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  • Is it a good idea to use MySQL and Neo4j together?

    - by Sanoj
    I will make an application with a lot of similar items (millions), and I would like to store them in a MySQL database, because I would like to do a lot of statistics and search on specific values for specific columns. But at the same time, I will store relations between all the items, that are related in many connected binary-tree-like structures (transitive closure), and relation databases are not good at that kind of structures, so I would like to store all relations in Neo4j which have good performance for this kind of data. My plan is to have all data except the relations in the MySQL database and all relations with item_id stored in the Neo4j database. When I want to lookup a tree, I first search the Neo4j for all the item_id:s in the tree, then I search the MySQL-database for all the specified items in a query that would look like: SELECT * FROM items WHERE item_id = 45 OR item_id = 345435 OR item_id = 343 OR item_id = 78 OR item_id = 4522 OR item_id = 676 OR item_id = 443 OR item_id = 4255 OR item_id = 4345 Is this a good idea, or am I very wrong? I haven't used graph-databases before. Are there any better approaches to my problem? How would the MySQL-query perform in this case?

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  • Servlet Security question about j_security_check, j_username and j_password

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I used jdbcRealm in my web application and it's working fine. I defined all constraints also in my web.xml. Like all pages of url pattern /Admin/* should be accessed by only admin. I have a login form with uses standard j_security_check, j_username and j_password. Now, when i type Admin/home.jsf it rightly redirects me login.jsf and there when i type the password i am redirected to home.jsf. This works alright but problem comes i directly go to login.jsf and then type password and username. This time it again redirects me to login.jsf. Is there any way through which i can specify which page to go when successful login is there? I need to specify different different pages for different roles. For Admin, it is /Admin/home.jsf for general users it is /General/home.jsf because login form is shared between different type of users. Where do i specify all these things? Secondly, i want to have a remember me checkbox at the end of login form. How do i do this? By default, it is submitted to j_security_check servlet and i have no control over its execution. Please help. This doesn't seem so hard but looks like i am missing something.

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  • Effective books for learning the intricacies of business application development?

    - by OffApps Cory
    I am a self taught "developer". I use the term loosely because I only know enough to make myself dangerous. I have no theory background, and I only pick up things to get this little tool to work or make that control do what I want. That said, I am looking for some reading material that explains some of the theory behind application development especially from a business standpoint. Really I need to understand what all of these terms that float around really talk about. Business Logic Layer, UI abstraction level and all that. Anyone got a reading list that they feel helped them understand this stuff? I know how to code stuff up so that it works. It is not pretty mostly because I don't know the elegant way of doing it, and it is not planned out very well (I also don't know how to plan an application). Any help would be appreciated. I have read a number of books on what I thought was the subject, but they all seem to rehash basic coding and what-not. This doesn't have to be specific to VB.NET or WPF (or Entity Framework) but anything with those items would be quite helpful.

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  • How to store an interger value of 4 bytes in a memory of chunk which is malloced as type char

    - by Adi
    Dear all, Hello Guys!! This is my first post in the forum . I am really looking forward to having good fun in this site. My question is : int mem_size = 10; char *start_ptr; if((start_ptr= malloc(mem_size*1024*1024*sizeof(char)))==NULL) {return -1;} I have allocated a chunk of memory of type char and size is say 10 MB (i.e mem_size = 10 ); Now I want to store the size information in the header of the memory chunk, To make myself more clear Lets Say : start_ptr = 0xaf868004 (This is the value I got from my execution, it changes every time) Now I want to put the size information in the start of this pointer.. i.e *start_ptr = mem_size*1024*1024; But I am not able to put this information in the start_ptr. I think the reason is because my ptr is of type char which only takes one byte but I am trying to store int which takes 4 bytes, is the problem . I am not sure how to fix this problem.. I would greatly appreciate your suggestions. Cheers!! Aditya

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  • form:select items problem in spring mvc portlet

    - by dhaval
    I have a set of drop-down control which I want to render with my custom tag library. The following is the code of the tag lib: <spring:bind path="${path}"> <c:choose> <c:when test="${readOnly}"> <span class="readOnly">${status.value}</span> </c:when> <c:otherwise> <form:select path="${path }" itemLabel="${label }" itemValue="${value }" items="${itemList}"> </form:select> </c:otherwise> </c:choose> And this is the code I have written in the JSP file: <tag:conditionalListControl path="model.selectedCountry" readOnly="false" label="name" value="id" listItems="model.countryList" className="simple" /> Upon execution the paring returns the following error: [jsp:165] javax.servlet.jsp.JspException: Type [java.lang.String] is not valid for option items But if i change the items="${itemList}" to items="${model.countryList}" which is the list I want to display, it works fine without any problem and also bind to required variables on form submit. But i don't want to hard code any variables in the tag lib. Any suggestions???

