put a delegate method into the object that needs the data so that the data fetching object copies it's formatted array into an array in the calling object. The problem is that when the data fetching object is released, the copy it created in the caller is being erased, code is: In .h file @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *imagesDataSource; In .m file // Fetch item details ImagesParser *imagesParserObject = [[ImagesParser alloc] init:self]; [imagesParserObject getArticleImagesOfArticleId:(NSInteger)currentArticleId]; [imagesParserObject release] <-- problematic release // Called by parser when images parsing is finished -(void)imagesDataTransferComplete:(ImagesParser *)imagesParserObject { self.imagesDataSource = [ImagesParserObject.returnedArray copy]; // copy array to local variable // If there are more pics, they must be assembled in an array for possible UIImageView animation NSInteger picCount = [imagesDataSource count]; if(picCount > 1) // 1 image is assumed to be the pic already displayed { // Build image array NSMutableArray *tempPicArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Temp space to hold images while building for(int i = 0; i < picCount; i++) { // Get Nr from only article in detailDataSource & pic name (Small) from each item in imagesDataSource NSString *picAddress = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://some.url.com/shopdata/image/article/%@/%@", [[detailDataSource objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Nr"], [[imagesDataSource objectAtIndex:i] objectForKey:@"Small"]]; NSURL *picURL = [NSURL URLWithString:picAddress]; NSData *picData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:picURL]; [tempPicArray addObject:[UIImage imageWithData:picData]]; } imagesArray = [tempPicArray copy]; // copy makes immutable copy of array [tempPicArray release]; currentPicIndex = 0; // Assume first pic is pic already being shown } else imagesArray = nil; // No need for a needless pic array // Remove please wait message [pleaseWaitViewControllerObject.view removeFromSuperview]; } I put in tons of NSLog lines to keep track of what was going on & self.imagesDataSource is populated with the returned array but when the parser object is released self.imagesDataSource becomes empty. I thought self.imagesDataSource = [ImagesParserObject.returnedArray copy]; is supposed to make an independant object, like as if it was alloc, init'ed, so that self.imagesDataSource is not just a pointer to the parser's array but is it's own array. So why does the release of the parser object clear the copy of the array. (I checked & double checked that it's not something overwriting self.imagesDataSource, commenting out [imagesParserObject release] consistently fixes the problem) Also, I have exactly the same problem with self.detailDataSource which is declared & populated in the exact same way as self.imagesDataSource I thought that once I call the parser I could release it because the caller no longer needs to refer to it, all further activity is carried out by the parser object through it's delegate method, what am I doing wrong?

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  • SQL CLR Stored Procedure and Web Service

    - by Nathan
    I am current working on a task in which I am needing to call a method in a web service from a CLR stored procedure. A bit of background: Basically, I have a task that requires ALOT of crunching. If done strictly in SQL, it takes somewhere around 30-45 mins to process. If I pull the same process into code, I can get it complete in seconds due to being able to optimize the processing so much more efficiently. The only problem is that I have to have this process set as an automated task in SQL Server. In that vein, I have exposed the process as a web service (I use it for other things as well) and want the SQL CLR sproc to consume the service and execute the code. This allows me to have my automated task. The problem: I have read quite a few different topics regarding how to consume a web service in a CLR Sproc and have done so effectivly. Here is an example of what I have followed. http://blog.hoegaerden.be/2008/11/11/calling-a-web-service-from-sql-server-2005/ I can get this example working without any issues. However, whenever I pair this process w/ a Web Service method that involves a database call, I get the following exceptions (depending upon whether or not I wrap in a try / catch): Msg 10312, Level 16, State 49, Procedure usp_CLRRunDirectSimulationAndWriteResults, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. The UDP/UDF/UDT did not revert thread token. or Msg 6522, Level 16, State 1, Procedure MyStoredProc , Line 0 A .NET Framework error occurred during execution of user defined routine or aggregate 'MyStoredProc': System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.EnvironmentPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. System.Security.SecurityException: at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.CredentialCache.get_DefaultCredentials() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean value) at MyStoredProc.localhost.MPWebService.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean Value) at MyStoredProclocalhost.MPWebService..ctor() at MyStoredProc.StoredProcedures.MyStoredProc(String FromPostCode, String ToPostCode) I am sure this is a permission issue, but I can't, for the life of me get it working. I have attempted using impersonation in the CLR sproc and a few other things. Any suggestions? What am I missing?

