Search Results

Search found 8190 results on 328 pages for 'separate'.

Page 255/328 | < Previous Page | 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262  | Next Page >

  • Looking for Bugtracker with specific features

    - by Thorsten Dittmar
    Hi, we're looking into bugtracking systems at our firm. We're quite small (4 developers only). On the other hand we have quite a large number of customers we develop individual software for. Most software is built explicitly for one customer, apart from two or three standard tools we ship. To make support easier for us (and to avoid being interrupted by phone calls all the time) we're looking for a bugtracker that must support a specific set of features. We want the customers to report bugs/feature/change requests themselves and be notified about these reports by email. Then we'd like to track what we've done and how much time it took, notifying the customer about that per email (private notes for just us must be possible). At the end of the month we'd like to bill all closed reports according to the time it took to solve/implement them. The following must be possible: It must have a web based interface where the users must log in with credentials we provide. The users must not be able to create accounts themselves/we must be able to turn off such a feature. We must be able to configure projects and assign customer logins to these projects. The customers must only see projects they are assigned to, not any other projects. Also, customers must not "see" other customers. We would name the projects, so that standard tools are listed as separate projects for each customer. A monthly report must be available that we can use to get information about the requests we worked on per customer. I'd like to introduce some standard product like Mantis (I've played with that a little, but didn't quite figure out whether it provides all the features I listed above). The product should be Open Source and work on a XAMPP Windows Server 2003 environment. Does anybody have any good suggestions?

    Read the article

  • how can I save/keep-in-sync an in-memory graph of objects with the database?

    - by Greg
    Question - What is a good best practice approach for how can I save/keep-in-sync an jn-memory graph of objects with the database? Background: That is say I have the classes Node and Relationship, and the application is building up a graph of related objects using these classes. There might be 1000 nodes with various relationships between them. The application needs to query the structure hence an in-memory approach is good for performance no doubt (e.g. traverse the graph from Node X to find the root parents) The graph does need to be persisted however into a database with tables NODES and RELATIONSHIPS. Therefore what is a good best practice approach for how can I save/keep-in-sync an jn-memory graph of objects with the database? Ideal requirements would include: build up changes in-memory and then 'save' afterwards (mandatory) when saving, apply updates to database in correct order to avoid hitting any database constraints (mandatory) keep persistence mechanism separate from model, for ease in changing persistence layer if needed, e.g. don't just wrap an ADO.net DataRow in the Node and Relationship classes (desirable) mechanism for doing optimistic locking (desirable) Or is the overhead of all this for a smallish application just not worth it and I should just hit the database each time for everything? (assuming the response times were acceptable) [would still like to avoid if not too much extra overhead to remain somewhat scalable re performance]

    Read the article

  • How to implement Horner's scheme for multivariate polynomials?

    - by gsreynolds
    Background I need to solve polynomials in multiple variables using Horner's scheme in Fortran90/95. The main reason for doing this is the increased efficiency and accuracy that occurs when using Horner's scheme to evaluate polynomials. I currently have an implementation of Horner's scheme for univariate/single variable polynomials. However, developing a function to evaluate multivariate polynomials using Horner's scheme is proving to be beyond me. An example bivariate polynomial would be: 12x^2y^2+8x^2y+6xy^2+4xy+2x+2y which would factorised to x(x(y(12y+8))+y(6y+4)+2)+2y and then evaluated for particular values of x & y. Research I've done my research and found a number of papers such as: staff.ustc.edu.cn/~xinmao/ISSAC05/pages/bulletins/articles/147/hornercorrected.pdf citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.40.8637&rep=rep1&type=pdf www.is.titech.ac.jp/~kojima/articles/B-433.pdf Problem However, I'm not a mathematician or computer scientist, so I'm having trouble with the mathematics used to convey the algorithms and ideas. As far as I can tell the basic strategy is to turn a multivariate polynomial into separate univariate polynomials and compute it that way. Can anyone help me? If anyone could help me turn the algorithms into pseudo-code that I can implement into Fortran myself, I would be very grateful.

    Read the article

  • Web application architecture, and application servers?