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  • Which web framework or technologies would suit me?

    - by Suraj Chandran
    Hi, I had been working on desktop apps and server side(non web) for some time and now I am diving in to web first time. I plan to write a scalable enterprise level app. I have worked with Java, Javascript, Jquery etc. but I absolutely hate jsp. So is there any framework that focuses on developing enterprise level web apps without jsp. I liked Wicket's approach, but I think there is a little lack of support of dynamic html in it and jquery(yes i looked at wiquery). Also I feel making wicket apps scalable would take some sweat. Can Spring MVC, Struts2 etc. help me make with this with just using say Java, JavaScript, and JQuery. Or are there any other options for me like Wicket. Please do forgive if anything above looks insane, I am still working on my understanding with enterprise web apps. NOTE: If you think that I should take a different direction or approach, please do suggest!

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  • Mimic Coldfusion's debug output in PHP?

    - by TekiusFanatikus
    I'm trying to mimic Coldfusion's debug output in PHP. Here's an example of what it looks like (ie. Execution Time section): I've turned to XDebug. Ideally, the exception stack error output would be what I'd be looking for. However, it only shows up when an exception occurs. I also tried something like (in our CMS-ish app) this (original question here): $content.= "<?php xdebug_start_trace('e:/xdebug/trace');?>"; $content.= "<?php require('".$page['file_'.LG]."'); ?>"; $content.= "<?php xdebug_stop_trace();?>"; ... $content.= "<?php echo readfile('e:/xdebug/trace.xt');?>"; However, I get an insane, browser crashing HTML table dropped at the bottom of page. Not very efficient. My php.ini config: xdebug.trace_format = 2 xdebug.collect_vars = 1 xdebug.collect_params = 4 xdebug.dump_globals = 1 xdebug.dump.SERVER = 'REQUEST_URI' xdebug.show_local_vars = 1 xdebug.show_mem_delta = 1 I'm just wondering if someone has already done something similar?

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  • php and mysql site design question

    - by Jacksta
    I am trying to build a website with mysql and php. This is the first site I have attempted so I want to write a little plan and get some feedback. The site allows users to add some text in a text field as a “comment”. Once the comment has been entered into the site it is added to the database where it can be voted for by other users. When a new comment has been added to the database it needs to create a new page, e.g. www.xxxxx.com/commentname or www.xxxxxx.com/?id=99981. There will be a list of "Comments" in the database along with the number of votes for each comment. The home page will have two functions. 1) Allow users to add a "comment" 2) Display two tables, each with 20 rows containing most "popular comments" and "recent comments" Each comment will generate its one page where the comment will be displayed. Here users can read the comment and Vote for the comment if they wish. Please help me out by explaining how to do the following. -Generate a new page whenever a comment is added to the database -Add a vote to the vote count in the comment database. -Display the top 20 most popular comments as per number of votes.

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  • What does it mean for an OS to "execute within user processes"? Do any modern OS's use that approach

    - by Chris Cooper
    I have recently become interested in operating system, and a friend of mine lent me a book called Operating Systems: Internals and Design Principles (I have the third edition), published in 1998. It's been a very interesting book so far, but I have come to the part dealing with process control, and it's using UNIX System V as one of its examples of an operating system that executes within user processes. This concept has struck me as a little strange. First of all, does this mean that OS instructions and data are stored in each user of the processes? Probably not, because that would be an absurdly redundant scheme. But if not, then what does it mean to "execute within" a user process? Do any modern operating systems use this approach? It seems much more logical to have the operating system execute as its own process, or even independently of all processes, if you're short on memory. All the inter-accessiblilty of process data required for this layout seems to greatly complicate things. (But maybe that's just because I don't quite get the concept ;D) Here is what the book says: "Execution within User Processes: An alternative that is common with operation systems on smaller machines is to execute virtually all operating system software in the context of a user process. ... "

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • Memory leaks after using typeinfo::name()