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  • hibernate column uniqueness question

    - by Seth
    I'm still in the process of learning hibernate/hql and I have a question that's half best practices question/half sanity check. Let's say I have a class A: @Entity public class A { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @Column(unique=true) private String name = ""; //getters, setters, etc. omitted for brevity } I want to enforce that every instance of A that gets saved has a unique name (hence the @Column annotation), but I also want to be able to handle the case where there's already an A instance saved that has that name. I see two ways of doing this: 1) I can catch the org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException that could be thrown during the session.saveOrUpdate() call and try to handle it. 2) I can query for existing instances of A that already have that name in the DAO before calling session.saveOrUpdate(). Right now I'm leaning towards approach 2, because in approach 1 I don't know how to programmatically figure out which constraint was violated (there are a couple of other unique members in A). Right now my DAO.save() code looks roughly like this: public void save(A a) throws DataAccessException, NonUniqueNameException { Session session = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); try { session.beginTransaction(); Query query = null; //if id isn't null, make sure we don't count this object as a duplicate if(obj.getId() == null) { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name").setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } else { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name " + "and a.id != :id").setParameter("name", obj.getName()).setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } Long numNameDuplicates = (Long)query.uniqueResult(); if(numNameDuplicates > 0) throw new NonUniqueNameException(); session.saveOrUpdate(a); session.getTransaction().commit(); } catch(RuntimeException e) { session.getTransaction().rollback(); throw new DataAccessException(e); //my own class } } Am I going about this in the right way? Can hibernate tell me programmatically (i.e. not as an error string) which value is violating the uniqueness constraint? By separating the query from the commit, am I inviting thread-safety errors, or am I safe? How is this usually done? Thanks!

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  • DataRelation Insert and ForeignKey

    - by Steve
    Guys, I have a winforms application with two DataGridViews displaying a master-detail relationship from my Person and Address tables. Person table has a PersonID field that is auto-incrementing primary key. Address has a PersonID field that is the FK. I fill my DataTables with DataAdapter and set Person.PersonID column's AutoIncrement=true and AutoIncrementStep=-1. I can insert records in the Person DataTable from the DataGridView. The PersonID column displays unique negative values for PersonID. I update the database by calling DataAdapter.Update(PersonTable) and the negative PersonIDs are converted to positive unique values automatically by SQL Server. Here's the rub. The Address DataGridView show the address table which has a DataRelation to Person by PersonID. Inserted Person records have the temporary negative PersonID. I can now insert records into Address via DataGridView and Address.PersonID is set to the negative value from the DataRelation mapping. I call Adapter.Update(AddressTable) and the negative PersonIDs go into the Address table breaking the relationship. How do you guys handle primary/foreign keys using DataTables and master-detail DataGridViews? Thanks! Steve EDIT: After more googling, I found that SqlDataAdapter.RowUpdated event gives me what I need. I create a new command to query the last id inserted by using @@IDENTITY. It works pretty well. The DataRelation updates the Address.PersonID field for me so it's required to Update the Person table first then update the Address table. All the new records insert properly with correct ids in place! Adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); Adapter.RowUpdated += (s, e) => { if (e.StatementType != StatementType.Insert) return; //set the id for the inserted record SqlCommand c = e.Command.Connection.CreateCommand(); c.CommandText = "select @@IDENTITY id"; e.Row[0] = Convert.ToInt32( c.ExecuteScalar() ); }; Adapter.Fill(this); SqlCommandBuilder sb = new SqlCommandBuilder(Adapter); sb.GetDeleteCommand(); sb.GetUpdateCommand(); sb.GetInsertCommand(); this.Columns[0].AutoIncrement = true; this.Columns[0].AutoIncrementSeed = -1; this.Columns[0].AutoIncrementStep = -1;

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  • With sqlalchemy how to dynamically bind to database engine on a per-request basis

