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  • How to do buffered intersection checks on an IPoint?

    - by Quigrim
    How would I buffer an IPoint to do an intersection check using IRelationalOperator? I have, for arguments sake: IPoint p1 = xxx; IPoint p2 = yyy; IRelationalOperator rel1 = (IRelationalOperator)p1; if (rel.Intersects (p2)) // Do something But now I want to add a tolerance to my check, so I assume the right way to do that is by either buffering p1 or p2. Right? How do I add such a buffer? Note: the Intersects method I am using is an extension method I wrote to simplify my code. Here it is: /// <summary> /// Returns true if the IGeometry is intersected. /// This method negates the Disjoint method. /// </summary> /// <param name="relOp">The rel op.</param> /// <param name="other">The other.</param> /// <returns></returns> public static bool Intersects ( this IRelationalOperator relOp, IGeometry other) { return (!relOp.Disjoint (other)); }

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  • If a nonblocking recv with MSG_PEEK succeeds, will a subsequent recv without MSG_PEEK also succeed?

    - by Michael Wolf
    Here's a simplified version of some code I'm working on: void stuff(int fd) { int ret1, ret2; char buffer[32]; ret1 = recv(fd, buffer, 32, MSG_PEEK | MSG_DONTWAIT); /* Error handling -- and EAGAIN handling -- would go here. Bail if necessary. Otherwise, keep going. */ /* Can this call to recv fail, setting errno to EAGAIN? */ ret2 = recv(fd, buffer, ret1, 0); } If we assume that the first call to recv succeeds, returning a value between 1 and 32, is it safe to assume that the second call will also succeed? Can ret2 ever be less than ret1? In which cases? (For clarity's sake, assume that there are no other error conditions during the second call to recv: that no signal is delivered, that it won't set ENOMEM, etc. Also assume that no other threads will look at fd. I'm on Linux, but MSG_DONTWAIT is, I believe, the only Linux-specific thing here. Assume that the right fnctl was set previously on other platforms.)

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  • Dealing with array of IntPtr

    - by Padu Merloti
    I think I'm close and I bet the solution is something stupid. I have a C++ native DLL where I define the following function: DllExport bool __stdcall Open(const char* filePath, int *numFrames, void** data); { //creates the list of arrays here... don't worry, lifetime is managed somewhere else //foreach item of the list: { BYTE* pByte = GetArray(i); //here's where my problem lives *(data + i * sizeofarray) = pByte; } *numFrames = total number of items in the list return true; } Basically, given a file path, this function creates a list of byte arrays (BYTE*) and should return a list of pointers via the data param. Each pointing to a different byte array. I want to pass an array of IntPtr from C# and be able to marshal each individual array in order. Here's the code I'm using: [DllImport("mydll.dll",EntryPoint = "Open")] private static extern bool MyOpen( string filePath, out int numFrames, out IntPtr[] ptr); internal static bool Open( string filePath, out int numFrames, out Bitmap[] images) { var ptrList = new IntPtr[512]; MyOpen(filePath, out numFrames, out ptrList); images = new Bitmap[numFrames]; var len = 100; //for sake of simplicity for (int i=0; i<numFrames;i++) { var buffer = new byte[len]; Marshal.Copy(ptrList[i], buffer, 0, len); images[i] = CreateBitmapFromBuffer(buffer, height, width); } return true; } Problem is in my C++ code. When I assign *(data + i * sizeofarray) = pByte; it corrupts the array of pointers... what am I doing wrong?

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  • NHibernate / Fluent - Mapping multiple objects to single lookup table