    - by seanieb
    Hi, I'm building a web application, and I need to use an architecture that allows me to run it on two servers. The application scrapes information from other sites periodically, and on input from the end user. To do this I'm using Php+curl to scrape the information, Php or python to parse it and store the results in a MySQLDB. Then I will use Python to run some algorithms on the data, this will happen both periodically and on input from the end user. I'm going to cache some of the results in the MySQL DB and sometimes if it is specific to the user, skip storing the data and serve it to the user. I'm think of using Php for the website front end on a separate web server, running the Php spider, MySQL DB and python on another server. As you can see I'm fairly clueless. I'm familiar with using Php, MySQL and the basics of Python, but bringing this all together using something more complex than a cron job is new to me. How do go about implementing this? What frame work(s) should I use? Is MVC a good architecture for this? (I'm new to MVC, architectures etc.) Is Cakephp a good solution? If so will I be able to control and monitor the Python code using it?

    Read the article

  • Allow paste in worksheet without overwriting locked cells

    - by jjeaton
    I have a protected worksheet that users would like to copy and paste into. I have no control over the workbook they are copying from. The protected worksheet has some rows that are available for data entry, and other rows that are locked and greyed out to the user. The users would like to be able to paste over the top of the entire worksheet from another random workbook and have all the cells available for data entry filled in, while the locked cells are undisturbed. In the current state, the user gets an error when they try to paste, because it cannot paste over the locked cells. Example: Worksheet 1: Act1 100 100 100 Act2 100 100 100 Act3 100 100 100 Worksheet 2: (The second row is locked) Act1 300 300 300 Act2 200 200 200 Act3 100 100 100 After copying/pasting Worksheet 2 should look like this: Act1 100 100 100 Act2 200 200 200 Act3 100 100 100 The values from worksheet 1 are populated and the locked rows are undisturbed. I've been thinking along the lines of having a hook where on paste, the locked cells are unlocked so that the paste can happen, and then are reverted to their original values and relocked. Is there some way I can loop through the cells in the clipboard and only paste cells where the target isn't locked? It is preferable to not create a separate button for paste, so there is less impact on the users, but if that's the only way, I'm not opposed to it. Currently, I plan on grouping the locked rows together, so that the data entry cells are contiguous, but then the accounts will be out of order, which is not preferred.

    Read the article

  • Do complex JOINs cause high coupling and maintenance problems ?

    - by ashkan.kh.nazary
    Our project has ~40 tables with complex relations.A colleague believes in using long join queries which enforces me to learn about tables outside of my module but I think I should not concern about tables not directly related to my module and use data access functions (written by those responsible for other modules) when I need data from them. Let me clarify: I am responsible for the ContactVendor module which enables the customers to contact the vendor and start a conversation about some specific product. Products module has it's own complex tables and relations with functions that encapsulate details (for example i18n, activation, product availability etc ...). Now I need to show the product title of some product related to some conversation between the vendor and customers. I may either write a long query that retrieves the product info along with conversation stuff in one shot (which enforces me to learn about Product tables) OR I may pass the relevant product_id to the get_product_info(int) function. First approach is obviously demanding and introduces many bad practices and things I normally consider fault in programming. The problem with the second approach seems to be the countless mini queries these access functions cause and performance loss is a concern when a loop tries to fetch product titles for 100 products using functions that each perform a separate query. So I'm stuck between "don't code to the implementation, code to interface" and performance. What is the right way of doing things ? UPDATE: I'm specially concerned about possible future modifications to those tables outside of my module. What if the Products module decided to change the way they are doing things? or for some reason modify the schema? It means some other modules would break or malfunction until the change is integrated to them. The usual ripple effect problem.

    Read the article

  • Is my objective possible using WCF (and is it the right way to do things?)

