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  • Modify MySQL INSERT statement to omit the insertion of certain rows

    - by dave
    I'm trying to expand a little on a statement that I received help with last week. As you can see, I'm setting up a temporary table and inserting rows of student data from a recently administered test for a few dozen schools. When the rows are inserted, they are sorted by the score (totpct_stu, high to low) and the row_number is added, with 1 representing the highest score, etc. I've learned that there were some problems at school #9999 in SMITH's class (every student made a perfect score and they were the only students in the district to do so). So, I do not want to import SMITH's class. As you can see, I DELETED SMITH's class, but this messed up the row numbering for the remainder of student at the school (e.g., high score row_number is now 20, not 1). How can I modify the INSERT statement so as to not insert this class? Thanks! DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS avgpct ; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE avgpct_1 ( sch_code VARCHAR(3), schabbrev VARCHAR(75), teachername VARCHAR(75), totpct_stu DECIMAL(5,1), row_number SMALLINT, dummy VARCHAR(75) ); -- ---------------------------------------- INSERT INTO avgpct SELECT sch_code , schabbrev , teachername , totpct_stu , @num := IF( @GROUP = schabbrev, @num + 1, 1 ) AS row_number , @GROUP := schabbrev AS dummy FROM sci_rpt WHERE grade = '05' AND totpct_stu >= 1 -- has a valid score ORDER BY sch_code, totpct_stu DESC ; -- --------------------------------------- -- select * from avgpct ; -- --------------------------------------- DELETE FROM avgpct_1 WHERE sch_code = '9999' AND teachername = 'SMITH' ;

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  • Incorrect syntax inserting data into table

    - by SelectDistinct
    I am having some trouble with my update() method. The idea is that the user Provides a recipe name, ingredients, instructions and then selects an image using Filestream. Once the user clicks 'Add Recipe' this will call the update method, however as things stand I am getting an error which is mentioning the contents of the text box: Here is the update() method code: private void updatedata() { // filesteam object to read the image // full length of image to a byte array try { // try to see if the image has a valid path if (imagename != "") { FileStream fs; fs = new FileStream(@imagename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); // a byte array to read the image byte[] picbyte = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(picbyte, 0, System.Convert.ToInt32(fs.Length)); fs.Close(); //open the database using odp.net and insert the lines string connstr = @"Server=mypcname\SQLEXPRESS;Database=RecipeOrganiser;Trusted_Connection=True"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); string query; query = "insert into Recipes(RecipeName,RecipeImage,RecipeIngredients,RecipeInstructions) values (" + textBox1.Text + "," + " @pic" + "," + textBox2.Text + "," + textBox3.Text + ")"; SqlParameter picparameter = new SqlParameter(); picparameter.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Image; picparameter.ParameterName = "pic"; picparameter.Value = picbyte; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn); cmd.Parameters.Add(picparameter); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("Image successfully saved"); cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); Connection(); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } Can anyone see where I have gone wrong with the insert into Recipes query or suggest an alternative approach to this part of the code?

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  • Is the following C code safe?

    - by lali
    #include<cstdio> #include<stdlib.h> int main() { char* ptr=NULL; printf("%s",ptr); return 0; } It prints (null) as output. The above is a sample code. In real code i get char* as a return of a function and i wish to print the character string for logging. However, NULL is also a valid return value of that function and so i am wondering if a null check is required before printing the character string? char* ptr=someFuncion(); // do i need the following if statement? if(ptr!=NULL) { printf("%s",ptr); } I just want to be sure that the output would be same i.e if ptr=NULL then output should be (null) on all platforms and compilers and the above code(without if statement) would not crash on any C standard compatible platform. In short, is the above code(without the if statement) standard compatible? Thanks for your help and patience :) Regards lali

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  • Could I do this blind relative to absolute path conversion (for perforce depot paths) better?