    - by Al
    Hi all I am struggling a little in getting my mapping right. What I have is a single self joined table of look up values of certain types. Each lookup can have a parent, which can be of a different type. For simplicities sake lets take the Country and State example. So the lookup table would look like this: Lookups Id Key Value LookupType ParentId - self joining to Id base class public class Lookup : BaseEntity { public Lookup() {} public Lookup(string key, string value) { Key = key; Value = value; } public virtual Lookup Parent { get; set; } [DomainSignature] [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual LookupType LookupType { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Key { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Value { get; set; } } The lookup map public class LookupMap : IAutoMappingOverride<DBLookup> { public void Override(AutoMapping<Lookup> map) { map.Table("Lookups"); map.References(x => x.Parent, "ParentId").ForeignKey("Id"); map.DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn<string>("LookupType").CustomType(typeof(LookupType)); } } BASE SubClass map for subclasses public class BaseLookupMap : SubclassMap where T : DBLookup { protected BaseLookupMap() { } protected BaseLookupMap(LookupType lookupType) { DiscriminatorValue(lookupType); Table("Lookups"); } } Example subclass map public class StateMap : BaseLookupMap<State> { protected StateMap() : base(LookupType.State) { } } Now I've almost got my mappings set, however the mapping is still expecting a table-per-class setup, so is expecting a 'State' table to exist with a reference to the states Id in the Lookup table. I hope this makes sense. This doesn't seem like an uncommon approach when wanting to keep lookup-type values configurable. Thanks in advance. Al

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  • Java Script in Rails 3.1 works only in certain parts. Any idea why?

    - by Sergio Nekora
    This might seem a bit weird, but since I am new in RoR and cannot find any similar questions I thought you might know. The situation is that JavaScript does not work throughout my whole site. For instance. For the sake of checking, I place a link with an alert function in the footer. It did not work at the beginning, it felt like the JS was disabled(but it wasn't). But eventually it worked. Now it works in most the pages but it does not work in one that there is also an 'autocomplete' field. Of course, this autocomplete field does not work either. That could lead you to think that there is something wrong with the autocomplete code. However this same code is working in the sidebar. Any ideas why? Could it have anything to do with the fact that one day my assets folder appeared empty? After installing the gmaps4rails gem I realized that all my Js and CSS files were gone from my assests folder. Ok, it might have happened long before and I just realized at that point. I don't really know. Here in the root you can see that the 'Hola sip' click at the button works. here it works However, here same link does not trigger the alert function. here it doesn't

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  • problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

    - by callie16
    Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Is it possible to parameterize a MEF import?

    - by Josh Einstein
    I am relatively new to MEF so I don't fully understand the capabilities. I'm trying to achieve something similar to Unity's InjectionMember. Let's say I have a class that imports MEF parts. For the sake of simplicity, let's take the following class as an example of the exported part. [Export] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class Logger { public string Category { get; set; } public void Write(string text) { } } public class MyViewModel { [Import] public Logger Log { get; set; } } Now what I'm trying to figure out is if it's possible to specify a value for the Category property at the import. Something like: public class MyViewModel { [MyImportAttribute(Category="MyCategory")] public Logger Log { get; set; } } public class MyOtherViewModel { [MyImportAttribute(Category="MyOtherCategory")] public Logger Log { get; set; } } For the time being, what I'm doing is implementing IPartImportsSatisfiedNotification and setting the Category in code. But obviously I would rather keep everything neatly in one place.

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  • How to buffer an IPoint or IGeometry? (How to do buffered intersection checks on an IPoint?)

    - by Quigrim
    How would I buffer an IPoint to do an intersection check using IRelationalOperator? I have, for arguments sake: IPoint p1 = xxx; IPoint p2 = yyy; IRelationalOperator rel1 = (IRelationalOperator)p1; if (rel.Intersects (p2)) // Do something But now I want to add a tolerance to my check, so I assume the right way to do that is by either buffering p1 or p2. Right? How do I add such a buffer? Note: the Intersects method I am using is an extension method I wrote to simplify my code. Here it is: /// <summary> /// Returns true if the IGeometry is intersected. /// This method negates the Disjoint method. /// </summary> /// <param name="relOp">The rel op.</param> /// <param name="other">The other.</param> /// <returns></returns> public static bool Intersects ( this IRelationalOperator relOp, IGeometry other) { return (!relOp.Disjoint (other)); }

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  • Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

    - by Tyler McHenry
    I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

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  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET SqlDataSource update and create FK reference

    - by William
    The short version: I have a grid view bound to a data source which has a SelectCommand with a left join in it because the FK can be null. On Update I want to create a record in the FK table if the FK is null and then update the parent table with the new records ID. Is this possible to do with just SqlDataSources? The detailed version: I have two tables: Company and Address. The column Company.AddressId can be null. On my ascx page I am using a SqlDataSource to select a left join of company and address and a GridView to display the results. By having my UpdateCommand and DeleteCommand of the SqlDataSource execute two statements separated by a semi-colon I am able to use the GridView's Edit and Delete functionality to update both table simultaneously. The problem I have is when the Company.AddressId is null. What I need to have happen is have the data source create a record in the Address table and then update the Company table with the new Address.ID then proceed with the update as usual. I would like to do this with just data sources if possible for consistency/simplicity sake. Is it possible to have my data source do this, or perhaps add a second data source to the page to handle some of this? Once I have that working I can probably figure out how to make it work with the InsertCommand as well but if you are on a roll and have an answer for how to make that fly as well feel free to provide it. Thanks.