    - by icabod
    I have a program in which, partly for informational logging, I output the names of some classes as they are used (specifically I add an entry to a log saying along the lines of Messages::CSomeClass transmitted to 127.0.0.1). I do this with code similar to the following: std::string getMessageName(void) const { return std::string(typeid(*this).name()); } And yes, before anyone points it out, I realise that the output of typeinfo::name is implementation-specific. According to MSDN The type_info::name member function returns a const char* to a null-terminated string representing the human-readable name of the type. The memory pointed to is cached and should never be directly deallocated. However, when I exit my program in the debugger, any "new" use of typeinfo::name() shows up as a memory leak. If I output the information for 2 classes, I get 2 memory leaks, and so on. This hints that the cached data is never being freed. While this is not a major issue, it looks messy, and after a long debugging session it could easily hide genuine memory leaks. I have looked around and found some useful information (one SO answer gives some interesting information about how typeinfo may be implemented), but I'm wondering if this memory should normally be freed by the system, or if there is something i can do to "not notice" the leaks when debugging. I do have a back-up plan, which is to code the getMessageName method myself and not rely on typeinfo::name, but I'd like to know anyway if there's something I've missed.

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  • Create Session Variable from different datasources?

    - by Szafranamn
    Currently I am developing a dynamic website using Dreamweaver cs5 with ColdFusion 9 and using Access to create my databases along with QuickBooks and QODBC to create database. I have established a login session variable stemming from the login page. This session variable is being drawn from one Datasource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" but I wanted to create another session variable either at this point or further into the member's page to use in a query sequence. This session variable would stem from another Datasoucre "QBs" Table "Invoice" Field "CustomerRefFullName" which is generated through Quickbooks and QODBC. I am not sure if this is possible but if it is how do I do it. I want to do this so I can query the Invoice database to upload the customer's Invoices unique to them onto their page. So it would have to be related to their login credentials. If there is another better route to take I would greatly appreciate the advice. Below is the login code if there is additional information needed let me know. This is my current thinking/plan to do what I wish to intend hence the need to create the session variable: I have another Datasource "QBs" with a Table "Invoice" when I create another webpage for the customer to see their invoice I need to create a recordset that accesses that Table. In order to do so I think the best way would some home convert the session.FullName (which came from Access Datasource, Logininfor Table) into a session.CustomerRefFullName (which would have to come from (Datasource: QBs Table: Invoice Field: CustomerRefFullName) that way I could set the query WHERE CustomerRefFullName and have each logged in user see their specific Invoices. So is there a way to turn the session variable off one datasource/table into a different sessionvariable off a new datasource/table even if it is unique just to that page??? <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username= AND Password=

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  • OpenCV. cvFnName() works, but cv::FunName() doesn't work

    - by Innuendo
    I'm using OpenCV to write a plugin for a simulator. I've made an OpenCV project (single - not a plugin) and it works fine. When I added OpenCV libs to the plugin project, I added all libs required. Visual Studio 2010 doesn't highlight any code line with red. All looks fine and compiles fine. But in execution, the program halts with a Runtime Error on any cv::function. For example: cv::imread, or cv::imwrite. But if I replace them with cvLoadImage() and cvSaveImage(), it works fine. Why does this happen? I don't want to rewrite the whole script in old-api-style (cvFnName). It means I should change all Mat objects to IplImages, and so on. UPDATE: // preparing template ifstream ifile(tmplfilename); if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { // loading template file Mat tmpl = cv::imread(tmplfilename, 1); // << here occurs error FILE_LOADED = true; } Mat src; Bmp2Mat(hDC, hBitmap, src); TargetDetector detector(src, tmpl); detector.detectTarget(); If I change to: if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { IplImage* tmpl = 0; tmpl = cvLoadImage(tmplfilename, 1); // no error occurs } And then no error occurs. Early it displayed some Runtime Error. Now, I wanted to copy exact message and it just crashes the application (simulator, what I am pluginning). It displays window error - to kill process or no. (I can't show exact message, because I'm using russian windows now)

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  • Dynamically disable custom (VBA) Excel context menu buttons?

    - by Lopsided
    The Scenario Hi guys, I am about to add a few custom controls to the cell context menu in my Excel workbook using the instructions found on this MSDN page. The only problem I am having is that I need the items to only be enabled for a specific column/range of cells. I've looked around, and I've been unable to find any steps for this--there are some for VSTO development (written in C#), but that is not what I need. I plan to write this using the VBA IDE built into Office, and perhaps a bit of XML using the Custom UI Editor. The Question So basically, I'm looking for a way to run a function at the time the context menu is called (i.e., upon right-click) that validates the selection to make sure it is in the appropriate column. If it isn't, I would like my custom buttons to be greyed out. P.S. Please don't think I am asking you to write my code. Creating these buttons should be very simple, as I have created many before (albeit they were all Ribbon items), and I hope it is okay to ask for some quick assistance on this very specific issue. Thank you in advance!