    - by wonderfulthunk
    I need to "blindly" (i.e. without access to the filesystem, in this case the source control server) convert some relative paths to absolute paths. So I'm playing with dotdots and indices. For those that are curious I have a log file produced by someone else's tool that sometimes outputs relative paths, and for performance reasons I don't want to access the source control server where the paths are located to check if they're valid and more easily convert them to their absolute path equivalents. I've gone through a number of (probably foolish) iterations trying to get it to work - mostly a few variations of iterating over the array of folders and trying delete_at(index) and delete_at(index-1) but my index kept incrementing while I was deleting elements of the array out from under myself, which didn't work for cases with multiple dotdots. Any tips on improving it in general or specifically the lack of non-consecutive dotdot support would be welcome. Currently this is working with my limited examples, but I think it could be improved. It can't handle non-consecutive '..' directories, and I am probably doing a lot of wasteful (and error-prone) things that I probably don't need to do because I'm a bit of a hack. I've found a lot of examples of converting other types of relative paths using other languages, but none of them seemed to fit my situation. These are my example paths that I need to convert, from: //depot/foo/../bar/single.c //depot/foo/docs/../../other/double.c //depot/foo/usr/bin/../../../else/more/triple.c to: //depot/bar/single.c //depot/other/double.c //depot/else/more/triple.c And my script: begin paths = File.open(ARGV[0]).readlines puts(paths) new_paths = Array.new paths.each { |path| folders = path.split('/') if ( folders.include?('..') ) num_dotdots = 0 first_dotdot = folders.index('..') last_dotdot = folders.rindex('..') folders.each { |item| if ( item == '..' ) num_dotdots += 1 end } if ( first_dotdot and ( num_dotdots > 0 ) ) # this might be redundant? folders.slice!(first_dotdot - num_dotdots..last_dotdot) # dependent on consecutive dotdots only end end folders.map! { |elem| if ( elem !~ /\n/ ) elem = elem + '/' else elem = elem end } new_paths << folders.to_s } puts(new_paths) end

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  • Visual Studio Linked Files Directory Structure

    - by jeffn825
    I have two versions of a project. One for Silverlight and one for .NET. The SL project has the vast majority of the code base in it. I want to globally add all files from the SL project into the .NET version as linked files. I've managed to do so successfully like this in the csproj file for the .NET version: <Compile Include="..\MyProj.Common.SL\**\*.cs" Exclude="..\MyProj.Common\Properties\**"> Unfortunately, this adds all the files right to the root of my project... so I end up with a long unreadable list of linked files in the .NET project. I really really really don't want to have to maintain an entire duplicate directory structure by hand and deal with directory name changes and file name changes and whatnot. So, is there any way to have Visual Studio preserve the directory structure when adding linked files in the wildcard manner above? Or is there at least a way of making it group all the linked files together under a directory in the .NET project like MyProj.Common.SL.Links? The very closest I've come is to set the <Visible>false</Visible> under the <Compile> tag, which effectively removes the long unreadable list of 300+ files....but unfortunately this screws up Resharper, which no longer sees those files as valid and it goes crazy on all the projects that reference the .NET project. If I could figure out a way of making Resharper not get all messed up, that would be an acceptable solution too... Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • jQuery Form Validation being bypassed

    - by user1953681
    Can someone tell me what is wrong with my jQuery validation? It is not validating my form, rather, just ignoring the code resulting in no check of the inputs. Form: <form class="form" accept-charset="UTF-8" action="URL-to-complete-form" method="POST" onsubmit="return validateForm();"> <input class="form-name" type="text" placeholder="Name"></div> <input class="form-email" type="text"placeholder="Email"></div> <input style="background-color: #fc8f12;" type="submit" value="Subscribe"> </div> </form> Javascript: function validateForm() { // Validate Name var title = $(".form-name").val(); if (title=="" ||title=="Name" || title==null) { } else { alert("Please enter a name!"); } // Validate Email var email = $(".form-email").val(); if ((/(.+)@(.+){2,}\.(.+){2,}/.test(email)) || email=="" || email=="Email" || email==null) { } else { alert("Please enter a valid email"); } return false; } Thank you all for your time and help.

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  • ASP.NET/C#: How to use a Subclassed Control on a Page?

