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  • small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

    - by wallacoloo
    So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

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  • How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

    - by johnrock
    I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

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  • How to perform Rails model validation checks within model but outside of filters using ledermann-rails-settings and extensions

    - by user1277160
    Background I'm using ledermann-rails-settings (https://github.com/ledermann/rails-settings) on a Rails 2/3 project to extend virtually the model with certain attributes that don't necessarily need to be placed into the DB in a wide table and it's working out swimmingly for our needs. An additional reason I chose this Gem is because of the post How to create a form for the rails-settings plugin which ties ledermann-rails-settings more closely to the model for the purpose of clean form_for usage for administrator GUI support. It's a perfect solution for addressing form_for support although... Something that I'm running into now though is properly validating the dynamic getters/setters before being passed to the ledermann-rails-settings module. At the moment they are saved immediately, regardless if the model validation has actually fired - I can see through script/console that validation errors are being raised. Example For instance I would like to validate that the attribute :foo is within the range of 0..100 for decimal usage (or even a regex). I've found that with the previous post that I can use standard Rails validators (surprise, surprise) but I want to halt on actually saving any values until those are addressed - ensure that the user of the GUI has given 61.43 as a numerical value. The following code has been borrowed from the quoted post. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_settings validates_inclusion_of :foo, :in => 0..100 def self.settings_attr_accessor(*args) >>SOME SORT OF UNLESS MODEL.VALID? CHECK HERE args.each do |method_name| eval " def #{method_name} self.settings.send(:#{method_name}) end def #{method_name}=(value) self.settings.send(:#{method_name}=, value) end " end >>END UNLESS end settings_attr_accessor :foo end Anyone have any thoughts here on pulling the state of the model at this point outside of having to put this into a before filter? The goal here is to be able to use the standard validations and avoid rolling custom validation checks for each new settings_attr_accessor that is added. Thanks!

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  • Incorrect syntax inserting data into table

    - by SelectDistinct
    I am having some trouble with my update() method. The idea is that the user Provides a recipe name, ingredients, instructions and then selects an image using Filestream. Once the user clicks 'Add Recipe' this will call the update method, however as things stand I am getting an error which is mentioning the contents of the text box: Here is the update() method code: private void updatedata() { // filesteam object to read the image // full length of image to a byte array try { // try to see if the image has a valid path if (imagename != "") { FileStream fs; fs = new FileStream(@imagename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); // a byte array to read the image byte[] picbyte = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(picbyte, 0, System.Convert.ToInt32(fs.Length)); fs.Close(); //open the database using odp.net and insert the lines string connstr = @"Server=mypcname\SQLEXPRESS;Database=RecipeOrganiser;Trusted_Connection=True"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); string query; query = "insert into Recipes(RecipeName,RecipeImage,RecipeIngredients,RecipeInstructions) values (" + textBox1.Text + "," + " @pic" + "," + textBox2.Text + "," + textBox3.Text + ")"; SqlParameter picparameter = new SqlParameter(); picparameter.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Image; picparameter.ParameterName = "pic"; picparameter.Value = picbyte; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn); cmd.Parameters.Add(picparameter); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("Image successfully saved"); cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); Connection(); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } Can anyone see where I have gone wrong with the insert into Recipes query or suggest an alternative approach to this part of the code?

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  • jQuery Form Validation being bypassed

    - by user1953681
    Can someone tell me what is wrong with my jQuery validation? It is not validating my form, rather, just ignoring the code resulting in no check of the inputs. Form: <form class="form" accept-charset="UTF-8" action="URL-to-complete-form" method="POST" onsubmit="return validateForm();"> <input class="form-name" type="text" placeholder="Name"></div> <input class="form-email" type="text"placeholder="Email"></div> <input style="background-color: #fc8f12;" type="submit" value="Subscribe"> </div> </form> Javascript: function validateForm() { // Validate Name var title = $(".form-name").val(); if (title=="" ||title=="Name" || title==null) { } else { alert("Please enter a name!"); } // Validate Email var email = $(".form-email").val(); if ((/(.+)@(.+){2,}\.(.+){2,}/.test(email)) || email=="" || email=="Email" || email==null) { } else { alert("Please enter a valid email"); } return false; } Thank you all for your time and help.