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  • Create static instances of a class inside said class in Python

    - by Samir Talwar
    Apologies if I've got the terminology wrong here—I can't think what this particular idiom would be called. I've been trying to create a Python 3 class that statically declares instances of itself inside itself—sort of like an enum would work. Here's a simplified version of the code I wrote: class Test: A = Test("A") B = Test("B") def __init__(self, value): self.value = value def __str__(self): return "Test: " + self.value print(str(Test.A)) print(str(Test.B)) Writing this, I got an exception on line 2 (A = Test("A")). I assume line 3 would also error if it had made it that far. Using __class__ instead of Test gives the same error. File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "<stdin>", line 2, in Test NameError: name 'Test' is not defined Is there any way to refer to the current class in a static context in Python? I could declare these particular variables outside the class or in a separate class, but for clarity's sake, I'd rather not if I can help it. To better demonstrate what I'm trying to do, here's the same example in Java: public class Test { private static final Test A = new Test("A"); private static final Test B = new Test("B"); private final String value; public Test(String value) { this.value = value; } public String toString() { return "Test: " + value; } public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(A); System.out.println(B); } } This works as you would expect: it prints: Test: A Test: B How can I do the same thing in Python?

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  • Scientific Algorithms that can produce imagery, pseudocode perhaps?

    - by Ross
    Hello, I have a client who are based in the field of mathematics. We are developing, amongst other things, a website. I like to create a mock-up of a drawing tool that an produce some imagery in the background based on some scientific algorithms. The intention being that the may client, later, may create there own. (They use emacs for everything, great client.) I'm look for an answer of where or what to go looking for. Not code specific, pseudocode even, as we can adapt and have not yet settled on a platform. I'm afraid my mathematic stops at the power of two and some trigonometry. Appreciated if they're are any mathematics related students/academics how could enlighten me? What to search for will be accepted? Edit: To summarise/clarify, I want to draw pretty pictures (the design perspective). I want them to have some context (i.e. not just for the sake of pretty images but have some explanation available). In essence I would to create a rendering engine which we can draw the images and we set the style parameters: line, colour, etc... But to pursue this option I want to experiment myself. Thanks Ross

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  • How to map combinations of things to a relational database?

    - by Space_C0wb0y
    I have a table whose records represent certain objects. For the sake of simplicity I am going to assume that the table only has one row, and that is the unique ObjectId. Now I need a way to store combinations of objects from that table. The combinations have to be unique, but can be of arbitrary length. For example, if I have the ObjectIds 1,2,3,4 I want to store the following combinations: {1,2}, {1,3,4}, {2,4}, {1,2,3,4} The ordering is not necessary. My current implementation is to have a table Combinations that maps ObjectIds to CombinationIds. So every combination receives a unique Id: ObjectId | CombinationId ------------------------ 1 | 1 2 | 1 1 | 2 3 | 2 4 | 2 This is the mapping for the first two combinations of the example above. The problem is, that the query for finding the CombinationId of a specific Combination seems to be very complex. The two main usage scenarios for this table will be to iterate over all combinations, and the retrieve a specific combination. The table will be created once and never be updated. I am using SQLite through JDBC. Is there any simpler way or a best practice to implement such a mapping?

