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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • How is it legal to reference an undefined type inside a structure?

    - by paxdiablo
    As part of answering another question, I came across a piece of code like this, which gcc compiles without complaint. typedef struct { struct xyz *z; } xyz; int main (void) { return 0; } This is the means I've always used to construct types that point to themselves (e.g., linked lists) but I've always thought you had to name the struct so you could use self-reference. In other words, you couldn't use xyz *z within the structure because the typedef is not yet complete at that point. But this particular sample does not name the structure and it still compiles. I thought originally there was some black magic going on in the compiler that automatically translated the above code because the structure and typedef names were the same. But this little beauty works as well: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz *z; } xyz; What am I missing here? This seems a clear violation since there is no struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz type defined anywhere. When I change it from a pointer to an actual type, I get the expected error: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz z; } xyz; qqq.c:2: error: field `z' has incomplete type Also, when I remove the struct, I get an error (parse error before "NOTHING ...). Is this allowed in ISO C?

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  • Converting Generic Type into reference type after checking its type using GetType(). How ?

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    i am trying to call a function that is defined in a class RFIDeas_Wrapper(dll being used). But when i checked for type of reader and after that i used it to call function it shows me error Cannot convert type T to RFIDeas_Wrapper. EDIT private List<string> GetTagCollection<T>(T Reader) { TagCollection = new List<string>(); if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(RFIDeas_Wrapper)) { ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); // here Reader is of type RFIDeas_Wrapper //, but i m not able to convert Reader into its datatype. string Tag_Id = ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).TagID(); //Adds Valid Tag Ids into the collection if(Tag_Id!="0") TagCollection.Add(Tag_Id); } else if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(AlienReader)) TagCollection = ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; return TagCollection; } ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); , ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; I want this line to be executed without any issue. As Reader will always be of the type i m specifying. How to make compiler understand the same thing.

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  • placing pop up based on the mouse position(x,y)RSS Feed

    - by prince23
    hi, right now i am showing pop at the botton of the screen. i need to change them according to the value(x,y) whhere i have moved the mouse here i need to get the MouseEventArgs e postion that is its x:value and y:value based on that i need to place the pop up in the screen i need to get the mouse x, y postion? is it possiable to get its value? private void DG_LoadingRow(object sender, DataGridRowEventArgs e) { DataGridRow row = e.Row; int index = 0; foreach (DataGridColumn colGrid in DG.Columns) { if(colGrid .Header == "ID" || colGrid .Header == "Name") { FrameworkElement cellContent = colGrid .GetCellContent(e.Row); DataGridCell cell = cellContent.Parent as DataGridCell; cell.MouseEnter -= cell_MouseEnter; cell.MouseEnter += new MouseEventHandler(cell_MouseEnter); cell.MouseLeave -= cell_MouseLeave; cell.MouseLeave += new MouseEventHandler(cell_MouseLeave); } } } void cell_MouseLeave(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { //Hide your popup } void cell_MouseEnter(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { **// here i need to get the mouse position that is its x,y value based on that i can place my modal pop up in that postion. my pop is defined in xaml page here i will be assigning only its position where i need to place my modal pop up.** //

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  • Cannot call DLL import entry in C# from C++ project. EntryPointNotFoundException

    - by kriau
    I'm trying to call from C# a function in a custom DLL written in C++. However I'm getting the warning during code analysis and the error at runtime: Warning: CA1400 : Microsoft.Interoperability : Correct the declaration of 'SafeNativeMethods.SetHook()' so that it correctly points to an existing entry point in 'wi.dll'. The unmanaged entry point name currently linked to is SetHook. Error: System.EntryPointNotFoundException was unhandled. Unable to find an entry point named 'SetHook' in DLL 'wi.dll'. Both projects wi.dll and C# exe has been compiled in to the same DEBUG folder, both files reside here. There is only one file with the name wi.dll in the whole file system. C++ function definition looks like: #define WI_API __declspec(dllexport) bool WI_API SetHook(); I can see exported function using Dependency Walker: as decorated: bool SetHook(void) as undecorated: ?SetHook@@YA_NXZ C# DLL import looks like (I've defined these lines using CLRInsideOut from MSDN magazine): [DllImport("wi.dll", EntryPoint = "SetHook", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] [return: MarshalAsAttribute(UnmanagedType.I1)] internal static extern bool SetHook(); I've tried without EntryPoint and CallingConvention definitions as well. Both projects are 32-bits, I'm using W7 64 bits, VS 2010 RC. I believe that I simply have overlooked something.... Thanks in advance.