    - by Peter Hansen
    I have a Pylons-based web application which connects via Sqlalchemy (v0.5) to a Postgres database. For security, rather than follow the typical pattern of simple web apps (as seen in just about all tutorials), I'm not using a generic Postgres user (e.g. "webapp") but am requiring that users enter their own Postgres userid and password, and am using that to establish the connection. That means we get the full benefit of Postgres security. Complicating things still further, there are two separate databases to connect to. Although they're currently in the same Postgres cluster, they need to be able to move to separate hosts at a later date. We're using sqlalchemy's declarative package, though I can't see that this has any bearing on the matter. Most examples of sqlalchemy show trivial approaches such as setting up the Metadata once, at application startup, with a generic database userid and password, which is used through the web application. This is usually done with Metadata.bind = create_engine(), sometimes even at module-level in the database model files. My question is, how can we defer establishing the connections until the user has logged in, and then (of course) re-use those connections, or re-establish them using the same credentials, for each subsequent request. We have this working -- we think -- but I'm not only not certain of the safety of it, I also think it looks incredibly heavy-weight for the situation. Inside the __call__ method of the BaseController we retrieve the userid and password from the web session, call sqlalchemy create_engine() once for each database, then call a routine which calls Session.bind_mapper() repeatedly, once for each table that may be referenced on each of those connections, even though any given request usually references only one or two tables. It looks something like this: # in lib/base.py on the BaseController class def __call__(self, environ, start_response): # note: web session contains {'username': XXX, 'password': YYY} url1 = 'postgres://%(username)s:%(password)s@server1/finance' % session url2 = 'postgres://%(username)s:%(password)s@server2/staff' % session finance = create_engine(url1) staff = create_engine(url2) db_configure(staff, finance) # see below ... etc # in another file Session = scoped_session(sessionmaker()) def db_configure(staff, finance): s = Session() from db.finance import Employee, Customer, Invoice for c in [ Employee, Customer, Invoice, ]: s.bind_mapper(c, finance) from db.staff import Project, Hour for c in [ Project, Hour, ]: s.bind_mapper(c, staff) s.close() # prevents leaking connections between sessions? So the create_engine() calls occur on every request... I can see that being needed, and the Connection Pool probably caches them and does things sensibly. But calling Session.bind_mapper() once for each table, on every request? Seems like there has to be a better way. Obviously, since a desire for strong security underlies all this, we don't want any chance that a connection established for a high-security user will inadvertently be used in a later request by a low-security user.

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  • Why is my javascript function sometimes "not defined"?

    - by harpo
    Problem: I call my javascript function, and sometimes I get the error 'myFunction is not defined'. But it is defined. For example. I'll occasionally get 'copyArray is not defined' even in this example: function copyArray( pa ) { var la = []; for (var i=0; i < pa.length; i++) la.push( pa[i] ); return la; } Function.prototype.bind = function( po ) { var __method = this; var __args = []; // sometimes errors -- in practice I inline the function as a workaround __args = copyArray( arguments ); return function() { /* bind logic omitted for brevity */ } } As you can see, copyArray is defined right there, so this can't be about the order in which script files load. I've been getting this in situations that are harder to work around, where the calling function is located in another file that should be loaded after the called function. But this was the simplest case I could present, and appears to be the same problem. It doesn't happen 100% of the time, so I do suspect some kind of load-timing-related problem. But I have no idea what. @Hojou: That's part of the problem. The function in which I'm now getting this error is itself my addLoadEvent, which is basically a standard version of the common library function. @James: I understand that, and there is no syntax error in the function. When that is the case, the syntax error is reported as well. In this case, I am getting only the 'not defined' error. @David: The script in this case resides in an external file that is referenced using the normal <script src="file.js"></script> method in the page's head section. @Douglas: Interesting idea, but if this were the case, how could we ever call a user-defined function with confidence? In any event, I tried this and it didn't work. @sk: This technique has been tested across browsers and is basically copied from the prototype library.