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  • Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

    - by DBase486
    Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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  • How to format individual DropDownlist Items (color, etc.) during onDataBinding event

    - by LesterDove
    Hi, I have a basic DropDownList bound to a ObjectDataSource: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" DataSourceID="objDataSource1" DataTextField="FieldName" DataValueField="FieldID" /> The DataTable from which it receives the DataTextField and DataValueField values also returns some other interesting information about the records. Say Active = Y/N for simplicity's sake. What I'd like to do is to set the background-color property of the DropDownList Item based on that Active field in the DataSource results. Further, I'd like to do this "in the same pass" as when the DropDownList is bound to the data. So my guess is that it has to happen during OnDataBinding. Things I already know/tried: I could go back and loop through the DropDownList items later. But it would involve embedding loops and re-visiting the DataTable rows and it just seems inefficient int row; for (row = 0; row < DropDownList1.Items.Count - 1; row++) { [[if this row = that data row]] DropDownList1.Items[row].[[DoStuffHere, etc.]] } We already do stuff like this with the GridView OnRowDataBound event, by accessing the GridViewRowEventArgs e. What I seem to be missing is an "OnDropDownListItemBound" event, so to speak. Hope I've been clear and concise. Seems as though it should be easy...

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  • Partitioning data set in r based on multiple classes of observations

    - by Danny
    I'm trying to partition a data set that I have in R, 2/3 for training and 1/3 for testing. I have one classification variable, and seven numerical variables. Each observation is classified as either A, B, C, or D. For simplicity's sake, let's say that the classification variable, cl, is A for the first 100 observations, B for observations 101 to 200, C till 300, and D till 400. I'm trying to get a partition that has 2/3 of the observations for each of A, B, C, and D (as opposed to simply getting 2/3 of the observations for the entire data set since it will likely not have equal amounts of each classification). When I try to sample from a subset of the data, such as sample(subset(data, cl=='A')), the columns are reordered instead of the rows. To summarize, my goal is to have 67 random observations from each of A, B, C, and D as my training data, and store the remaining 33 observations for each of A, B, C, and D as testing data. I have found a very similar question to mine, but it did not factor in multiple variables. I feel silly asking this question because it seems so simple, but I'm stumped. Also, this is my first question on this site, so I apologize in advance for any faux pas on my part.

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  • Anyone NOT using a Web Framework? Why?

    - by tom
    I'm well aware of the many reasons to use a web framework. I'm just wondering whether anyone out there is using absolutely no web framework whatsoever to develop their web projects. I would really love to know the reason(s) why you're not using a web framework. For the sake of this discussion, your programming language of choice does not matter. Some possibilities for discussion: You don't hide behind an ORM. You don't rely on any sort of templating system. You think MVC is a really nice TLA but lacks an essential vowel or two. No need for any additional javascript framework tomfoolery. You just write as much code as possible in your native programming language(s). Summary of reasons thus far: Language learning opportunities. Specific performance reasons (write-intensive transaction processing). Seeking more nuanced control over your data and applications (less abstraction). You're building your own framework! Prove to yourself that you can succeed (or fail) just like the big framework-building gurus. Integration issues with unpopular/legacy technologies (exotic databases or protocols come to mind). Big company, lots of code, no talent nor buy-in present to move to a web framework. Some frameworks really lock you in and cannot perpetually grow along with your needs. These few black sheep don't make it easy to jump outside of the framework, write some custom code, and easily jump back in. When you finally escape the asylum, you'll never look back.

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  • C# performance methods of receiving data from a socket?

    - by Daniel
    Lets assume we have a simple internet socket, and its going to send 10 megabytes (because i want to ignore memory issues) of random data through. Is there any performance difference or a best practice method that one should use for receiving data? The final output data should be represented by a byte[]. Yes i know writing an arbitrary amount of data to memory is bad, and if I was downloading a large file i wouldn't be doing it like this. But for argument sake lets ignore that and assume its a smallish amount of data. I also realise that the bottleneck here is probably not the memory management but rather the socket receiving. I just want to know what would be the most efficient method of receiving data. A few dodgy ways can think of is: Have a List and a buffer, after the buffer is full, add it to the list and at the end list.ToArray() to get the byte[] Write the buffer to a memory stream, after its complete construct a byte[] of the stream.Length and read it all into it in order to get the byte[] output. Is there a more efficient/better way of doing this?