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  • Unsort: remembering a permutation and undoing it.

    - by dreeves
    Suppose I have a function f that takes a vector v and returns a new vector with the elements transformed in some way. It does that by calling function g that assumes the vector is sorted. So I want f to be defined like so: f[v_] := Module[{s, r}, s = Sort[v]; (* remember the permutation applied in order to sort v *) r = g[s]; Unsort[r] (* apply the inverse of that permutation *) ] What's the best way to do the "Unsort"? Or could we get really fancy and have this somehow work: answer = Unsort[g[Sort[v]]]; ADDED: Let's make this concrete with a toy example. Suppose we want a function f that takes a vector and transforms it by adding to each element the next smallest element, if any. That's easy to write if we assume the vector is sorted, so let's write a helper function g that makes that assumption: g[v_] := v + Prepend[Most@v, 0] Now for the function we really want, f, that works whether or not v is sorted: f[v_] := (* remember the order; sort it; call g on it; put it back in the original order; return it *)

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  • Associative Array / Object can't be read in functions

    - by Matrym
    At the very beginning of the javascript file, I have: var lbp = {}; lbp.defaults = { minLength: 40 }; I can successfully alert it afterwards, with: alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); But as soon as I put it inside a function, when I alert, I get "Undefined". What gives, and how do I avoid this? Is it absolutely necessary to pass this variable into each function, for example, by doing: function(lbp) { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); } I would have thought that defining it first, it would attain global scope and not be required to be passed in? Thanks in advance for enlightening me :) ==================================== EDIT: The problem seems like it might be my initialize function is itself defined within lbp. Is there any way to use this function var, and still use lbp vars inside it? lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; The full bit of code looks like this: <script type="text/javascript"> var lbp = { defaults: { minLength: 40 } }; lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; window.onload = lbp.initialize; </script>

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  • How can I use a custom configured RememberMeAuthenticationFilter in spring security?

    - by Sebastian
    I want to use a slightly customized rememberme functionality with spring security (3.1.0). I declare the rememberme tag like this: <security:remember-me key="JNJRMBM" user-service-ref="gymUserDetailService" /> As I have my own rememberme service I need to inject that into the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter which I define like this: <bean id="rememberMeFilter" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.RememberMeAuthenticationFilter"> <property name="rememberMeServices" ref="gymRememberMeService"/> <property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> </bean> I have spring security integrated in a standard way in my web.xml: <filter-name>springSecurityFilterChain</filter-name> <filter-class>org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy</filter-class> Everything works fine, except that the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter uses the standard RememberMeService, so I think that my defined RememberMeAuthenticationFilter is not being used. How can I make sure that my definition of the filter is being used? Do I need to create a custom filterchain? And if so, how can I see my current "implicit" filterchain and make sure I use the same one except my RememberMeAuthenticationFilter instead of the default one? Thanks for any advice and/or pointers!

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  • keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

    - by Old McStopher
    UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

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  • How to figure out which key was pressed on a BlackBerry

    - by Skrud
    What I want: To know when the user has pressed the button that has the number '2' on it, for example. I don't care whether "Alt" or "Shift" has been pressed. The user has pressed a button, and I want to evaluate whether this button has '2' printed on it. Naturally, if I switch devices this key will change. On a Bold 9700/9500 this is the 'E' key. On a Pearl, this is the 'T'/'Y' key. I've managed to get this working in what appears to be a roundabout way, by looking up the keycode of the '2' character with the ALT button enabled and using Keypad.key() to get the actual button: // figure out which key the '2' is on: final int BUTTON_2_KEY = Keypad.key(KeypadUtil.getKeyCode('2', KeypadListener.STATUS_ALT, KeypadUtil.MODE_EN_LOCALE)); protected boolean keyDown(int keycode, int time) { int key = Keypad.key(keycode); if ( key == BUTTON_2_KEY ) { // do something return true; } return super.keyDown(keycode,time); } I can't help but wonder if there is a better way to do this. I've looked at the constants defined in KeypadListener and Keypad but I can't find any constants mapped to the actual buttons on the device. Would any more experienced BlackBerry devs care to lend a helping hand? Thanks!

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  • ASP MVC - Routing Required?

