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  • keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

    - by Old McStopher
    UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

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  • Jaxb Simplify Plugin

    - by wrm
    i try to use the simplify plugin to simplify the generated code. I have a defined type: <xsd:complexType name="typeWithReferencesProperty"> <xsd:choice maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xsd:annotation> <xsd:appinfo> <simplify:as-element-property/> </xsd:appinfo> </xsd:annotation> <xsd:element name="a" type="AttributeValueIntegerType"/> <xsd:element name="b" type="AttributeValueIntegerType"/> </xsd:choice> </xsd:complexType> but it does not work, as it results in the following error: compiler was unable to honor this as-element-property customization. It is attached to a wrong place, or its inconsistent with other bindings. i used exactly the configuration, i also have other jaxb plugins which work, so i am not quite sure, if the plugin is broken or something? has anybody managed to get this running?

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  • python gui events out of order

    - by dave
    from Tkinter import * from tkMessageBox import * class Gui: def __init__(self, root): self.container = Frame(root) self.container.grid() self.inputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8) self.outputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8, bg='#E0E0E0', state=DISABLED) self.inputText.grid(row=0, column=0) self.outputText.grid(row=0, column=1) self.inputText.bind("<Key>", self.translate) def translate(self, event): input = self.inputText.get(0.0, END) output = self.outputText.get(0.0, END) self.outputText.config(state=NORMAL) self.outputText.delete(0.0, END) self.outputText.insert(INSERT, input) self.outputText.config(state=DISABLED) showinfo(message="Input: %s characters\nOutput: %s characters" % (len(input), len(input))) root = Tk() #toplevel object app = Gui(root) #call to the class where gui is defined root.mainloop() #enter event loop Working on a gui in tkinter I'm a little confused as to the sequence the event handlers are run. If you run the above code you'll hopefully see... 1) Editing the text widget triggers the event handler but it seems to fire it off without registering the actual change, 2) Even when the text widget is cleared (ie, keep pressing BackSpace) it still seems to have a one character length string, 3) The output widget only receives its update when the NEXT event trigger is fired despite the fact the data came on the previous event. Is this just how bindings work in tkinter or am i missing something here? The behaviour i would like when updating the input widget is: 1) Show the change, 2) Enter event handler, 3) Update output widget, 4) Show message box.

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  • properly format postal address with line breaks [google maps]

    - by munchybunch
    Using V3 of the google maps API, is there any reliable way to format addresses with the line break? By this, I mean something like 1600 Amphitheatre Parkway Mountain View, CA 94043 should be formatted as 1600 Amphitheatre Parkway Mountain View, CA 94043 Looking through the response object from geocoding, there is an address_components array that has, for the above address, 8 components (not all of the components are used for the address): 0: Object long_name: "1600" short_name: "1600" types: Array[1] 0: "street_number" length: 1 1: Object long_name: "Amphitheatre Pkwy" short_name: "Amphitheatre Pkwy" types: Array[1] 0: "route" length: 1 2: Object long_name: "Mountain View" short_name: "Mountain View" types: Array[2] 0: "locality" 1: "political" length: 2 3: Object long_name: "San Jose" short_name: "San Jose" types: Array[2] 0: "administrative_area_level_3" 1: "political" length: 2 4: Object long_name: "Santa Clara" short_name: "Santa Clara" types: Array[2] 0: "administrative_area_level_2" 1: "political" length: 2 5: Object long_name: "California" short_name: "CA" types: Array[2] 0: "administrative_area_level_1" 1: "political" length: 2 6: Object long_name: "United States" short_name: "US" types: Array[2] 0: "country" 1: "political" length: 2 7: Object long_name: "94043" short_name: "94043" types: Array[1] 0: "postal_code" length: 1 I was thinking that you could just combine parts that you want, like sprintf("%s %s<br />%s, %s %s", array[0].short_name, array[1].short_name, array[2].short_name, array[5].short_name, array[7].short_name) [edit]I just realized that sprintf isn't defined by default in JavaScript, so just a concatenation would do I guess.[/edit] But that seems awfully unreliable. Does anyone know the details on the structure of address_components, and if it's reliably similar like that for street addresses in the US? If I wanted to, I guess I could look for the proper types (street_number,route, etc) as well. I'd love it if anyone had a better way than what I"m doing here...