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  • Is the following C code safe?

    - by lali
    #include<cstdio> #include<stdlib.h> int main() { char* ptr=NULL; printf("%s",ptr); return 0; } It prints (null) as output. The above is a sample code. In real code i get char* as a return of a function and i wish to print the character string for logging. However, NULL is also a valid return value of that function and so i am wondering if a null check is required before printing the character string? char* ptr=someFuncion(); // do i need the following if statement? if(ptr!=NULL) { printf("%s",ptr); } I just want to be sure that the output would be same i.e if ptr=NULL then output should be (null) on all platforms and compilers and the above code(without if statement) would not crash on any C standard compatible platform. In short, is the above code(without the if statement) standard compatible? Thanks for your help and patience :) Regards lali

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  • Is there a practical benefit to casting a NULL pointer to an object and calling one of its member fu

    - by zdawg
    Ok, so I know that technically this is undefined behavior, but nonetheless, I've seen this more than once in production code. And please correct me if I'm wrong, but I've also heard that some people use this "feature" as a somewhat legitimate substitute of a lacking aspect of the current C++ standard, namely, the inability to obtain the address (well, offset really) of a member function. For example, this is out of a popular implementation of a PCRE (Perl-compatible Regular Expression) library: #ifndef offsetof #define offsetof(p_type,field) ((size_t)&(((p_type *)0)->field)) #endif One can debate whether the exploitation of such a language subtlety in a case like this is valid or not, or even necessary, but I've also seen it used like this: struct Result { void stat() { if(this) // do something... else // do something else... } }; // ...somewhere else in the code... ((Result*)0)->stat(); This works just fine! It avoids a null pointer dereference by testing for the existence of this, and it does not try to access class members in the else block. So long as these guards are in place, it's legitimate code, right? So the question remains: Is there a practical use case, where one would benefit from using such a construct? I'm especially concerned about the second case, since the first case is more of a workaround for a language limitation. Or is it? PS. Sorry about the C-style casts, unfortunately people still prefer to type less if they can.

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  • Javascript callback with AJAX + jQuery

    - by Fred
    Hey! I have this jQuery code (function () { function load_page (pagename) { $.ajax({ url: "/backend/index.php/frontend/pull_page/", type: "POST", data: {page: pagename}, success: function (json) { var parsed = $.parseJSON(json); console.log(parsed); return parsed; }, error: function (error) { $('#content').html('Sorry, there was an error: <br>' + error); return false; } }); } ... var json = load_page(page); console.log(json); if (json == false) { $('body').fadeIn(); } else { document.title = json.pagename + ' | The Other Half | freddum.com'; $("#content").html(json.content); $('#header-navigation-ul a:Contains('+page+')').addClass('nav-selected'); $('body').fadeIn(); } })(); and, guessed it, it doesn't work. The AJAX fires fine, the server returns valid JSON but the console.log(json); returns undefined and the js crashes when it gets to json.pagename. The first console.log(parsed) also returns good data so it's just a problem with the return (I think). I knew I was clutching at straws and would be extremely if this worked, but it doesn't. To be honest, I don't know how to program callback functions for this situation. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • JTA or LOCAL transactions in JPA2+Hibernate 3.6.0?

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of re-thinking our tech stack and below are our choices (We can't live without Spring and Hibernate due to the complexity etc of the app). We are also moving from J2EE 1.4 to JEE 5. Tech stack JEE 5 JPA 2.0 (I know JEE 5 only supports JPA 1.0 but we want to use Hibernate as the JPA provider) Hibernate 3.6.0 (We already have lots of hbm files with custom types etc. so we doesn't want to migrate them at this time to JPA. This means we want both jpa/hbm mappings work together and hence the Hibernate as the JPA provider instead of using the default that comes with App Server) Now the problems is that I want to stick with local transactions but other team members want to use JTA. I have been working with J2EE for last 9 years and I've heard time and again people suggesting to stick with local transactions if I doesn't need two phase commits. This is not only for performance reasons but debugging/troubleshooting a local transaction is lot easier than a distributed transaction. My suggestion is to use spring declarative transaction management + local transactions (HibernateTransactionManager) I want to make sure if I am being paranoid or I have a valid point. I'd like to hear what the rest of the JEE world thinks. Thank you.