    - by evo_9
    I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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  • PHP gettext on Windows

    - by Axsuul
    There's some tutorials out there for gettext (w/ Poedit)... unfortunately, it's mostly for a UNIX environment. And even more unfortunate is that I am running my WAMP server on Windows XP (but I am developing for a UNIX environment) and none of the tutorials can get gettext working properly for me. From the man page (http://us3.php.net/manual/en/book.gettext.php), it appears that it's a different process on a Windows environment. I've tried out some of the solutions in the comments but I still can't get it to work! Please, I've spent many hours on this, hopefully someone can point me in the right direction to get this thing to work! (and I'm sure there are others out there who share my frustration). So far with my setup, I'm only getting output "Hello World!" whereas I should be getting the translated string. Here is my setup/code so far: <?php // test.php if (!defined('LC_MESSAGES')) { define('LC_MESSAGES', 6); } $locale = "deu_DEU"; // apparently the locales are different on a WINDOWS platform putenv("LC_ALL=$locale"); setlocale(LC_ALL, $locale); bindtextdomain("greetings", ".\locale"); textdomain("greetings"); echo _("Hello World"); ?> Folder structure root: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www test.php: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site .po: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.po .mo: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.mo Please advise! Thanks for your time :)

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • How to compare 2 complex spreadsheets running in parallel for consistency with each other?

    - by tbone
    I am working on converting a large number of spreadsheets to use a new 3rd party data access library (converting from third party library #1 to third party library #2). fyi: a call to a UDF (user defined function) is placed in a cell, and when that is refreshed, it pulls the data into a pivot table below the formula. Both libraries behave the same and produce the same output, except, small irregularites can arise, such as an additional field being shown in the output pivot table using library #2, which can affect formulas on the sheet if data is being read from the pivot table without using GetPivotData. So I have ~100 of these very complicated (20+ worksheets per workbook) spreadsheets that I have to convert, and run in parallel for a period of time, to see if the output using the new data access library matches the old library. Is there some clever approach to do this, so I don't have to spend a large amount of time analyzing each sheet to determine the specific elements to compare? Two rough ideas that come to mind: 1. just create a Validator workbook that has the same # of worksheets, and simply do a Worbook1!Worksheet1!A1 - Worbook2!Worksheet3!A1 for every possible cell on each sheet 2. roughly the equivalent of #1, but just traverse the cells in the 2 books using VBA, and log any cells that do not match. I don't particularly like either idea, can anyone think of something better than this, maybe some 3rd party utility I could buy?

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  • getting CS1502 compiler error on dev environment but not production.

    - by nw
    When I try to run my ASP.NET app from my development environment I get the following error message: Compiler Error Message: CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'mmars.Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(mmars.contextInfo, ref mmars.Printing.printObjSummary)' has some invalid arguments. When I publish and run on our production server I don't get this error. It seems to compile fine when I build from the build menu (in fact if I change the second argument of the bolded function call below, i get a compiler error in visual studio), but now i've suddenly started getting this error message at runtime. So another question I have in addition to getting rid of the error is why is the .NET development server even trying to do JIT compilation on my project if it is already compiled into a DLL? Printing.printObjSummary myPrintObj = new Printing.printObjSummary(); Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(ci, ref myPrintObj); printObjects.Add(myPrintObj); This seems to have just suddenly appeared from nowhere today and it's extremely frustrating. Also, though there are no warnings at compile-time, when I get redirected to the page with that first compilation error there are many warnings like the following: Warning: CS0436: The type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs' conflicts with the imported type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\assembly\dl3\7179c19a\345f948c_ece7ca01\mmars.DLL'. Using the type defined in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs'. What's the deal with that? Is the webserver complaining about name conflicts in the source file and dll resulting from the source file?

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  • .NET Regular Expression to find actual words in text

    - by Mehdi Anis
    I am using VB .NET to write a program that will get the words from a suplied text file and count how many times each word appears. I am using this regular expression:- parser As New Regex("\w+") It gives me almost 100% correct words. Except when I have words like "Ms Word App file name is word.exe." or "is this a c# statment If(ab?1,0) ?" In such cases I get [word & exe] AND [If, a, b, 1 and 0] as seperate words. it would be nice (for my purpose) that I received word.exe and (If(ab?1,0) as words. I guess \w+ looks for white space, sentence terminating punctuation mark and other punctuation marks to determine a word. I want a similar regular Expression that will not break a word by a punctuation mark, if the punctuation mark is not the end of the word. I think end-of-word can be defined by a trailing WhiteSpace, Sentence terminating Punctuation (you may think of others). if you can suggest some regular expression 9for VB .NET) that will be great help. Thanks.

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  • How to vertically align text in a button with a background drawable?