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  • Compile classfile issue in Spring 3

    - by Prajith R
    I have used spring framework 3 for my application. Everything is ok while developed in Netbeans But i need a custom build and done for the same The build created without any issue, but i got the following error The error occurred while calling the following method @RequestMapping(value = "/security/login", method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView login(@RequestParam String userName, @RequestParam String password, HttpServletRequest request) { ...................... But There is no issue while creating the war with netbeans (I am sure it is about the compilation issue) have you any experiance on this issue ... There is any additional javac argument for compile the same (netbeans used there custom task for the compilation) type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception org.springframework.web.util.NestedServletException: Request processing failed; nested exception is org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.support.HandlerMethodInvocationException: Failed to invoke handler method [public org.springframework.web.servlet.ModelAndView com.mypackage.security.controller.LoginController.login(java.lang.String,java.lang.String,javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest)]; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: No parameter name specified for argument of type [java.lang.String], and no parameter name information found in class file either. org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:659) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doPost(FrameworkServlet.java:563) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:637) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) com.mypackage.security.controller.AuthFilter.doFilter(Unknown Source) org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy.invokeDelegate(DelegatingFilterProxy.java:237) org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy.doFilter(DelegatingFilterProxy.java:167) root cause org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.support.HandlerMethodInvocationException: Failed to invoke handler method [public org.springframework.web.servlet.ModelAndView com.mypackage.security.controller.LoginController.login(java.lang.String,java.lang.String,javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest)]; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: No parameter name specified for argument of type [java.lang.String], and no parameter name information found in class file either. org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.support.HandlerMethodInvoker.invokeHandlerMethod(HandlerMethodInvoker.java:171) org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter.invokeHandlerMethod(AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter.java:414) org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter.handle(AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter.java:402) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:771) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:716) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:647) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doPost(FrameworkServlet.java:563) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:637) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) com.mypackage.security.controller.AuthFilter.doFilter(Unknown Source) org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy.invokeDelegate(DelegatingFilterProxy.java:237) org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy.doFilter(DelegatingFilterProxy.java:167) root cause java.lang.IllegalStateException: No parameter name specified for argument of type [java.lang.String], and no parameter name information found in class file either. org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.support.HandlerMethodInvoker.getRequiredParameterName(HandlerMethodInvoker.java:618) org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.support.HandlerMethodInvoker.resolveRequestParam(HandlerMethodInvoker.java:417) org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.support.HandlerMethodInvoker.resolveHandlerArguments(HandlerMethodInvoker.java:277) org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.support.HandlerMethodInvoker.invokeHandlerMethod(HandlerMethodInvoker.java:163) org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter.invokeHandlerMethod(AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter.java:414) org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter.handle(AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter.java:402) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:771) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:716) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:647) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doPost(FrameworkServlet.java:563) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:637) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) com.mypackage.security.controller.AuthFilter.doFilter(Unknown Source) org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy.invokeDelegate(DelegatingFilterProxy.java:237) org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy.doFilter(DelegatingFilterProxy.java:167) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/6.0.18 logs.

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  • Streaming webcam video in Flash using MP4 encoding

    - by Herms
    One of the features of the Flash app I'm working on is to be able to stream a webcam to others. We're just using the built-in webcam support in Flash and sending it through FMS. We've had some people ask for higher quality video, but we're already using the highest quality setting we can in Flash (setting quality to 100%). My understanding is that in the newer flash players they added support for MPEG-4 encoding for the videos. I created a simple test Flex app to try and compare the video quality of the MP4 vs FLV encodings. However, I can't seem to get MP4 to work at all. According to the Flex documentation the only thing I need to do to use MP4 instead of FLV is prepend "mp4:" to the name of the stream when calling publish: Specify the stream name as a string with the prefix mp4: with or without the filename extension. The prefix indicates to the server that the file contains H.264-encoded video and AAC-encoded audio within the MPEG-4 Part 14 container format. When I try this nothing happens. I don't get any events raised on the client side, no exceptions thrown, and my logging on the server side doesn't show any streams starting. Here's the relevant code: // These are all defined and created within the class. private var nc:NetConnection; private var sharing:Boolean; private var pubStream:NetStream; private var format:String; private var streamName:String; private var camera:Camera; // called when the user clicks the start button private function startSharing():void { if (!nc.connected) { return; } if (sharing) { return; } if(pubStream == null) { pubStream = new NetStream(nc); pubStream.attachCamera(camera); } startPublish(); sharing = true; } private function startPublish():void { var name:String; if (this.format == "mp4") { name = "mp4:" + streamName; } else { name = streamName; } //pubStream.publish(name, "live"); pubStream.publish(name, "record"); }

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  • Consuming Web Services requiring Authentication from behind Proxy server