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  • Background color remaining when switching views

    - by Guy
    Hi Guys. I have a UIViewController named equationVC who's user interface is being programmatically created from another NSObject class called equationCon. Upon loading equationVC, a method called chooseInterface is called from the equationCon class. I have a global variable (globalVar) that points to a user defined string. chooseInterface finds a method in the equationCon class that matches the string globalVar points to. In this case, let's say that globalVar points to a string that is called "methodThatMatches." In methodThatMatches, another view controller needs to show the results of what methodThatMatches did. methodThatMatches creates a new equationVC that calls upon methodThatMatches2. As a test, each method changes the color of the background. When the application starts up, I get a purple background, but as soon as I hit backwards I get another purple screen, which should be yellow. I do not think that I am release the view properly. Can anyone help? -(void)chooseInterface { NSString* equationTemp = [globalVar stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; equationTemp = [equationTemp stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@""]; SEL equationName = NSSelectorFromString(equationTemp); NSLog(@"selector! %@",NSStringFromSelector(equationName)); if([self respondsToSelector:equationName]){ [self performSelector:equationName]; } } -(void)methodThatMatches{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor yellowColor]; [setGlobalVar:@"methodThatMatches2"]; EquationVC* temp = [[EquationVC alloc] init]; [[self.equationVC navigationController] pushViewController:temp animated:YES ]; [temp release]; } -(void)methodThatmatches2{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor purpleColor]; }

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  • RSpec: Can't convert Image to String when using Nested Resource.

    - by darrint
    I'm having trouble with and RSpec view test. I'm using nested resources and the model with a belongs_to association. Here's what I have so far: describe "/images/edit.html.erb" do include ImagesHelper before(:each) do @image_pool = stub_model(ImagePool, :new_record => false, :base_path => '/') assigns[:image] = @image = stub_model(Image, :new_record? => false, :source_name => "value for source_name", :image_pool => @image_pool) end it "renders the edit image form" do render response.should have_tag("form[action=#{image_path(@image)}][method=post]") do with_tag('input#image_source_name[name=?]', "image[source_name]") end end end The error I'm receiving: ActionView::TemplateError in '/images/edit.html.erb renders the edit image form' can't convert Image into String On line #3 of app/views/images/edit.html.erb 1: <h1>Editing image</h1> 2: 3: <% form_for(@image) do |f| %> 4: <%= f.error_messages %> 5: 6: <p> app/views/images/edit.html.erb:3 /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/extensions/action_view/base.rb:27:in `render_with_mock_proxy' /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/example/view_example_group.rb:170:in `render' Looking at the rails code where the exception occurs is not very revealing. Any ideas on how I can narrow down what is going on here? One thing I tried was calling form_for directly from the example and I got a different error griping about lack of 'polymorphic_path' defined on Spec::Rails::Example::ViewExampleGroup::Subclass_4:0xblah. Not sure if that actually means anything.

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  • Start dependent application with eunit