    - by Bob Kaufman
    I've subclassed DropDownList to add functionality specific to my application: public class MyDropDownList : DropDownList { ... } ... then referenced it in Web.Config, which is where I figure things start to go wrong: <pages theme="Main"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="bob" tagName="MyDropDownList" src="~/Components/MyDropDownList.cs" /> </controls> </pages> my reference to it does not work: <tr><td>Category</td> <td><bob:MyDropDownList runat="server" ID="Category"... /> and my best clue is the complier error message: "The file 'src' is not a valid [sic] here because it doesn't expose a type." I figure I'm misapplying knowledge of how to create a Web User Control here. What I want to be able to do is refer to this control on an ASP.NET page just like I would the parent DropDownList. Refactoring back into a Web User Control that contains a DropDownList is not desirable, because I want to apply a RequiredFieldValidator to it.

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  • php XML DOM translates special chars to &#xYY;

    - by ZiTAL
    I send this with AJAX POST: <li><ul class "zone zCentral ui-sortable"><li><ul class="region rCol3 ui-sortable"><li class="" style=""><div><span class="tc tc_video">574081</span> <span>video: 'Mundo.Hoy': ¿Dónde habré olvidado... mi memoria?</span></div></li></ul></li></ul></li> I do this to create XML: header('Content-type: text/html; charset=utf-8'); if(isset($_POST) && isset($_POST['data'])) { $data = '<ul id="zone_container" class="ui-sortable">'; $data .= $_POST['data']; $data .= '</ul>'; $dom = new DOMDocument('1.0', 'utf-8'); $dom->loadXML($data); echo $dom->saveXML(); exit(); } and i get this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <ul id="zone_container" class="ui-sortable"> <li><ul class="zone zCentral ui-sortable"><li><ul class="region rCol3 ui-sortable"><li class="" style=""><div><span class="tc tc_video">574081</span> <span>video: 'Mundo.Hoy': &#xBF;D&#xF3;nde habr&#xE9; olvidado... mi memoria?</span></div> </li></ul></li></ul></li></ul> ¿Dónde habré olvidado... mi memoria? translates to: &#xBF;D&#xF3;nde habr&#xE9 ; olvidado... mi memoria? Y need original chars in the XML, these are utf-8 valid i don't know the reason for this encode :(

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  • converting a timestring to a duration

    - by radman
    Hi, At the moment I am trying to read in a timestring formatted and create a duration from that. I am currently trying to use the boost date_time time_duration class to read and store the value. boost date_time provides a method time_duration duration_from_string(std::string) that allows a time_duration to be created from a time string and it accepts strings formatted appropriately ("[-]h[h][:mm][:ss][.fff]".). Now this method works fine if you use a correctly formatted time string. However if you submit something invalid like "ham_sandwich" or "100" then you will still be returned a time_duration that is not valid. Specifically if you try to pass it to a standard output stream then an assertion will occur. My question is: Does anyone know how to test the validity of the boost time_duration? and failing that can you suggest another method of reading a timestring and getting a duration from it? Note: I have tried the obvious testing methods that time_duration provides; is_not_a_date_time(), is_special() etc and they don't pick up that there is an issue. Using boost 1.38.0

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  • How to solve the problem of not being informed of successful payments by the 3rd party system used b

    - by user68759
    I have a subscription based website that interacts with a 3rd party system to handle the payments. The steps to process a new subscriber registration are as follow: The subscriber enters his/her details in the subscription form and click on the submit button. Assuming the details specified are valid, a new record is created in the database to store these details. The subscriber is then redirected to the website of the 3rd party system (similar to paypal) to process the payment. Once the payment is succesful, the 3rd party website then redirect the subscriber back to our website. At this time, I know that the payment was succesful, so the record in the database is updated to indicate that payment has been made successfully. A problem that I have found occurring quite often is that if a subscriber pays but does not complete the process correctly (e.g. uses the back browser, closes the window), his/her record in the database doesn't get updated about this. Accordingly, I don't know if s/he has paid by just looking the record and need to wait for the report from the 3rd party system to find this out. How do you solve this problem? PS. One of the main reasons to store their details into the database before the payment process is done is so they can come back to complete the payment without re-entering their details again. For example, when their credit cards were rejected by the 3rd party system and they need to sort this out with their financial institution which may take a while.