    - by David
    I'm writing some software that modifies a Windows Server's configuration (things like MS-DNS, IIS, parts of the filesystem). My design has a server process that builds an in-memory object graph of the server configuration state and a client which requests this object graph. The server would then serialize the graph, send it to the client (presumably using WCF), the server then makes changes to this graph and sends it back to the server. The server receives the graph and proceeds to make modifications to the server. However I've learned that object-graph serialisation in WCF isn't as simple as I first thought. My objects have a hierarchy and many have parametrised-constructors and immutable properties/fields. There are also numerous collections, arrays, and dictionaries. My understanding of WCF serialisation is that it requires use of either the XmlSerializer or DataContractSerializer, but DCS places restrictions on the design of my object-graph (immutable data seems right-out, it also requires parameter-less constructors). I understand XmlSerializer lets me use my own classes provided they implement ISerializable and have the de-serializer constructor. That is fine by me. I spoke to a friend of mine about this, and he advocates going for a Data Transport Object-only route, where I'd have to maintain a separate DataContract object-graph for the transport of data and re-implement my server objects on the client. Another friend of mine said that because my service only has two operations ("GetServerConfiguration" and "PutServerConfiguration") it might be worthwhile just skipping WCF entirely and implementing my own server that uses Sockets. So my questions are: Has anyone faced a similar problem before and if so, are there better approaches? Is it wise to send an entire object graph to the client for processing? Should I instead break it down so that the client requests a part of the object graph as it needs it and sends only bits that have changed (thus reducing concurrency-related risks?)? If sending the object-graph down is the right way, is WCF the right tool? And if WCF is right, what's the best way to get WCF to serialise my object graph?

    Read the article

  • Creating a function in Postgresql that does not return composite values

    - by celenius
    I'm learning how to write functions in Postgresql. I've defined a function called _tmp_myfunction() which takes in an id and returns a table (I also define a table object type called _tmp_mytable) -- create object type to be returned CREATE TYPE _tmp_mytable AS ( id integer, cost double precision ); -- create function which returns query CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION _tmp_myfunction( id integer ) RETURNS SETOF _tmp_mytable AS $$ BEGIN RETURN QUERY SELECT id, cost FROM sales WHERE id = sales.id; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; This works fine when I use one id and call it using the following approach: SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); What I would like to be able to do is to call it, but to use a column of values instead of just one value. However, if I use the following approach I end up with all values of the table in one column, separated by commas: -- call function using all values in a column SELECT _tmp_myfunction(t.id) FROM transactions as t; I understand that I can get the same result if I use SELECT _tmp_myfunction(402); instead of SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); but I don't know how to construct my query in such a way that I can separate out the results.

    Read the article

  • how to design a schema where the columns of a table are not fixed

    - by hIpPy
    I am trying to design a schema where the columns of a table are not fixed. Ex: I have an Employee table where the columns of the table are not fixed and vary (attributes of Employee are not fixed and vary). Nullable columns in the Employee table itself i.e. no normalization Instead of adding nullable columns, separate those columns out in their individual tables ex: if Address is a column to be added then create table Address[EmployeeId, AddressValue]. Create tables ExtensionColumnName [EmployeeId, ColumnName] and ExtensionColumnValue [EmployeeId, ColumnValue]. ExtensionColumnName would have ColumnName as "Address" and ExtensionColumnValue would have ColumnValue as address value. Employee table EmployeeId Name ExtensionColumnName table ColumnNameId EmployeeId ColumnName ExtensionColumnValue table EmployeeId ColumnNameId ColumnValue There is a drawback is the first two ways as the schema changes with every new attribute. Note that adding a new attribute is frequent. I am not sure if this is the good or bad design. If someone had a similar decision to make, please give an insight on things like foreign keys / data integrity, indexing, performance, reporting etc.

    Read the article

  • Linux time sample based profiler.