    - by ruslander
    I start lager as a dependent application when I run a unit test but for some reason the code under test does not see it. -module(main_tests). -include_lib("eunit/include/eunit.hrl"). main_test_() -> {foreach, fun distr_setup/0, fun distr_cleanup/1, [ fun must_retain/1 ]}. must_retain(_) -> {"Should do ping pong when is fully initialized", fun() -> ?assertEqual(pong, abuse_counter:ping()) end}. %%------------------------------------------------------------------ distr_setup() -> abuse_counter:start_link(), ok. distr_cleanup(_) -> abuse_counter:stop(), ok. Here is the output of the log which is complaining that lager is not defined {undef,[{lager,info,["up and running"],[]} though in the run output is definitely there. Here is how I run it: erl -pa ebin/ ../../deps/*/ebin -s lager -eval 'eunit:test(main_tests,[verbose]), init:stop().' Fails with the output Eshell V5.10.2 (abort with ^G) 1> 17:13:31.506 [info] Application lager started on node nonode@nohost ======================== EUnit ======================== module 'main_tests' undefined 17:13:31.528 [error] CRASH REPORT Process <0.57.0> with 1 neighbours exited with reason: call to undefined function lager:info("up and running") in gen_server:init_it/6 line 328 *unexpected termination of test process* ::**{undef,[{lager,info,["up and running"],[]}**, {abuse_counter,init,1,[{file,"src/abuse_counter.erl"},{line,37}]}, {gen_server,init_it,6,[{file,"gen_server.erl"},{line,304}]}, {proc_lib,init_p_do_apply,3,[{file,"proc_lib.erl"},{line,239}]}]} ======================================================= Failed: 0. Skipped: 0. Passed: 0. One or more tests were cancelled. Already spent 3-4h hours on google and stack overflow but nothing seems to work. One option is to hide this call behind a ?INFO(Mgs) macro but do not like the idea. Any help will be highly appreciated.

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  • How to efficiently compare the sign of two floating-point values while handling negative zeros

    - by François Beaune
    Given two floating-point numbers, I'm looking for an efficient way to check if they have the same sign, given that if any of the two values is zero (+0.0 or -0.0), they should be considered to have the same sign. For instance, SameSign(1.0, 2.0) should return true SameSign(-1.0, -2.0) should return true SameSign(-1.0, 2.0) should return false SameSign(0.0, 1.0) should return true SameSign(0.0, -1.0) should return true SameSign(-0.0, 1.0) should return true SameSign(-0.0, -1.0) should return true A naive but correct implementation of SameSign in C++ would be: bool SameSign(float a, float b) { if (fabs(a) == 0.0f || fabs(b) == 0.0f) return true; return (a >= 0.0f) == (b >= 0.0f); } Assuming the IEEE floating-point model, here's a variant of SameSign that compiles to branchless code (at least with with Visual C++ 2008): bool SameSign(float a, float b) { int ia = binary_cast<int>(a); int ib = binary_cast<int>(b); int az = (ia & 0x7FFFFFFF) == 0; int bz = (ib & 0x7FFFFFFF) == 0; int ab = (ia ^ ib) >= 0; return (az | bz | ab) != 0; } with binary_cast defined as follow: template <typename Target, typename Source> inline Target binary_cast(Source s) { union { Source m_source; Target m_target; } u; u.m_source = s; return u.m_target; } I'm looking for two things: A faster, more efficient implementation of SameSign, using bit tricks, FPU tricks or even SSE intrinsics. An efficient extension of SameSign to three values.

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  • get value from css using document.getElementById().style.height javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, Please offer insight into this mystery. I am trying to get the height value from a div box by var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); I can get this value just fine if the attribute is contained within the div tag, but it returns a blank value if the attribute is defined in the css section. This is fine, it shows 100px as a value. The value can be accessed. <div id="hintdiv" style="height:100px; display: none;"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); This is not fine, it shows an empty alert screen. The value is practically 0. #hintdiv { height:100px display: none; } <div id="hintdiv"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); But I have no problem accessing/changing the "display:none" attribute whether it is in the tag or in the css section. The div box displays correctly by both attribute definition methods (inside the tag or in the css section). I also tried to access the value by other variations, but no luck document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height.value ----> undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height ---->undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height.value ----> error, no execution Any solution? TIA.