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  • Question on overview of C# OOP in business WinForms application - scope of Object

    - by TimR
    I may have all this OO completely wrong, but here goes: Ok the scenario is a classic order entry. Customer places an Order which has OrderLineItems of StockItems. Order is entered by Employee. 1) Application starts and asks for login/password 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... 4) Employee selects Customer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu Now with Object scope: 1) Application starts and asks for login/password Is this the best place to make objEmployee, to be kept whilst in this whole Sales application? 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... *Make objOrderHeader, is objEmployee able to be passed in or is it created here, or re-created here.* 4) Employee selects Customer - adds/edits Customer details if required... Make objCustomer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed, Order Entered By = EmployeeID] Once posted to Db, all objects now redundant/garbage [except objEmployee?] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu is objEmployee still valid as an object?

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  • How can I sign a Windows Mobile application for internal use?

    - by AR
    I'm developing a Windows Mobile application for internal company use, using the Windows Mobile 6 Professional SDK. Same old story: I've developed and tested on the emulator and all is well, but as soon as I deploy to advice I get an UnauthorizedAccessException when writing files or creating directories. I'm aware that an application installed to a device needs to be signed but I'm running into roadblocks at every turn: Using the project properties 'Devices' window I select 'Sign the project output with this certificate, and choose one of the sample certificates from the SDK. This results in a build error: "The signer's certificate is not valid for signing" when running SignTool. If I try to run SignTool.exe from the commandline, I get an error telling me to run SignTool.exe from a location in the system's PATH. I can't use the 'Signing' tab in the Project Properties to create a test certificate - this is greyed out (presumably for WinMobile projects?). If at all possible, I would like to avoid having to go through Versign or the like to get a Mobile2Market certificate. If I have to go this route for a final version that's fine, but I need to at least be able to test the app on real devices. Any advice would be most welcome!

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  • How use unobtrusive validation without a model

    - by Ross Cyrus
    i have simple a form wich made by htmlHelper(mvc3) then inside of it i have 2 input field 1:type=text 2:type=submit to submit the form. there is no model behind.so i need to perfom a clientside validation on the textfield before submit it to the server.but i dont know how. i tried this puting manualy the 'data-* artibute , but does not work : @using( Html.BeginForm()) { <label for="UserName" >User Name</label> <div class="editor-field"> <input type="text" data-val="true" data-val-requierd="You must provide an user Name" id="userName" name="userName" placeholder="Enter Your User Name" /> </div> <input type="submit" value="Recover" /> } the "jquery.validate.min.js" and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js and jquery.validate.min.js and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js are loaded to the page. It doesnt let me to answer my self ,so i put it here : I solve it my self,just made an other view wich has its own model and Required on its propertyis and then just copy the renderd html to my own,and i got this and works : <input data-val="true" data-val-required="You must provide an user Name" id="UserName" name="UserName" type="text" value="" placeholder="Enter your User Name"/> <span class="field-validation-valid" data-valmsg-for="UserName" data-valmsg-replace="true"></span> And there is no type="Required".any way thank you guys.

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  • formatting an array of mobile numbers

    - by Kyle Hudson
    Hi, I am creating a SMS app the following code is supposed to: check if the mobile/cell number is 11 characters long. check if the number starts with 07. If neither of these conditions are met, it should remove the number from the array. So the following numbers would be valid: 07123456789,07123456790,07123456791,07123456792,07123456793,07123456794 However the following wouldn't (and need to be removed): 0801458,07855488,6695522214124514 $param["number"] = "07123456789,07123456790,07123456791,07123456792,07123456793,07123456794,0801458,07855488,6695522214124514"; $number = explode(',', $param["number"]); foreach($number as $num){ if (!substr_compare($num, "07", 0, 3, false)) { unset($num); } elseif (substr_compare($num, "07", 0, 3, true)) { if(strlen($num) == 11) { $li .= "447" . substr($num, 2) . ','; } } } $il .= substr($li, 0, strlen($li)-1); echo $il; // $request = substr($request, 0, strlen($request)-1); // return $n; } I also need to remove the final comma from the result. Any help will be appriciated. Thanks, Kyle

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  • Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

    - by Casey Marshall
    Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

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  • Does not contain a definition for GetDataFromNumber But i have it defined!?!?!