    - by Caspin
    short version: Is there a good time based sampling profiler for Linux? long version: I generally use OProfile to optimize my applications. I recently found a shortcoming that has me wondering. The problem was a tight loop spawning c++filt to demangle a c++ name. I only stumbled upon the code by accident while chasing down another bottleneck. The OProfile didn't show anything unusual about the code so I almost ignored it but my code sense told me to optimize the call and see what happened. I changed the popen of c++filt to abi::__cxa_demangle. The runtime went from more than a minute to a little over a second. About a x60 speed up. Is there a way I could have configured OProfile to flag the popen call? As the profile data sits now OProfile thinks the bottle neck was the heap and std::string calls (which BTW once optimized dropped the runtime to less than a second, more than x2 speed up). Here is my OProfile configuration: $ sudo opcontrol --status Daemon not running Event 0: CPU_CLK_UNHALTED:90000:0:1:1 Separate options: library vmlinux file: none Image filter: /path/to/excutable Call-graph depth: 7 Buffer size: 65536 Is there another profiler for Linux that could have found the bottleneck? I suspect the issue is that OProfile only logs its samples to the currently running process. I'd like it to always log its samples to the process I'm profiling. So if the process is currently switched out (blocking on IO or a popen call) OProfile would just place its sample at the blocked call. If I can't fix this, OProfile will only be useful when the executable is pushing near 100% CPU. It can't help with executables that that have inefficient blocking calls.

    Read the article

  • Location of Embedly (JQuery-Preview) Results

    - by user749798
    Embedly/Jquery-Preview has been fantastic. However, I'm trying to change the location of the preview result, and having trouble. Right now, the result appears right below the input field...but I'd rather have it in a separate part of the page. Is there a way to do this? I've tried changing the location of the selector and loading divs, but that hasn't helped. It seems to ignore those divs and put it right below the submit button. Below is my code: <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="private" class="new_comment" data-remote="true" id="new_comment" method="post"> <input class="photo_comm" id="comment_comment" name="comment[comment]" placeholder="add a comment or link..." size="30" type="text" /><span type="text" id="counter">1000</span> <input class="btn btn-primary btn-mini" data-disable-with="Submitting..." name="commit" type="submit" value="Post" /> </form> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the loading icon--> <div class="loading"> <img src='http://embedly.github.com/jquery-preview/images/loading-rectangle.gif'> </div> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the selector--> <div class="selector"></div> $('#comment_comment').preview({ key:'60f1dcdf3258476794784148a6eb65e7', // Sign up for a key: http://embed.ly/pricing selector : {type:'rich'}, preview : { submit : function(e, data){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: this.form.attr('action'), type: 'POST', data: data }); }, }, autoplay : 0, maxwidth : 400, display : {display : 'rich'} });

    Read the article

  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

    Read the article

  • Extracting shell script from parameterised Hudson job

    - by Jonik
    I have a parameterised Hudson job, used for some AWS deployment stuff, which in one build step runs certain shell commands. However, that script has become sufficiently complicated that I want to "extract" it from Hudson to a separate script file, so that it can easily be versioned properly. The Hudson job would then simply update from VCS and execute the external script file. My main question is about passing parameters to the script. I have a Hudson parameter named AMI_ID and a few others. The script references those params as if they were environment variables: echo "Using AMI $AMI_ID and type $TYPE" Now, this works fine inside Hudson, but not if Hudson calls an external script. Could I somehow make Hudson set the params as environment variables so that I don't need to change the script? Or is my best option to alter the script to take command line parameters (and possibly assign those to named variables for readability: ami_id=$1; type=$2; ... )? I tried something like this but the script doesn't get correctly replaced values: export AMI_ID=$AMI_ID export TYPE=$TYPE external-script.sh # this tries to use e.g. $AMI_ID Bonus question: when the script is inside Hudson, the "console output" will contain both the executed commands and their output. This is extremely useful for debugging when something goes wrong with a build! For example, here the line starting with "+" is part of the script and the following line its output: + ec2-associate-address -K pk.pem -C cert.pem 77.125.116.139 -i i-aa3487fd ADDRESS 77.125.116.139 i-aa3487fd When calling an external script, Hudson output will only contain the latter line, making debugging harder. I could cat the script file to stdout before running it, but that's not optimal either. In effect, I'd like a kind of DOS-style "echo on" for the script which I'm calling from Hudson - anyone know a trick to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • JavaScript: Double script tags in Google Analytics tracking code