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  • Associative Array / Object can't be read in functions

    - by Matrym
    At the very beginning of the javascript file, I have: var lbp = {}; lbp.defaults = { minLength: 40 }; I can successfully alert it afterwards, with: alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); But as soon as I put it inside a function, when I alert, I get "Undefined". What gives, and how do I avoid this? Is it absolutely necessary to pass this variable into each function, for example, by doing: function(lbp) { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); } I would have thought that defining it first, it would attain global scope and not be required to be passed in? Thanks in advance for enlightening me :) ==================================== EDIT: The problem seems like it might be my initialize function is itself defined within lbp. Is there any way to use this function var, and still use lbp vars inside it? lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; The full bit of code looks like this: <script type="text/javascript"> var lbp = { defaults: { minLength: 40 } }; lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; window.onload = lbp.initialize; </script>

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  • PHP + MYSQLI: Variable parameter/result binding with prepared statements.

    - by Brian Warshaw
    In a project that I'm about to wrap up, I've written and implemented an object-relational mapping solution for PHP. Before the doubters and dreamers cry out "how on earth?", relax -- I haven't found a way to make late static binding work -- I'm just working around it in the best way that I possibly can. Anyway, I'm not currently using prepared statements for querying, because I couldn't come up with a way to pass a variable number of arguments to the bind_params() or bind_result() methods. Why do I need to support a variable number of arguments, you ask? Because the superclass of my models (think of my solution as a hacked-up PHP ActiveRecord wannabe) is where the querying is defined, and so the find() method, for example, doesn't know how many parameters it would need to bind. Now, I've already thought of building an argument list and passing a string to eval(), but I don't like that solution very much -- I'd rather just implement my own security checks and pass on statements. Does anyone have any suggestions (or success stories) about how to get this done? If you can help me solve this first problem, perhaps we can tackle binding the result set (something I suspect will be more difficult, or at least more resource-intensive if it involves an initial query to determine table structure).

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  • How to vertically align text in a button with a background drawable?

    - by neutrino
    I had a simple button set up with a background image defined like android:background="?attr/button" where ?attr/button was a reference to a simple 9-patch png. Everything worked fine, text in the button was aligned correctly. Then I needed to have a different background for a pressed state of the button. So I changed that to android:background="@drawable/state_button" where @drawable/state_button is an xml with the following states <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- pressed --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- focused --> <item android:drawable="@drawable/button" /> <!-- default --> </selector> And after that I can't align the text properly. If I put android:gravity="center_vertical" the text is drawn about 1/4 of the button height from the top. I double-checked my 9-patch images, everything seems fine with them. And I also tried having regular pngs for the background, it also doesn't change anything.

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  • Silverlight Socket Constantly Returns With Empty Buffer

    - by Benny
    I am using Silverlight to interact with a proxy application that I have developed but, without the proxy sending a message to the Silverlight application, it executes the receive completed handler with an empty buffer ('\0's). Is there something I'm doing wrong? It is causing a major memory leak. this._rawBuffer = new Byte[this.BUFFER_SIZE]; SocketAsyncEventArgs receiveArgs = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); receiveArgs.SetBuffer(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.Length); receiveArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(ReceiveComplete); this._client.ReceiveAsync(receiveArgs); if (args.SocketError == SocketError.Success && args.LastOperation == SocketAsyncOperation.Receive) { // Read the current bytes from the stream buffer int bytesRecieved = this._client.ReceiveBufferSize; // If there are bytes to process else the connection is lost if (bytesRecieved > 0) { try { //Find out what we just received string messagePart = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetString(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.GetLength(0)); //Take out any trailing empty characters from the message messagePart = messagePart.Replace('\0'.ToString(), ""); //Concatenate our current message with any leftovers from previous receipts string fullMessage = _theRest + messagePart; int seperator; //While the index of the seperator (LINE_END defined & initiated as private member) while ((seperator = fullMessage.IndexOf((char)Messages.MessageSeperator.Terminator)) > 0) { //Pull out the first message available (up to the seperator index string message = fullMessage.Substring(0, seperator); //Queue up our new message _messageQueue.Enqueue(message); //Take out our line end character fullMessage = fullMessage.Remove(0, seperator + 1); } //Save whatever was NOT a full message to the private variable used to store the rest _theRest = fullMessage; //Empty the queue of messages if there are any while (this._messageQueue.Count > 0) { ... } } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } // Wait for a new message if (this._isClosing != true) Receive(); } } Thanks in advance.