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  • Prevent two users from editing the same data

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

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  • Calculating a total cost in Python

    - by Sérgio Lourenço
    I'm trying to create a trip planner in python, but after I defined all the functions I'm not able to call and calculate them in the last function tripCost(). In tripCost, I want to put the days and travel destination (city) and the program runs the functions and gives me the exact result of all the 3 functions previously defined. Code: def hotelCost(): days = raw_input ("How many nights will you stay at the hotel?") total = 140 * int(days) print "The total cost is",total,"dollars" def planeRideCost(): city = raw_input ("Wich city will you travel to\n") if city == 'Charlotte': return "The cost is 183$" elif city == 'Tampa': return "The cost is 220$" elif city == 'Pittsburgh': return "The cost is 222$" elif city == 'Los Angeles': return "The cost is 475$" else: return "That's not a valid destination" def rentalCarCost(): rental_days = raw_input ("How many days will you rent the car\n") discount_3 = 40 * int(rental_days) * 0.2 discount_7 = 40 * int(rental_days) * 0.5 total_rent3 = 40 * int(rental_days) - discount_3 total_rent7 = 40 * int(rental_days) - discount_7 cost_day = 40 * int(rental_days) if int(rental_days) >= 3: print "The total cost is", total_rent3, "dollars" elif int(rental_days) >= 7: print "The total cost is", total_rent7, "dollars" else: print "The total cost is", cost_day, "dollars" def tripCost(): travel_city = raw_input ("What's our destination\n") days_travel = raw_input ("\nHow many days will you stay\n") total_trip_cost = hotelCost(int(day_travel)) + planeRideCost (str(travel_city)) + rentalCost (int(days_travel)) return "The total cost with the trip is", total_trip_cost tripCost()

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  • Anchor tags are blank

    - by ryanday
    I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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  • Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

    - by Casey Marshall
    Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

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  • Converting Generic Type into reference type after checking its type using GetType(). How ?

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    i am trying to call a function that is defined in a class RFIDeas_Wrapper(dll being used). But when i checked for type of reader and after that i used it to call function it shows me error Cannot convert type T to RFIDeas_Wrapper. EDIT private List<string> GetTagCollection<T>(T Reader) { TagCollection = new List<string>(); if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(RFIDeas_Wrapper)) { ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); // here Reader is of type RFIDeas_Wrapper //, but i m not able to convert Reader into its datatype. string Tag_Id = ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).TagID(); //Adds Valid Tag Ids into the collection if(Tag_Id!="0") TagCollection.Add(Tag_Id); } else if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(AlienReader)) TagCollection = ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; return TagCollection; } ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); , ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; I want this line to be executed without any issue. As Reader will always be of the type i m specifying. How to make compiler understand the same thing.

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  • IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

    - by Bears will eat you
    This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

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  • Implementing a scrabble trainer

    - by bstullkid
    Hello, I've recently been playing alot of online scrabble so I decided to make a program that quickly searches through a dictionary of 200,000+ words with an input of up to any 26 letters. My first attempt was fail as it took a while when you input 8 or more letters (just a basic look through dictionary and cancel out a letter if its found kind of thing), so I made a tree like structure containing only an array of 26 of the same structure and a flag to indicate the end of a word, doing that It can output all possible words in under a second even with an input of 26 characters. But it seems that when I input 12 or more letters with some of the same characters repeated i get duplicates; can anyone see why I would be getting duplicates with this code? (ill post my program at the bottom) Also, the next step once the duplicates are weeded out is to actually be able to input the letters on the game board and then have it calculate the best word you can make on a given board. I am having trouble trying to figure out a good algorithm that can analyze a scrabble board and an input of letters and output a result; the possible words that could be made I have no problem with but actually checking a board efficiently (ie can this word fit here, or here etc... without creating a non dictionary word in the process on some other string of letters) Anyone have a idea for an approach at that? (given a scrabble board, and an input of 7 letters, find all possible valid words or word sets that you can make) lol crap i forgot to email myself the code from my other computer thats in another state... ill post it on monday when I get back there! btw the dictionary im using is sowpods (http://www.calvin.edu/~rpruim/scrabble/ospd3.txt)