    - by Tom
    This is more a curiosity question than anything else... Google instructs to add the analytics tracking code as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try{ var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-xxxxxx-x"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {} </script> I'm wondering some JS guru here could tell me why they're separating it into two script tags instead of sticking it all inside one. I know that the top part could be put in the header and the bottom part just before body tag to ensure the page loaded before it's tracked, but I'm wondering if there's something more to it. Anyone who'd know that would likely know how to separate the code into two tags anyway. I'm only asking as this is coming from the Goog and is being used by millions of sites... Thanks

    Read the article

  • Wizard style navigation, dismissing a view and showing another one

    - by Robin Jamieson
    I'm making a set of screens similar to a wizard and I'd like to know how to make a view dismiss itself and its parent view and immediately show a 'DoneScreen' without worrying about resource leaks. My views look like the following: Base -> Level1 -> DoneScreen -> Level2 -> DoneScreen The Level1 controller is a navigation controller created with a view.xib and shown with [self presentModalViewController ...] by the Base controller. The Level1 controller is also responsible for creating the 'DoneScreen' which may be shown instead of the Level2 Screen based on a certain criteria. When the user taps a button on the screen, the Level1 controller instantiates the the Level2 controller and it displays it via [self.navigationController pushViewController ..] and Level2 controller's view has a 'Next' button. When the use hits the 'Next' button in the Level2 screen, I need to dismiss the current Level2's view as well as the Level1's view and display the 'DoneScreen', which would have been created and passed in to the Level2 controller from Level1. (partly to reduce code duplication, and partly to separate responsibilities among the controllers) In the Level2 controller, if I show the 'DoneScreen' first and dismiss itself with [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; then the Level1 controller's modal view is still present above the 'Base' but under the Done screen. What's a good way to clear out all of these views except the Base and then show the 'DoneScreen'? Any good suggestions on how to get this done in a simple but elegant manner?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 - How do I use an Interface as the Type for a Strongly Typed View

    - by Rake36
    I'd like to keep my concrete classes separate from my views. Without using strongly typed views, I'm fine. I just use a big parameter list in the controller method signatures and then use my service layer factory methods to create my concrete objects. This is actually just fine with me, but it got me thinking and after a little playing, I realized it was literally impossible for a controller method to accept an interface as a method parameter - because it has no way of instantiating it. Can't create a strongly-typed view using an interface through the IDE either (which makes sense actually). So my question. Is there some way to tell the controller how to instantiate the interface parameter using my service layer factory methods? I'd like to convert from: [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, String TypeCode, String TimeCode, String[] SelectedSchoolSystems, String PositionChoice1, String PositionChoice2, String PositionChoice3, String Reason, String LocationPreference, String AvailableDate, String RecipientsNotSelected, String RecipientsSelected) { //New blank app IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id); to something like [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, IApplication app) { //Don't need to do this anymore //IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id);

    Read the article

  • Apache and multiple tomcats proxy

    - by Sebb77
    I have 1 apache server and two tomcat servers with two different applications. I want to use the apache as a proxy so that the user can access the application from the same url using different paths. e.g.: localhost/app1 --> localhost:8080/app1 localhost/app2 --> localhost:8181/app2 I tried all 3 mod proxy of apache (mod_jk, mod_proxy_http and mod_proxy_ajp) but the first application is working, whilst the second is not accessible. This is the apache configuration I'm using: ProxyPassMatch ^(/.*\.gif)$ ! ProxyPassMatch ^(/.*\.css)$ ! ProxyPassMatch ^(/.*\.png)$ ! ProxyPassMatch ^(/.*\.js)$ ! ProxyPassMatch ^(/.*\.jpeg)$ ! ProxyPassMatch ^(/.*\.jpg)$ ! ProxyRequests Off ProxyPass /app1 ajp://localhost:8009/ ProxyPassReverse /app1 ajp://localhost:8009/ ProxyPass /app2 ajp://localhost:8909/ ProxyPassReverse /app2 ajp://localhost:8909/ With the above, I manage to view the tomcat root application using localhost/app1, but I get "Service Temporarily Unavailable" (apache error) when accessing app2. I need to keep the tomcat servers separate because I need to restart one of the applications often and it is not an option to save both apps on the same tomcat. Can someone point me out what I'm doing wrong? Thank you all.