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Compilation errors calling find_if using a functor

    - by Jim Wong
    We are having a bit of trouble using find_if to search a vector of pairs for an entry in which the first element of the pair matches a particular value. To make this work, we have defined a trivial functor whose operator() takes a pair as input and compares the first entry against a string. Unfortunately, when we actually add a call to find_if using an instance of our functor constructed using a temporary string value, the compiler produces a raft of error messages. Oddly (to me, anyway), if we replace the temporary with a string that we've created on the stack, things seem to work. Here's what the code (including both versions) looks like: typedef std::pair<std::string, std::string> MyPair; typedef std::vector<MyPair> MyVector; struct MyFunctor: std::unary_function <const MyPair&, bool> { explicit MyFunctor(const std::string& val) : m_val(val) {} bool operator() (const MyPair& p) { return p.first == m_val; } const std::string m_val; }; bool f(const char* s) { MyFunctor f(std::string(s)); // ERROR // std::string str(s); // MyFunctor f(str); // OK MyVector vec; MyVector::const_iterator i = std::find_if(vec.begin(), vec.end(), f); return i != vec.end(); } And here's what the most interesting error message looks like: /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/bits/stl_algo.h:260: error: conversion from ‘std::pair, std::allocator , std::basic_string, std::allocator ’ to non-scalar type ‘std::string’ requested Because we have a workaround, we're mostly curious as to why the first form causes problems. I'm sure we're missing something, but we haven't been able to figure out what it is.

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  • Modifying CSS class property values on the fly with JavaScript / jQuery

    - by JPN
    all. I've run into a unique situation that I have so far been unable to find a solution for: dynamically assigning a value to a CSS style. I know how to use jQuery to assign width, height, etc. to an element, but what I'm trying to do is actually change the value defined in the stylesheet so that the dynamically-created value can be assigned to multiple elements. What I'm building is a slideshow of images that occupy the full viewport, recalculating the image's width, height, and left properties on resize so that the image is always centered, favors width over height, except when the viewport is taller than it is wide (resizing does not reload the page, just fires a function to resize the image). I have successfully been able to get it to work on one image, and now I'm trying to determine the best way to assign those property values to all images in the slideshow without having to specify those three things individually for every image. Can the values of properties in a class be modified on the fly? I'm sure the answer is out there, I'm probably just not using the correct terminology in my searches. Hope I did a good job of describing the problem. TIA.

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  • java 6 web services share domain specific classes between server and client

    - by user173446
    Hi all, Context: Considering below defined Engine class being parameter of some webservice method. As we have both server and client in java we may have some benefits (???) in sharing Engine class between server and client ( i.e we may put in a common jar file to be added to both client and server classpath ) Some benefits would be : we keep specific operations like 'brushEngine' in same place build is faster as we do not need in our case to generate java code for client classes but to use them from the server build) if we later change server implementation for 'brushEngine' this is reflected automatically in client . Questions: How to share below detailed Engine class using java 6 tools ( i.e wsimport , wsgen etc )? Is there other tools for java that can achieve this sharing ? Is sharing a case that java 6 web services support is missing ? Can this case be reduced to other web service usage patterns? Thanks. Code: public class Engine { private String engineData; public String getData(){ return data; } public setData(String value){ this.data = value; } public void brushEngine(){ engineData = "BrushedEngine"+engineData; } }

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  • Any danger in calling flash messages html_safe?