    - by Jan Petersen
    Hi All, I've seen a number of post about Proxy Authentication, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a SharePoint Web Service consuming desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. It's almost as if the authentication I provide is going to the proxy rather than the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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  • org.hibernate.TransientObjectException during Criteria.list()

    - by rancidfishbreath
    I have seen posts all over the internet that talk about how to fix the TransientObjectExceptions during save/update/delete but I am having this problem when calling list on my Criteria. I have two objects A and B. A has a field named b which is of type B. In my mapping b is mapped as a many-to-one. This all runs in a larger persistence framework (the framework is kind of like Core Data) and so I don't use any cascades in my hibernate mappings since cascades are handled at a higher level. This is the interesting code surrounding my criteria: A a = new A(); B b = new B(); a.setB(b); session.save("B", b); // Actually handled by the higher level session.save("A", a); // framework, this is just for clarity // transaction committed and session closed ... // new session opened Criteria criteria = session.createCriteria(A.class); criteria.add(Restrictions.eq("b", b)); List<?> objects = criteria.list(); Basically I am looking for all objects of type A such that A.b equals a particular instance of b (I actually tried restructuring a query so that I was passing in the id of b just to make sure that b wasn't causing me problems). Here is the stack trace that occurs when I call criteria.list(): org.hibernate.TransientObjectException: object references an unsaved transient instance - save the transient instance before flushing: B at org.hibernate.engine.ForeignKeys.getEntityIdentifierIfNotUnsaved(ForeignKeys.java:244) at org.hibernate.type.EntityType.getIdentifier(EntityType.java:449) at org.hibernate.type.ManyToOneType.nullSafeSet(ManyToOneType.java:141) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.bindPositionalParameters(Loader.java:1769) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.bindParameterValues(Loader.java:1740) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.prepareQueryStatement(Loader.java:1612) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQuery(Loader.java:717) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(Loader.java:270) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2294) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.listIgnoreQueryCache(Loader.java:2172) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.list(Loader.java:2167) at org.hibernate.loader.criteria.CriteriaLoader.list(CriteriaLoader.java:119) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.list(SessionImpl.java:1706) at org.hibernate.impl.CriteriaImpl.list(CriteriaImpl.java:347) Here is my mapping: <class entity-name="A" lazy="false"> <tuplizer entity-mode="dynamic-map" class="MyTuplizer" /> <id type="long" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="b" entity-name="B" column="b_id" lazy="false" /> </class> <class entity-name="B" lazy="false"> <tuplizer entity-mode="dynamic-map" class="MyTuplizer" /> <id type="long" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> </class> Can anyone help me figure out why I would be getting a TransientObjectException during a fetch? Preferably I would like to find a solution that does not rely on cascades since they tend to mask problems that occur in the higher level framework.

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  • Installing my sdist from PyPI puts the files in the wrong places