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  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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  • In mysql, is "explain ..." always safe?

    - by tye
    If I allow a group of users to submit "explain $whatever" to mysql (via Perl's DBI using DBD::mysql), is there anything that a user could put into $whatever that would make any database changes, leak non-trivial information, or even cause significant database load? If so, how? I know that via "explain $whatever" one can figure out what tables / columns exist (you have to guess names, though) and roughly how many records are in a table or how many records have a particular value for an indexed field. I don't expect one to be able to get any information about the contents of unindexed fields. DBD::mysql should not allow multiple statements so I don't expect it to be possible to run any query (just explain one query). Even subqueries should not be executed, just explained. But I'm not a mysql expert and there are surely features of mysql that I'm not even aware of. In trying to come up with a query plan, might the optimizer actual execute an expression in order to come up with the value that an indexed field is going to be compared against? explain select * from atable where class = somefunction(...) where atable.class is indexed and not unique and class='unused' would find no records but class='common' would find a million records. Might 'explain' evaluate somefunction(...)? And then could somefunction(...) be written such that it modifies data?

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  • Function Returning Negative Value

    - by Geowil
    I still have not run it through enough tests however for some reason, using certain non-negative values, this function will sometimes pass back a negative value. I have done a lot of manual testing in calculator with different values but I have yet to have it display this same behavior. I was wondering if someone would take a look at see if I am missing something. float calcPop(int popRand1, int popRand2, int popRand3, float pERand, float pSRand) { return ((((((23000 * popRand1) * popRand2) * pERand) * pSRand) * popRand3) / 8); } The variables are all contain randomly generated values: popRand1: between 1 and 30 popRand2: between 10 and 30 popRand3: between 50 and 100 pSRand: between 1 and 1000 pERand: between 1.0f and 5500.0f which is then multiplied by 0.001f before being passed to the function above Edit: Alright so after following the execution a bit more closely it is not the fault of this function directly. It produces an infinitely positive float which then flips negative when I use this code later on: pPMax = (int)pPStore; pPStore is a float that holds popCalc's return. So the question now is, how do I stop the formula from doing this? Testing even with very high values in Calculator has never displayed this behavior. Is there something in how the compiler processes the order of operations that is causing this or are my values simply just going too high? If the later I could just increase the division to 16 I think.

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  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

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  • Should I pass a SqlDataReader by reference or not when passing it out to multiple threads.

    - by deroby
    Hi all, being new to c# I've run into this 'conundrum' when passing around a SqlDataReader between different threads. Without going into too much detail, the idea is to have a main thread fetching data from the database (a large recordset) and then have a helper-task run through this record by record and doing some stuff based upon the contents of this. There is no feedback to the recordset, it simply wades through until no records are left. This works fine, but given the nature of the job at hand it should be possible to have this job spread over different threads (CPUs) to maximize throughput (the order of execution is of no significance). The question then becomes, when I pass this recordset in a SqlDataReader, do I have to use ref or not ? It kind of boils down to the question : if I pass the object around without specifying ref, won't it create new copies in memory and have records processed n times ? Or, don't I risk having the record-position being moved forward while not all fields have been fully read yet ? The latter seems more like a 'data racing' issue and probably is covered by the lock()ing mechanism (or not?). My initial take on the problem was that it doesn't really hurt passing the variable using ref, yet as a colleague put it : "you only need ref when you're doing something wrong" =) Additionally using ref restricts me from applying a Using() construction too which isn't very nice either. I thus create a "basic" project that tackles the same approach but without the ref notation. Tests so far show that it works flawlessly on a Core2Duo (2cpu) using any number of threads, yet I'm still a bit wary... What do you experts think about this ? Use ref or not ? You can find the test-project here as it seems I can't upload it to this question directly ?!? ps: it's just a test-project and I'm new to c#, so please be gentle on me when breaking down the code =P

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  • IPad SQLite Push and Pull Data from external MS SQL Server DB