    - by neutrino
    I had a simple button set up with a background image defined like android:background="?attr/button" where ?attr/button was a reference to a simple 9-patch png. Everything worked fine, text in the button was aligned correctly. Then I needed to have a different background for a pressed state of the button. So I changed that to android:background="@drawable/state_button" where @drawable/state_button is an xml with the following states <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- pressed --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- focused --> <item android:drawable="@drawable/button" /> <!-- default --> </selector> And after that I can't align the text properly. If I put android:gravity="center_vertical" the text is drawn about 1/4 of the button height from the top. I double-checked my 9-patch images, everything seems fine with them. And I also tried having regular pngs for the background, it also doesn't change anything.

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  • WCF code generation for large/complex schema (HR-XML/OAGIS) - is there an alternative?

    - by Sasha Borodin
    Hello, and thank you for reading. I am implementing a WCF Service based on a predefined specification (HR-XML 3.0). As such, I am starting with the schema, and working my way back to code. There are a number of large Schema documents (which import yet more Schema documents) related to my implementation, provided by this specification. I am able to generate code using xsd.exe, by supplying the "main" and "supporting" xsd files as arguments. But there are several issues, and I am wondering if this is the right approach. there are litterally hundreds of classes - the code file is half a meg in size duplicate classes (ex. Type, Type1 - which both represent the same type) there are classes declared as inheriting from a base class, but that base class is not generated/defined I understand that there are limitations to the types of Schema supported by svcutil.exe/xsd.exe when targeting the DataContractSerializer and even XmlSerializer. My question is two-fold: Are code generation "issues" fairly common when dealing with larger, modular xsd files? Has anyone had success with generating data contracts from OAGIS or HR-XML schema? Given the above issues, are there better approaches to this task, avoiding generating code and working with concrete objects? Does it make better sence to read and compose a SOAP message directly, while still taking advantage of the rest of the WCF framework? I understand that I am loosing the convenience of working with .NET objects, and the framekwork-provided (de)serialization; given these losses, would it still be advantageous to base my Service on WCF? Is there some "middle ground" between working with .NET types and pure XML? Thank you very much! -Sasha Borodin DFWHC.org

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  • How to add deploy.jar to classpath?

    - by dma_k
    I am facing the problem: I need to add ${java.home}/lib/deploy.jar JAR file to classpath in the runtime (dynamically from java). The solution with Thread#setContextClassLoader(ClassLoader) (mentioned here) does not work because of this bug (if somebody can explain what is really a problem – you are welcome). The solution with -Xbootclasspath/a:"%JAVA_HOME%/jre/lib/deploy.jar" does not work well for me, because I want to have "pure executable jar" as a deliverable: no wrapping scripts please (more over %JAVA_HOME% may not be defined in user's environment in Windows for example, plus I need to write a script per platform) The solution with merging deploy.jar file into my deliverable works only if I make a build on Windows platform. Unfortunately, when the deliverable is produced on build server running on Linux, I got Linux-dependant JAR, which does not execute on Windows – it fails with the trace below. I have read How the Java Launcher Finds Classes and Java programming dynamics: Java classes and class loading articles but I've got no extra ideas, how to correctly handle this situation. Any advices or solutions are very welcomed. Trace: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Could not initialize class com.sun.deploy.config.Config at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.UserDefinedProxyConfig.getBrowserProxyInfo(UserDefinedProxyConfig.java:43) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DynamicProxyManager.reset(DynamicProxyManager.java:235) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DeployProxySelector.reset(DeployProxySelector.java:59) ... java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DynamicProxyManager.getProxyList(DynamicProxyManager.java:63) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DeployProxySelector.select(DeployProxySelector.java:166)

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  • Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

    - by Donn Felker
    I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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  • Continuing JavaScript "classes" - enums within

    - by espais
    From a previous question, I have the following: So I have implemented a resource class, now I'd like to continue extending it and add all my constants and enums (or as far as JS will allow...). This is what I currently have: var resources = { // images player : new c_resource("res/player.png"), enemies : new c_resource("res/enemies.png"), tilemap : new c_resource("res/tilemap.png") }; And this is what I would like to continue to extend it to: var resources = { // images player : new c_resource("res/player.png"), enemies : new c_resource("res/enemies.png"), tilemap : new c_resource("res/tilemap.png"), // enums directions : {up:0, right:1, down:2, left:3}, speeds : {slow: 1, medium: 3, fast: 5} }; ... function enemies() { this.dir = resources.directions.down; // initialize to down } When I attempt to access resources.directions.up, my JS script goes down in a flaming pile of burning code. Are enums allowed in this context, and if not, how can I properly insert them to be used outside of a normal function? I have also tried defining them as global to a similar effect. edits: fixed the comma...that was just an error in transcribing it. When I run it in Firefox and watch the console, I get an error that says resources is undefined. The resources 'class' is defined at the top of my script, and function enemies() directly follows...so from what I understand it should still be in scope...