    - by PreciousBodilyFluids
    I want a flash message that looks something like: "That confirmation link is invalid or expired. Click here to have a new one generated." Where "click here" is of course a link to another action in the app where a new confirmation link can be generated. Two drawbacks: One, since link_to isn't defined in the controller where the flash message is being set, I have to put the link html in myself. No big deal, but kind of messy. Number two: In order for the link to actually display properly on the page I have to html_safe the flash display function in the view, so now it looks like (using Haml): - flash.each do |name, message| = content_tag :div, message.html_safe This gives me pause. Everything else I html_safe has been HTML I've written myself in helpers and whatnot, but the contents of the flash hash are stored in a cookie client-side, and could conceivably be changed. I've thought through it, and I don't see how this could result in an XSS attack, but XSS isn't something I have a great understanding of anyway. So, two questions: 1. Is there any danger in always html_safe-ing all flash contents like this? 2. The fact that this solution is so messy (breaking MVC by using HTML in the controller, always html_safe-ing all flash contents) make me think I'm going about this wrong. Is there a more elegant, Rails-ish way to do this? I'm using Rails 3.0.0.beta3.

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  • Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

    - by Dan
    From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

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  • SQL n:m Inheritance join

    - by Nightmares
    I want to join a table which contains n:m relationship between groups. (Groups are defined in a separate table). This table only has entries listing a member_group_id and a parent_group_id. Given this structure: id(int) | member_group_id(int) | parent_group_id(int) The "base" query looks like this: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.member_group_id = p1.member_group_id The "base" query correctly shows all relationships (I checked by doing it manually.) The problem is when I try to apply a where clause to this query to filter for a specific group as "point of origin" (the first group for which I want all parent groups) it returns only the closest parents. For example like this: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.member_group_id = p1.member_group_id where p1.group_id = 1 Can anyone give a clue how I can fix this? Or a different approach to realize this. (I suppose I could always do this in my C++ source code on the server side but I would have to transfer a entire table which has a high growth potential to the application server.) UPDATE: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.group_id = p1.member_group_id Typing mistake confirmed. Now I don't get past first level of inheritance period. Thanks at denied for pointing that out.

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  • C++ VB6 interfacing problem

    - by Roshan
    Hi, I'm tearing my hair out trying to solve this one, any insights will be much appreciated: I have a C++ exe which acquires data from some hardware in the main thread and processes it in another thread (thread 2). I use a c++ dll to supply some data processing functions which are called from thread 2. I have a requirement to make another set of data processing functions in VB6. I have thus created a VB6 dll, using the add-in vbAdvance to create a standard dll. When I call functions from within this VB6 dll from the main thread, everything works exactly as expected. When I call functions from this VB6 dll in thread 2, I get an access violation. I've traced the error to the CopyMemory command, it would seem that if this is used within the call from the main thread, it's fine but in a call from the process thread, it causes an exception. Why should this be so? As far as I understand, threads share the same address space. Here is the code from my VB dll Public Sub UserFunInterface(ByVal in1ptr As Long, ByVal out1ptr As Long, ByRef nsamples As Long) Dim myarray1() As Single Dim myarray2() As Single Dim i As Integer ReDim myarray1(0 To nsamples - 1) As Single ReDim myarray2(0 To nsamples - 1) As Single With tsa1din(0) ' defined as safearray1d in a global definitions module .cDims = 1 .cbElements = 4 .cElements = nsamples .pvData = in1ptr End With With tsa1dout .cDims = 1 .cbElements = 4 .cElements = nsamples .pvData = out1ptr End With CopyMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray1), VarPtr(tsa1din(0)), 4 CopyMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray2), VarPtr(tsa1dout), 4 For i = 0 To nsamples - 1 myarray2(i) = myarray1(i) * 2 Next i ZeroMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray1), 4 ZeroMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray2), 4 End Sub

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  • WPF ContextMenu bind some property to another property of the same control