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  • How use unobtrusive validation without a model

    - by Ross Cyrus
    i have simple a form wich made by htmlHelper(mvc3) then inside of it i have 2 input field 1:type=text 2:type=submit to submit the form. there is no model behind.so i need to perfom a clientside validation on the textfield before submit it to the server.but i dont know how. i tried this puting manualy the 'data-* artibute , but does not work : @using( Html.BeginForm()) { <label for="UserName" >User Name</label> <div class="editor-field"> <input type="text" data-val="true" data-val-requierd="You must provide an user Name" id="userName" name="userName" placeholder="Enter Your User Name" /> </div> <input type="submit" value="Recover" /> } the "jquery.validate.min.js" and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js and jquery.validate.min.js and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js are loaded to the page. It doesnt let me to answer my self ,so i put it here : I solve it my self,just made an other view wich has its own model and Required on its propertyis and then just copy the renderd html to my own,and i got this and works : <input data-val="true" data-val-required="You must provide an user Name" id="UserName" name="UserName" type="text" value="" placeholder="Enter your User Name"/> <span class="field-validation-valid" data-valmsg-for="UserName" data-valmsg-replace="true"></span> And there is no type="Required".any way thank you guys.

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  • Question on overview of C# OOP in business WinForms application - scope of Object

    - by TimR
    I may have all this OO completely wrong, but here goes: Ok the scenario is a classic order entry. Customer places an Order which has OrderLineItems of StockItems. Order is entered by Employee. 1) Application starts and asks for login/password 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... 4) Employee selects Customer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu Now with Object scope: 1) Application starts and asks for login/password Is this the best place to make objEmployee, to be kept whilst in this whole Sales application? 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... *Make objOrderHeader, is objEmployee able to be passed in or is it created here, or re-created here.* 4) Employee selects Customer - adds/edits Customer details if required... Make objCustomer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed, Order Entered By = EmployeeID] Once posted to Db, all objects now redundant/garbage [except objEmployee?] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu is objEmployee still valid as an object?

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  • What's the difference between these LINQ queries ?

    - by SnAzBaZ
    I use LINQ-SQL as my DAL, I then have a project called DB which acts as my BLL. Various applications then access the BLL to read / write data from the SQL Database. I have these methods in my BLL for one particular table: public IEnumerable<SystemSalesTaxList> Get_SystemSalesTaxList() { return from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists select s; } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.SalesTaxID == strSalesTaxID).FirstOrDefault(); } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.ZipCode == strZipCode).FirstOrDefault(); } All pretty straight forward I thought. Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode is always returning a null value though, even when it has a ZIP Code that exists in that table. If I write the method like this, it returns the row I want: public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { var salesTax = from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists where s.ZipCode == strZipCode select s; return salesTax.FirstOrDefault(); } Why does the other method not return the same, as the query should be identical ? Note that, the overloaded Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) returns a record just fine when I give it a valid SalesTaxID. Is there a more efficient way to write these "helper" type classes ? Thanks!

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  • Web Shop Schema - Document Db

    - by Maxem
    I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

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  • Dealing with expired authentication for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

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  • Delphi Pascal / Windows API - Small problem with SetFilePointerEx and parameter FILE_END

    - by SuicideClutchX2
    I know I am about to be slapped by at least one person who was helping me with this API. Alright I have been able to use SetFilePointerEx just fine, when setting the position only. SetFilePointerEx(PD,512,@PositionVar,FILE_BEGIN); SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,@PositionVar,FILE_CURRENT); Both work, I can set positions and even check my current one. But when I set FILE_END as per the documentation no matter what the second parameter is and whether or not i provide a pointer for the third parameter it fails even on a valid handle that many other operations are able to use without fail. For Example: SetFailed := SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,@PositionVar,FILE_END); SetFailed := SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,nil,FILE_END); Whatever I put it fails. I am working with a handle to a physical disk and it most definitely has an end. SetFilePointer works just fine its just a little more trouble than I would like. Its not the end of the world, but whats happening.