    Read the article

  • In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

    - by Thorsten S.
    Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

    Read the article

  • How can I pare down Vim's buffer list to only include active buffers

    - by nelstrom
    How can I pare down my buffer list to only include buffers that are currently open in a window/tab? When I've been running Vim for a long time, the list of buffers revealed by the :ls command is too large to work with. Ideally, I would like to delete all of the buffers which are not currently visible in a tab or window by running a custom command such as :Only. Can anybody suggest how to achieve this? It looks like the :bdelete command can accept a list of buffer numbers, but I'm not sure how to translate the output from :ls to a format that can be consumed by the :bdelete command. Any help would be appreciated. Clarification Lets say that in my Vim session I have opened 4 files. The :ls command outputs: :ls 1 a "abc.c" 2 h "123.c" 3 h "xyz.c" 4 a "abc.h" Buffer 1 is in the current tab, and and buffer 4 is in a separate tab, but buffers 2 and 3 are both hidden. I would like to run the command :Only, and it would wipe buffers 2 and 3, so the :ls command would output: :ls 1 a "abc.c" 4 a "abc.h" This example doesn't make the proposed :Only command look very useful, but if you have a list of 40 buffers it would be very welcome.

    Read the article

  • Create a new delegate class for each asynchronous image download?

    - by Charles S.
    First, I'm using an NSURLConnection to download JSON data from twitter. Then, I'm using a second NSURLConnection to download corresponding user avatar images (the urls to the images are parsed from the first data download). For the first data connection, I have my TwitterViewController set as the NSURLConnection delegate. I've created a separate class (ImageDownloadDelegate) to function as the delegate for a second NSURLConnection that handles the images. After the tweets are finished downloading, I'm using this code to get the avatars: for(int j=0; j<[self.tweets count]; j++){ ImageDownloadDelegate *imgDelegate = [[ImageDownloadDelegate alloc] init]; Tweet *myTweet = [self.tweets objectAtIndex:j]; imgDelegate.tweet = myTweet; imgDelegate.table = timeline; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:myTweet.imageURL] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:60]; imgConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:imgDelegate]; [imgDelegate release]; } So basically a new instance of the delegate class is created for each image that needs to be downloaded. Is this the best way to go about this? But then there's no way to figure out which image is associate with which tweet, correct? The algorithm works fine... I'm just wondering if I'm going about it the most efficient way.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically adding controls from an Event after Page_Init

    - by GenericTypeTea
    Might seem like a daft title as you shouldn't add dynamic controls after Page_Init if you want to maintain ViewState, but I couldn't think of a better way of explaining the problem. I have a class similar to the following: public class WebCustomForm : WebControl, IScriptControl { internal CustomRender Content { get { object content = this.Page.Session[this.SESSION_CONTENT_TRACKER]; return content as CustomRender; } private set { this.Page.Session[this.SESSION_CONTENT_TRACKER] = value; } } } CustomRender is an abstract class that implements ITemplate that I use to self-contain a CustomForms module I'm in the middle of writing. On the Page_Init of the page that holds the WebCustomForm, I Initialise the control by passing the relevant Ids to it. Then on the overridden OnInit method of the WebCustomForm I call the Instantiate the CustomRender control that's currently active: if (this.Content != null) { this.Content.InstantiateIn(this); } The problem is that my CustomRender controls need the ability to change the CustomRender control of the WebCustomForm. But when the events that fire on the CustomRender fire, the Page_Init event has obviously already gone off. So, my question is, how can I change the content of the WebCustomForm from a dynamically added control within it? The way I see it, I have two options: I separate the CustomRender controls out into their own stand alone control and basically have an aspx page per control and handle the events myself on the page (although I was hoping to just make a control I drop on the page and forget about) I don't use events and just keep requesting the current page, but with different Request Parameters Or I go back to the drawing board with any better suggetions anyone can give me.