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  • Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

    - by DavidYell
    I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • C++ compiler unable to find function (namespace related)

    - by CS student
    I'm working in Visual Studio 2008 on a C++ programming assignment. We were supplied with files that define the following namespace hierarchy (the names are just for the sake of this post, I know "namespace XYZ-NAMESPACE" is redundant): (MAIN-NAMESPACE){ a bunch of functions/classes I need to implement... (EXCEPTIONS-NAMESPACE){ a bunch of exceptions } (POINTER-COLLECTIONS-NAMESPACE){ Set and LinkedList classes, plus iterators } } The MAIN-NAMESPACE contents are split between a bunch of files, and for some reason which I don't understand the operator<< for both Set and LinkedList is entirely outside of the MAIN-NAMESPACE (but within Set and LinkedList's header file). Here's the Set version: template<typename T> std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& os, const MAIN-NAMESPACE::POINTER-COLLECTIONS-NAMESPACE::Set<T>& set) Now here's the problem: I have the following data structure: Set A Set B Set C double num It's defined to be in a class within MAIN-NAMESPACE. When I create an instance of the class, and try to print one of the sets, it tells me that: error C2679: binary '<<' : no operator found which takes a right-hand operand of type 'const MAIN-NAMESPACE::POINTER-COLLECTIONS-NAMESPACE::Set' (or there is no acceptable conversion) However, if I just write a main() function, and create Set A, fill it up, and use the operator- it works. Any idea what is the problem? (note: I tried any combination of using and include I could think of).

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  • Wicket application + Apache + mod_jk - AJP queues are filling up!

    - by nojyarg
    Dear community, We are having a Wicket-based Java application deployed in a production server cluster using Apache (2.2.3) with mod_jk (1.2.30) as load balancing component w/ sticky session and Jboss 5 as application container for the Java application. We are inconsistently seeing an issue in our production environment where our AJP queues between Apache and Jboss as shown in the JMX console fill up with requests to the point where the application server is no longer taking on any new requests. When looking at all involved system components (overall traffic, load db, process list db, load of all clustered application server nodes) nothing points towards a capacity issue which would explain why the calls are being stalled in the AJP queue. Instead all systems appear sufficiently idle. So far, our only remedy to this issue is to restart the appservers and the load balancer which only occasionally clears the AJP queues. We are trying to figure out why the queues are filling up to the point that no calls get returned to the end user although the system is not under a high load. Has anyone else experienced similar problems? Are there any other system metrics we should monitor that could explain the queuing behavior? Is this potentially a mod_jk issue? If so, is it advisable to swap mod_jk with mod_cluster to resolve the issue? Any advice is highly appreciated. If I can provide additional information for the sake of troubleshooting I would be more than willing to do so. /Ben

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  • How to build a control programatically?

    - by W_K
    I have custom control written in Java. For the sake of simplicity lets assume that it looks like this: public class HelloworldControl extends UIComponentBase { @Override public void decode(FacesContext context) { String cid = this.getClientId(context); ... super.decode(context); } @Override public void encodeBegin(FacesContext context) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); writer.writeText("Hello world!", this); // I want a view!! } @Override public void encodeEnd(FacesContext context) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); ... } public void restoreState(FacesContext context, Object state) { Object values[] = (Object[]) state; ... super.restoreState(context, values[0]); } public Object saveState(FacesContext context) { Object values[] = ... } } I would like to add programatically child control to it. For example I would like a child view control to render a view just under the Hellow world text. How can i do this? What is the standard procedure to build dynamically a control? To put it simply - I want programatically build a hierarchy of standard components and I want to attach it to my control.

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  • Constructor initializer list: code from the C++ Primer, chapter 16

    - by Alexandros Gezerlis
    Toward the end of Chapter 16 of the "C++ Primer" I encountered the following code (I've removed a bunch of lines): class Sales_item { public: // default constructor: unbound handle Sales_item(): h() { } private: Handle<Item_base> h; // use-counted handle }; My problem is with the Sales_item(): h() { } line. For the sake of completeness, let me also quote the parts of the Handle class template that I think are relevant to my question (I think I don't need to show the Item_base class): template <class T> class Handle { public: // unbound handle Handle(T *p = 0): ptr(p), use(new size_t(1)) { } private: T* ptr; // shared object size_t *use; // count of how many Handles point to *ptr }; I would have expected something like either: a) Sales_item(): h(0) { } which is a convention the authors have used repeatedly in earlier chapters, or b) Handle<Item_base>() if the intention was to invoke the default constructor of the Handle class. Instead, what the book has is Sales_item(): h() { }. My gut reaction is that this is a typo, since h() looks suspiciously similar to a function declaration. On the other hand, I just tried compiling under g++ and running the example code that uses this class and it seems to be working correctly. Any thoughts?

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