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  • Apache is looking for htaccess and htpasswd files that aren't there

    - by user1094092
    Having an issue where Apache is requesting authentication, and looking for an .htpasswd file, based on instructions from an .htaccess file that's no longer in DocumentRoot. Background: In my DocumentRoot, I'd previously copied an .htaccess and .htpasswd file from another machine (along with all of the other website files). .htaccess contents: AuthType Basic AuthName "Password is required" AuthUserFile /some/directory/that/was/on/the/other/server/not/this/one/.htpasswd Require valid-user Here's the catch: I moved .htaccess and .htpasswd out of DocumentRoot and even renamed the files. There is no longer an .htaccess file in DocumentRoot at all. But, when I try to access localhost from a browser, I am prompted to enter the login and password. When I enter the login and password (from the old, not-in-DocumentRoot .hpasswd file), I get a 500 Internal Server error and the log shows: [error] [client 127.0.0.1] (2)No such file or directory: Could not open password file: /some/directory/that/was/on/the/other/server/not/this/one/.htpasswd This has been quite a puzzle, because there's no longer a .htaccess or .htpasswd file anywhere in DocumentRoot !! Have tried several apache restarts and also tried using a blank .htaccess file in the DocumentRoot. Even grepped the entire machine for references to AuthType Basic to see if I missed anything. httpd.conf looks normal enough...I can post that if needed, but this question seems long enough as it is :) Thanks for any assistance you can provide

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  • How can I sign a Windows Mobile application for internal use?

    - by AR
    I'm developing a Windows Mobile application for internal company use, using the Windows Mobile 6 Professional SDK. Same old story: I've developed and tested on the emulator and all is well, but as soon as I deploy to advice I get an UnauthorizedAccessException when writing files or creating directories. I'm aware that an application installed to a device needs to be signed but I'm running into roadblocks at every turn: Using the project properties 'Devices' window I select 'Sign the project output with this certificate, and choose one of the sample certificates from the SDK. This results in a build error: "The signer's certificate is not valid for signing" when running SignTool. If I try to run SignTool.exe from the commandline, I get an error telling me to run SignTool.exe from a location in the system's PATH. I can't use the 'Signing' tab in the Project Properties to create a test certificate - this is greyed out (presumably for WinMobile projects?). If at all possible, I would like to avoid having to go through Versign or the like to get a Mobile2Market certificate. If I have to go this route for a final version that's fine, but I need to at least be able to test the app on real devices. Any advice would be most welcome!

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  • Pecking order of pigeons?

    - by sc_ray
    I was going though problems on graph theory posted by Prof. Ericksson from my alma-mater and came across this rather unique question about pigeons and their innate tendency to form pecking orders. The question goes as follows: Whenever groups of pigeons gather, they instinctively establish a pecking order. For any pair of pigeons, one pigeon always pecks the other, driving it away from food or potential mates. The same pair of pigeons always chooses the same pecking order, even after years of separation, no matter what other pigeons are around. Surprisingly, the overall pecking order can contain cycles—for example, pigeon A pecks pigeon B, which pecks pigeon C, which pecks pigeon A. Prove that any finite set of pigeons can be arranged in a row from left to right so that every pigeon pecks the pigeon immediately to its left. Since this is a question on Graph theory, the first things that crossed my mind that is this just asking for a topological sort of a graphs of relationships(relationships being the pecking order). What made this a little more complex was the fact that there can be cyclic relationships between the pigeons. If we have a cyclic dependency as follows: A-B-C-A where A pecks on B,B pecks on C and C goes back and pecks on A If we represent it in the way suggested by the problem, we have something as follows: C B A But the above given row ordering does not factor in the pecking order between C and A. I had another idea of solving it by mathematical induction where the base case is for two pigeons arranged according to their pecking order, assuming the pecking order arrangement is valid for n pigeons and then proving it to be true for n+1 pigeons. I am not sure if I am going down the wrong track here. Some insights into how I should be analyzing this problem will be helpful. Thanks

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