    Read the article

  • checking and replacing a value in an array jquery

    - by liz
    i have a table of data: <table id="disparities" class="datatable"> <thead> <tr> <th scope="col">Events</th> <th scope="col">White</th> <th scope="col">Black</th> <th scope="col">Hispanic</th><th scope="col">Asian/Pacific Islands</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <th scope="row">Hospitalizations</th> <td>0.00</td> <td>20</td> <td>10</td> <td>5</td> </tr> <tr> <th scope="row">ED Visits</th> <td>19</td> <td>90</td> <td>40</td> <td>18</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> i have a function that retrieves the values from the above table into an array like so (0.00,19) var points1 = $('#disparities td:nth-child(2)').map(function() { return $(this).text().match(/\S+/)[0]; }).get(); i want to check if there is a 0.00 value (or it could be just 0) and change that value to NA... so my resulting array is then (NA,19) not really sure how to go about this, whether in the initial match or as a separate action...

    Read the article

  • Scope of "library" methods

    - by JS
    Hello, I'm apparently laboring under a poor understanding of Python scoping. Perhaps you can help. Background: I'm using the 'if name in "main"' construct to perform "self-tests" in my module(s). Each self test makes calls to the various public methods and prints their results for visual checking as I develop the modules. To keep things "purdy" and manageable, I've created a small method to simplify the testing of method calls: def pprint_vars(var_in): print("%s = '%s'" % (var_in, eval(var_in))) Calling pprint_vars with: pprint_vars('some_variable_name') prints: some_variable_name = 'foo' All fine and good. Problem statement: Not happy to just KISS, I had the brain-drizzle to move my handy-dandy 'pprint_vars' method into a separate file named 'debug_tools.py' and simply import 'debug_tools' whenever I wanted access to 'pprint_vars'. Here's where things fall apart. I would expect import debug_tools foo = bar debug_tools.pprint_vars('foo') to continue working its magic and print: foo = 'bar' Instead, it greets me with: NameError: name 'some_var' is not defined Irrational belief: I believed (apparently mistakenly) that import puts imported methods (more or less) "inline" with the code, and thus the variable scoping rules would remain similar to if the method were defined inline. Plea for help: Can someone please correct my (mis)understanding of scoping regards imports? Thanks, JS

    Read the article

  • How to change internal buffer size of DataInputStream

    - by Gaks
    I'm using this kind of code for my TCP/IP connection: sock = new Socket(host, port); sock.setKeepAlive(true); din = new DataInputStream(sock.getInputStream()); dout = new DataOutputStream(sock.getOutputStream()); Then, in separate thread I'm checking din.available() bytes to see if there are some incoming packets to read. The problem is, that if a packet bigger than 2048 bytes arrives, the din.available() returns 2048 anyway. Just like there was a 2048 internal buffer. I can't read those 2048 bytes when I know it's not the full packet my application is waiting for. If I don't read it however - it'll all stuck at 2048 bytes and never receive more. Can I enlarge the buffer size of DataInputStream somehow? Socket receive buffer is 16384 as returned by sock.getReceiveBufferSize() so it's not the socket limiting me to 2048 bytes. If there is no way to increase the DataInputStream buffer size - I guess the only way is to declare my own buffer and read everything from DataInputStream to that buffer? Regards

    Read the article

  • How to have multiple instances of jQuery plugin on single page?

    - by James Skidmore
    I'm writing a simple jQuery plugin, but I'm having trouble being able to use multiple instances on a page. For instance, here is a sample plugin to illustrate my point: (function($) { $.fn.samplePlugin = function(options) { if (typeof foo != 'undefined') { alert('Already defined!'); } else { var foo = 'bar'; } }; })(jQuery); And then if I do this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#myDiv').samplePlugin({}); // does nothing $('#myDiv2').samplePlugion({}); // alerts "Already defined!" }); This is obviously an over-simplified example to get across the point. So my question is, how do I have two separate instances of the plugin? I'd like to be able to use it across multiple instances on the same page. I'm guessing that part of the problem might be with defining the variables in a global scope. How can I define them unique to that instance of the plugin then? Thank you for your guidance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262  | Next Page >