    - by MattyD
    This carries on from my previous post (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4182664/ipad-app-pull-and-push-relational-data). My plan is that when the ipad application starts I am going to pull data (config data i.e. Departments, Types etc etc relational data that is used across the system) from a webhosted MS SQL Server DB via a webservice and populate it into an SQL Lite DB on the IPad. Then when I load a listing I will pull the data over the line again via a webservice and populate it into the SQL Lite db on the ipad (than just run select commands to populate the listing). My questions are: 1. What is the most efficient way to transfer data across the line via the web? Everyone seems to do it a different way. My idea is that I will have a webService for each type of data pull (e.g. RetrieveContactListing) that will query the db and than convert that data into "something" to send across the line. My question really is what is the "something" that it should be converting into? 2. Everyone talks about odata services. Is this suited for applications where complex read and writes are needed? Ive created a simple iphone app before that talked to an sql server db (i just sent my own structured xml across the line) but now with this app the data calls are going to be a lot larger so efficiency is key.

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  • Android - Where to store generated bitmaps?

    - by Josh
    I've got an app which dynamically generates anywhere from 6 to 100 small bitmaps for the user to move around the screen in a given session. I currently generate them in onCreate and store them to the sd card, so that after an orientation change I can grab them out of external storage and display them again. However, this takes time (the loading) and I'd like to keep the bitmap references around between lifecyle changes for quicker access. My question is, is there a better place to store my generated bitmaps? I was thinking about creating a static storage library in my base activity, something that would only need to be reloaded when the app is completely removed from memory (shutdown, other apps need resources, 30 minute restart, etc). Ideally, I'd like the user to be able to back out to the title screen, click a "Resume" button, and in onCreate I just have access to those resident bitmap references instead of having to load them from storage again. For this reason I don't think Activity.onRetainNonConfigurationInstance is what I need. Alternatively, is there a better way to handle multiple generated bitmaps than what I'm doing or the plan I described?

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  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

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  • ASP.NET Web Optimization - confusion about loading order

    - by Ciel
    Using the ASP.NET Web Optimization Framework, I am attempting to load some javascript files up. It works fine, except I am running into a peculiar situation with either the loading order, the loading speed, or its execution. I cannot figure out which. Basically, I am using ace code editor for javascript, and I also want to include its autocompletion package. This requires two files. /ace.js /ext-language_tools.js This isn't an issue, if I load both of these files the normal way (with <script> tags) it works fine. But when I try to use the web optimization bundles, it seems as if something goes wrong. Trying this out... bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js") { .Include("~/js/ace.js") .Include("~/js/ext-language_tools.js") }); and then in the view .. @Scripts.Render("~/bundles/js") I get the error ace is not defined This means that the ace.js file hasn't run, or hasn't loaded. Because if I break it apart into two bundles, it starts working. bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js") { .Include("~/js/ace.js") }); bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js/language_tools") { .Include("~/js/ext-language_tools.js") }); Can anyone explain why this would behave in this fashion?

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  • Planning and coping with deadlines in SCRUM

    - by John
    From wikipedia: During each “sprint”, typically a two to four week period (with the length being decided by the team), the team creates a potentially shippable product increment (for example, working and tested software). The set of features that go into a sprint come from the product “backlog,” which is a prioritized set of high level requirements of work to be done. Which backlog items go into the sprint is determined during the sprint planning meeting. During this meeting, the Product Owner informs the team of the items in the product backlog that he or she wants completed. The team then determines how much of this they can commit to complete during the next sprint. During a sprint, no one is allowed to change the sprint backlog, which means that the requirements are frozen for that sprint. After a sprint is completed, the team demonstrates the use of the software. I was reading this and two questions immediately popped into my head: 1)If a sprint is only a couple of weeks, decided in a single meeting, how can you accurately plan what can be achieved? High-level tasks can't be estimated accurately in my experience, and can easily double what seems reasonable. As a developer, I hate being pushed into committing what I can deliver in the next month based on a set of customer requirements, this goes against everything I know about generating reliable estimates rather than having to roughly estimate and then double it! 2)Since the requirements are supposed to be locked and a deliverable product available at the end, what happens when something does take twice as long? What if this feature is only 1/2 done at the end of the sprint? The wiki article goes on to talk about Sprint planning, where things are broken down into much smaller tasks for estimation (<1 day) but this is after the Sprint features are already planned and the release agreed, isn't it? kind of like a salesman promising something without consulting the developers.

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  • CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

    - by Stephen Kellett
    Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

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