    - by Tartley
    Hey. My problem is that when I upload my Python package to PyPI, and then install it from there using pip, my app breaks because it installs my files into completely different locations than when I simply install the exact same package from a local sdist. Installing from the local sdist puts files on my system like this: /Python27/ Lib/ site-packages/ gloopy-0.1.alpha-py2.7.egg/ (egg and install info files) data/ (images and shader source) doc/ (html) examples/ (.py scripts that use the library) gloopy/ (source) This is much as I'd expect, and works fine (e.g. my source can find my data dir, because they lie next to each other, just like they do in development.) If I upload the same sdist to PyPI and then install it from there, using pip, then things look very different: /Python27/ data/ (images and shader source) doc/ (html) Lib/ site-packages/ gloopy-0.1.alpha-py2.7.egg/ (egg and install info files) gloopy/ (source files) examples/ (.py scripts that use the library) This doesn't work at all - my app can't find its data files, plus obviously it's a mess, polluting the top-level /python27 directory with all my junk. What am I doing wrong? How do I make the pip install behave like the local sdist install? Is that even what I should be trying to achieve? Details I have setuptools installed, and also distribute, and I'm calling distribute_setup.use_setuptools() WindowsXP, Python2.7. My development directory looks like this: /gloopy /data (image files and GLSL shader souce read at runtime) /doc (html files) /examples (some scripts to show off the library) /gloopy (the library itself) My MANIFEST.in mentions all the files I want to be included in the sdist, including everything in the data, examples and doc directories: recursive-include data *.* recursive-include examples *.py recursive-include doc/html *.html *.css *.js *.png include LICENSE.txt include TODO.txt My setup.py is quite verbose, but I guess the best thing is to include it here, right? I also includes duplicate references to the same data / doc / examples directories as are mentioned in the MANIFEST.in, because I understand this is required in order for these files to be copied from the sdist to the system during install. NAME = 'gloopy' VERSION= __import__(NAME).VERSION RELEASE = __import__(NAME).RELEASE SCRIPT = None CONSOLE = False def main(): import sys from pprint import pprint from setup_utils import distribute_setup from setup_utils.sdist_setup import get_sdist_config distribute_setup.use_setuptools() from setuptools import setup description, long_description = read_description() config = dict( name=name, version=version, description=description, long_description=long_description, keywords='', packages=find_packages(), data_files=[ ('examples', glob('examples/*.py')), ('data/shaders', glob('data/shaders/*.*')), ('doc', glob('doc/html/*.*')), ('doc/_images', glob('doc/html/_images/*.*')), ('doc/_modules', glob('doc/html/_modules/*.*')), ('doc/_modules/gloopy', glob('doc/html/_modules/gloopy/*.*')), ('doc/_modules/gloopy/geom', glob('doc/html/_modules/gloopy/geom/*.*')), ('doc/_modules/gloopy/move', glob('doc/html/_modules/gloopy/move/*.*')), ('doc/_modules/gloopy/shapes', glob('doc/html/_modules/gloopy/shapes/*.*')), ('doc/_modules/gloopy/util', glob('doc/html/_modules/gloopy/util/*.*')), ('doc/_modules/gloopy/view', glob('doc/html/_modules/gloopy/view/*.*')), ('doc/_static', glob('doc/html/_static/*.*')), ('doc/_api', glob('doc/html/_api/*.*')), ], classifiers=[ 'Development Status :: 1 - Planning', 'Intended Audience :: Developers', 'License :: OSI Approved :: BSD License', 'Operating System :: Microsoft :: Windows', 'Programming Language :: Python :: 2.7', ], # see classifiers http://pypi.python.org/pypi?:action=list_classifiers ) config.update(dict( author='Jonathan Hartley', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://bitbucket.org/tartley/gloopy', license='New BSD', ) ) if '--verbose' in sys.argv: pprint(config) setup(**config) if __name__ == '__main__': main()

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  • C# XMLSerializer fails with List<T>

    - by Redshirt
    Help... I'm using a singleton class to save all my settings info. It's first utilized by calling Settings.ValidateSettings(@"C:\MyApp") The problem I'm having is that 'List Contacts' is causing the xmlserializer to fail to write the settings file, or to load said settings. If I comment out the List then I have no problems saving/loading the xml file. What am I doing wrong... Thanks in advance // The actual settings to save public class MyAppSettings { public bool FirstLoad { get; set; } public string VehicleFolderName { get; set; } public string ContactFolderName { get; set; } public List<ContactInfo> Contacts { get { if (contacts == null) contacts = new List<ContactInfo>(); return contacts; } set { contacts = value; } } private List<ContactInfo> contacts; } // The class in which the settings are manipulated public static class Settings { public static string SettingPath; private static MyAppSettings instance; public static MyAppSettings Instance { get { if (instance == null) instance = new MyAppSettings(); return instance; } set { instance = value; } } public static void InitializeSettings(string path) { SettingPath = Path.GetFullPath(path + "\\MyApp.xml"); if (File.Exists(SettingPath)) { LoadSettings(); } else { Instance.FirstLoad = true; Instance.VehicleFolderName = "Cars"; Instance.ContactFolderName = "Contacts"; SaveSettingsFile(); } } // load the settings from the xml file private static void LoadSettings() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextReader reader = new StreamReader(SettingPath); Instance = (MyAppSettings)ser.Deserialize(reader); reader.Close(); } // Save the settings to the xml file public static void SaveSettingsFile() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(SettingPath); ser.Serialize(writer, Settings.Instance); writer.Close(); } public static bool ValidateSettings(string initialFolder) { try { Settings.InitializeSettings(initialFolder); } catch (Exception e) { return false; } // Do some validation logic here return true; } } // A utility class to contain each contact detail public class ContactInfo { public string ContactID; public string Name; public string PhoneNumber; public string Details; public bool Active; public int SortOrder; } }