    - by bebicasoft
    I have a ContextMenu and a ColumnHeaderStyle defined in Window.Resource section witch i use-it to a DataGrid ColumnHeader. My code is something like this: <ContextMenu x:Key="cm_columnHeaderMenu"/> <Style x:Key="DefaultColumnHeaderStyle" TargetType="{x:Type DataGridColumnHeader}"> <Setter Property="ContextMenu" Value="{StaticResource cm_columnHeaderMenu}" /> </Style> <DataGrid Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" x:Name="dgridFiles" IsReadOnly="True" ColumnHeaderStyle="{StaticResource DefaultColumnHeaderStyle}"> I want to know if I can (and if the answer it true, then HOW I could do it) bind the ContextMenu Visibility property to same control ContextMenu Items.Count>0 property. Initially based on some other treeView control selections made there shoud be no items in the context menu, but i wish to add dinamically items in ContextMenu based on selection in treeView. This part is done, the context has those items. On some selections there are no-items, but still on the grid it appears an empty ContextMenu. So I believe the easiest part it would be to bind the Visibility to Items.Count property of the same control. Sorry if my english is not good enought, I'll try to explain better if i didnt make clear 1st time.

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  • Object does not exist after constructor?

    - by openbas
    Hello, I have a constructor that looks like this (in c++): Interpreter::Interpreter() { tempDat == new DataObject(); tempDat->clear(); } the constructor of dataObject does absolutely nothing, and clear does this: bool DataObject::clear() { //clear the object if (current_max_id > 0) { indexTypeLookup.clear(); intData.clear(); doubleData.clear(); current_max_id = 0; } } Those members are defined as follows: std::map<int, int> indexTypeLookup; std::map<int, int> intData; std::map<int, double> doubleData; Now the strange thing is that I'm getting a segfault on tempDat-clear(); gdb says tempDat is null. How is that possible? The constructor of tempDat cannot fail, it looks like this: DataObject::DataObject() : current_max_id(0) { } I know there are probably better way's of making such a data structure, but I really like to know where this segfault problem is coming from..

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  • Are function-local typedefs visible inside C++0x lambdas?

    - by GMan - Save the Unicorns
    I've run into a strange problem. The following simplified code reproduces the problem in MSVC 2010 Beta 2: template <typename T> struct dummy { static T foo(void) { return T(); } }; int main(void) { typedef dummy<bool> dummy_type; auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy_type::foo(); }; // auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy<bool>::foo(); }; // works } The typedef I created locally in the function doesn't seem to be visible in the lambda. If I replace the typedef with the actual type, it works as expected. Here are some other test cases: // crashes the compiler, credit to Tarydon int main(void) { struct dummy {}; auto x = [](void){ dummy d; }; } // works as expected int main(void) { typedef int integer; auto x = [](void){ integer i = 0; }; } I don't have g++ 4.5 available to test it, right now. Is this some strange rule in C++0x, or just a bug in the compiler? From the results above, I'm leaning towards bug. Though the crash is definitely a bug. For now, I have filed two bug reports. All code snippets above should compile. The error has to do with using the scope resolution on locally defined scopes. (Spotted by dvide.) And the crash bug has to do with... who knows. :) Update According to the bug reports, they have both been fixed for the next release of Visual Studio 2010.

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  • I want to request JSON inside of a WordPress page.

    - by gnucom
    Hello Everyone, For the last few hours I've been trying to set up this http://code.google.com/apis/books/docs/dynamic-links.html on a WordPress blog. Google's API sends back a JSON response (which is supposed to be "put" into _GBSBookInfo variable). However, that variable never is assigned so my javascript callback function explodes saying the variable doesn't exist. So far, all of my javascript is in the WordPress header. I tried this outside of WordPress and it works fine. This is the static page: <script src="http://books.google.com/books?bibkeys=0307346609&jscmd=viewapi&callback=response_handler"> This is the handler: function response_handler(data) { var bookInfo = _GBSBookInfo["0307346609"]; // the var that doesn't exist document.getElementById("test123").innerHTML = bookInfo.thumbnail_url; } Thanks for any help in advance, WordPress has been extremely frustrating by limiting so much! If I'm doing anything stupid please say so, I'm a new javascript programmer. EDIT: I've used firebug so far to identify the problem to be: the _GBSBookInfo variable never gets "created" or "exists". I'm not sure how javascript works at this level. Hopefully this helps. ERRORS: Error: _GBSBookInfo is not defined Line: 79

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