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  • Synth LaF JLabel DISABLED color

    - by mmoris
    Hi all, Using the Synth LaF, I am unable to set a JLabel's FOREGROUND color for the DISABLED state. has anybody succeeded in doing this? Here is my label's style definition in my LaF.xml file. <style id="whiteLabelStyle"> <opaque value="false"/> <font name="Bitstream Vera Sans" size="16" /> <state> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="WHITE"/> </state> <state value="DISABLED"> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="BLACK"/> </state> </style> <bind style="whiteLabelStyle" type="name" key="WhiteOrbitLabel"/> Please not that all the other styles defined in my LaF.xml file are rendered properly in my application including my label's WHITE normal state color (it just never goes to black when I do lbl.setEnabled(false) Also, going through the Synth code, I have found the following comment in SynthStyle.getColor if ((context.getComponentState() & SynthConstants.DISABLED) != 0) { //This component is disabled, so return the disabled color. //In some cases this means ignoring the color specified by the //developer on the component. In other cases it means using a //specified disabledTextColor, such as on JTextComponents. //For example, JLabel doesn't specify a disabled color that the //developer can set, yet it should have a disabled color to the //text when the label is disabled. This code allows for that. if (c instanceof JTextComponent) { JTextComponent txt = (JTextComponent)c; Color disabledColor = txt.getDisabledTextColor(); if (disabledColor == null || disabledColor instanceof UIResource) { return getColorForState(context, type); } } else if (c instanceof JLabel && (type == ColorType.FOREGROUND || type == ColorType.TEXT_FOREGROUND)){ return getColorForState(context, type); } But I could not figure out how to set a disabled color for a JLabel Thanks for your help!

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  • std::string insert method has ambiguous overloads?

    - by sdg
    Environment: VS2005 C++ using STLPort 5.1.4. Compiling the following code snippet: std::string copied = "asdf"; char ch = 's'; copied.insert(0,1,ch); I receive an error: Error 1 error C2668: 'stlpx_std::basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc>::insert' : ambiguous call to overloaded function It appears that the problem is the insert method call on the string object. The two defined overloads are void insert ( iterator p, size_t n, char c ); string& insert ( size_t pos1, size_t n, char c ); But given that STLPort uses a simple char* as its iterator, the literal zero in the insert method in my code is ambiguous. So while I can easily overcome the problem by hinting such as copied.insert(size_t(0),1,ch); My question is: is this overloading and possible ambiguity intentional in the specification? Or more likely an unintended side-effect of the specific STLPort implementation? (Note that the Microsoft-supplied STL does not have this problem as it has a class for the iterator, instead of a naked pointer)

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  • Jaxb Simplify Plugin

    - by wrm
    i try to use the simplify plugin to simplify the generated code. I have a defined type: <xsd:complexType name="typeWithReferencesProperty"> <xsd:choice maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xsd:annotation> <xsd:appinfo> <simplify:as-element-property/> </xsd:appinfo> </xsd:annotation> <xsd:element name="a" type="AttributeValueIntegerType"/> <xsd:element name="b" type="AttributeValueIntegerType"/> </xsd:choice> </xsd:complexType> but it does not work, as it results in the following error: compiler was unable to honor this as-element-property customization. It is attached to a wrong place, or its inconsistent with other bindings. i used exactly the configuration, i also have other jaxb plugins which work, so i am not quite sure, if the plugin is broken or something? has anybody managed to get this running?

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  • Limit iPhone in-app purchase by user's country

    - by Ryan
    Hello everyone. I'm a product manager who works for a small internet company that is developing an iPhone application for a social network. We monetize by offering limited and premium memberships to users (premium members get additional features not available to limited members). For billing on the web, we use a 3rd-party payment gateway that is nearing retirement, and will be replaced by an in-house solution. The business wants a global launch for our iPhone app using iTunes + in-app purchasing as a payment gateway. The problem with going global using this payment method is that for our web service membership level, available features, and subscription costs are defined by country. For example, in the US premium/limited memberships are available at 5 pricing tiers; in France premium/limited memberships are available at 5 different pricing tiers from the US; and in Chile the service is available for free and all features are available to users. Is it possible then to have the server-side, based on the user's country of registration, control the level of access, features, and payment options for users on the iPhone? I'd also note that since iTunes Connect does not allow variable pricing by currency and country, each "region" would need 5 in app purchase options. I argued for a US-only launch for iPhone using iTunes in app purchase until an in-house payment gateway is available. But you know...

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