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  • Stack Overflow Exploit in C

    - by Fernando Gonzalez
    Hey there guys, the question is actually about stack overflows in C. I have an assigment that I can not get done for the life of me, i've looked at everything in the gdb and I just cant figure it. The question is the following: int i,n; void confused() { printf("who called me"); exit(0); } void shell_call(char *c) { printf(" ***Now calling \"%s\" shell command *** \n",c); system(c); exit(0); } void victim_func() { int a[4]; printf("[8]:%x\n", &a[8]); printf("Enter n: "); scanf("%d",&n); printf("Enter %d HEX Values \n",n); for(i=0;i<n;i++) scanf("%x",&a[i]); printf("Done reading junk numbers\n"); } int main() { printf("ls=736c --- ps = 7370 --- cal = 6c6163\n"); printf("location of confused %x \n", confused); printf("location of shell_call %x \n", shell_call); victim_func(); printf("Done, thank you\n"); } Ok, so I managed to get the first question correctly, which is to arbitrarily call one of the two functions not explicitly called in the main path. By the way, this has to be done while running the program without any modifications. I did this by running the program, setting N to 7, which gets me to the Function Pointer of the victim_func frame, I write a[7] with the memory address of confused or shell_call, and it works. (I have a 64 bit machine, thats why I have to get it to 7, since the EBI pointer is 2 ints wide, instead of 1) My question is the following, how could I control which argument gets passed to the shell_code funcion? ie. how do i write a string to char* c. The whole point is executing unix commands like "ps" etc, by running only the program. I figured writing the EBI pointer with the hex representation of "ps" and setting the arg list of shell_call to that, but that didn't work. I also tried inputing argsv arguments and setting the arg list of shell_call to the arg_list of main, but didnt work either. I think the second version should work, but i believe im not setting the arg list of the new stack frame correctly ( I did it by writing a[8] to 0, since its the first part of the functin pointer, and writing a[9]=736c and a[10]=0000, but its probably not right since those are the parameters of victim_func. So how do i access the parameters of shell_call?

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  • Incorrect XML produced by SUDS

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to talk to a SOAP web service using SUDS and Python. After lots of messing around learning Python (yes I am new to this) and working out how to use SUDS I have come across a problem. The signature of the web method I am calling, according to suds, is (FWTCaseCreate){ ClassificationEventCode = None Priority = None Title = None Description = None Queue = None DueDate = None AssociatedObject = (FWTObjectBriefDetails){ ObjectID = (FWTObjectID){ ObjectType = None ObjectReference[] = <empty> } ObjectDescription = None Details = None Category = None } Form = (FWTCaseForm){ FormField[] = <empty> FormName = None FormKey = None } Internal = None InteractionID = None XCoord = None YCoord = None } So I use SUDS to create the classes that I want and send it to the method. However I get an error. So I turned logging on and I can see that the XML that is being sent is not correct which is causing a deserialize error. The SOAP package looks like the following <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:ns0="http://www.lagan.com/wsdl/FLTypes" xmlns:ns1="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:wsse="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-secext-1.0.xsd" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <SOAP-ENV:Header> <wsse:Security> <wsse:BinarySecurityToken>eaadf1ddff99a8</wsse:BinarySecurityToken> </wsse:Security> </SOAP-ENV:Header> <ns1:Body> <ns0:FWTCaseCreate> <ClassificationEventCode> <ClassificationEventCode>2000023</ClassificationEventCode> <Priority>1</Priority> <Title>testing</Title> <Description>testing</Description> <Queue/> <Internal>True</Internal> <XCoord>356570</XCoord> <YCoord>168708</YCoord> </ClassificationEventCode> </ns0:FWTCaseCreate> </ns1:Body> As you can see there is a 'ClassificationEventCode' element around all the other elements, this should not be there. If I cut and paste this xml into SOAPUI and first remove this element and then post it directly to the web service it works successfully. Does anyone have any ideas why this is happening? I guess SUDS thinks that it should be there based on the WSDL. Thanks.

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  • Consuming SharePoint Web Services fails when behind Proxy server

    - by Jan Petersen
    Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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  • Am I using EJBs properly?

    - by kgrad
    I am using a JEE6 stack including JPA 2.0, JSF 2.0, EJB 3.1 etc. The way my architecture is setup is the following: I have JPA annotated DAOs using hibernate as my JPA provider. I have JSF Managed beans which correspond to my facelet/xhtml pages. I have EJBs that handle all of my database requests. My XHTML pages have JSF EL which make calls to my Managed beans. My managed beans contain references to my DAO entities which are managed by EJBs. For example, I have a user entity which is mapped to a db table. I have a user EJB which handles all CRUD operations that return Users. I have a page that edits a user. The highlevel workflow would be: navigate to user edit page - EL calls a method located in the managed bean that loads a user. The method calls userEJB.loadUser(user) from the EJB to get the user from the database. The user is edited and submit - a function is called in the managed bean which calls a function in the EJB to save the user. etc. I am running into issues accessing my data within my JSF pages using EJBs. I am having a lot of problems with lazy initialization errors, which I believe is due to how I have set things up. For example, I have a Client entity that has a List of users which are lazily loaded. In order to get a client I call a method in my EJB which goes to the database, finds a client and returns it. Later on i wish to access this clients list of users, in order to do so i have to go back to the EJB by calling some sort of method in order to load those users (since they are lazily loaded). This means that I have to create a method such as public List<User> getUserListByClient(Client c) { c = em.merge(c); return c.getUserList(); } The only purpose of this method is to load the users (and I'm not even positive this approach is good or works). If i was doing session management myself, I would like just leave the session open for the entire request and access the property directly, this would be fine as the session would be open anyway, there seems to be this one extra layer of indirection in EJBs which is making things difficult for me. I do like EJBs as I like the fact that they are controlled by the container, pooled, offer transaction management for free etc. However, I get the feeling that I am using them incorrectly, or I have set up my JSF app incorrectly. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated. thanks,

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  • android multiple activity declaration in manifest

    - by Brahadeesh
    Hi all. I have a main activity. From it, I am calling 2 other sub activities called FacebookLogin and Twitterlogin. I am using the following code in AndroidManufest.xml: ..... <activity android:name=".*****" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> <intent-filter android:label="@string/app_name"> <action android:name="android.intent.action.SEND" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> <data android:mimeType="text/plain" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name=".FacebookLogin" android:label="string/app_name"> <intent-filter android:label="@string/app_name"> <action android:name="android.intent.action.SEND" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> <data android:mimeType="image/*" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name=".TwitterLogin" android:label="string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <data android:scheme="yourapp" android:host="twitt"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> ..... Am i doing it right? Should i nest the FacebookLogin and TwitterLogin activities in the main activity? The aforesaid 2 classes are in the package com.examples.. * is the same wherever used.

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  • Volunteer for a potential employer?

    - by EoRaptor013
    I've been looking for work since March, and haven't had much luck. Recently, however, I interviewed with a small company near my home for a C#, .NET, SQL development position. I hit it off very well with the hiring manager during the phone screen, and even more so during the face to face. Unfortunately, I failed the practical test: wiring up a web form, creating a couple of SQL stored procedures, saving new data with validation, and creating a minimal search screen. I knew what I was doing, but I was too slow to meet their standards as all the work needed to be done within an hour. Nevertheless, I really liked the place, the environment, the people who I would have been working with, and the boss. (I gave the company an 11 on Joel's 12 point scale.) So, the obvious next step was to scrape the rust off. I've been trying to create little projects for myself, but I don't know that I've been effective in getting any faster. What with all that goes into creating a project, I'm not heads-down coding as much as I think I need. Now, with all that introduction, here's the question. I have been thinking about calling the hiring manager at that place, and asking him to let me volunteer for three or four weeks, with no strings attached. I think it would benefit me, and wouldn't cost him anything (as long as I didn't slow the existing people down!). At the end of that period, he might, or might not, be inclined to hire me, but even if not, I would have had as much as 160 hours of in the trenches development. Maybe not all shiny, but no more rust, I would think. Does this plan make any sense at all? I certainly don't want to sound desperate (although, I'm not far from being there), and I very much need the tuneup, lube, and change the oil. What's the downside, if any, to me doing this? Do any of you see red flags going up—either from the prerspective of the hiring manager, or from the perspective of a developer?

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