    - by JB
    public void button2_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { string text = textBox1.Text; Mainform = this; this.Hide(); GetSchedule myScheduleFinder = new GetSchedule(); string result = myScheduleFinder.GetDataFromNumber(text);// says there is no definition if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(result)) { MessageBox.Show(result); } else { MessageBox.Show("Enter A Valid ID Number!"); } } says it does not contain definition for it but on my GetSchedule .cs file i have it defined public string GetDataFromNumber(string ID)//defined here { foreach (IDnumber IDCandidateMatch in IDnumbers) { if (IDCandidateMatch.ID == ID) { StringBuilder myData = new StringBuilder(); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.Name); myData.AppendLine(": "); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.ID); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.year); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class1); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class2); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class3); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class4); //return myData; return myData.ToString(); } } return ""; }

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  • verifying the signature of x509

    - by sid
    Hi All, While verifying the certificate I am getting EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH My Aim - Verify the certificate signature. I am having 2 certificates : 1. a CA certificate 2. certificate issued by CA. I extracted the 'RSA Public Key (key)' Modulus From CA Certificate using, pPublicKey = X509_get_pubkey(x509); buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); key = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *) key); if (n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); Now, I have CA public key & CA key length and also having certificate issued by CA in buffer, buffer length & public key. To verify the signature, I have following code int iRet1, iRet2, iRet3, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, buf, buflen); iRet3 = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)CAkey, CAkeyLen, pubkey); iReason = ERR_get_error(); if(ERR_GET_REASON(iReason) == EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH) { LOG(ERROR, "EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH\n"); } LOG(INFO,"EVP_VerifyInit returned %d : EVP_VerifyUpdate returned %d : EVP_VerifyFinal = %d \n", iRet1, iRet2, iRet3); EVP_MD_CTX_cleanup(&md_ctx); EVP_PKEY_free(pubkey); if (iRet3 != 1) { LOG(ERROR,"EVP_VerifyFinal() failed\n"); ret = -1; } LOG(INFO,"signature is valid\n"); I am unable to figure out What might went wrong??? Please if anybody faced same issues? What EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH Error means? Thanks in Advance - opensid

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  • Pass Memory in GB Using Import-CSV Powershell to New-VM in Hyper-V Version 3

    - by PowerShell
    I created the below function to pass memory from a csv file to create a VM in Hyper-V Version 3 Function Install-VM { param ( [Parameter(Mandatory=$true)] [int64]$Memory=512MB ) $VMName = "dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng" $vmpath = "c:\2012vms" New-VM -MemoryStartupBytes ([int64]$memory*1024) -Name $VMName -Path $VMPath -Verbose } Import-Csv "C:\2012vms\Vminfo1.csv" | ForEach-Object { Install-VM -Memory ([int64]$_.Memory) } But when i try to create the VM it says mismatch between the memory parameter passed from import-csv, i receive an error as below VERBOSE: New-VM will create a new virtual machine "dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng". New-VM : 'dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng' failed to modify device 'Memory'. (Virtual machine ID CE8D36CA-C8C6-42E6-B5C6-2AA8FA15B4AF) Invalid startup memory amount assigned for 'dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng'. The minimum amount of memory you can assign to a virtual machine is '8' MB. (Virtual machine ID CE8D36CA-C8C6-42E6-B5C6-2AA8FA15B4AF) A parameter that is not valid was passed to the operation. At line:48 char:9 + New-VM -ComputerName $HyperVHost -MemoryStartupBytes ([int64]$memory*10 ... + ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ + CategoryInfo : InvalidArgument: (Microsoft.HyperV.PowerShell.VMTask:VMTask) [New-VM], VirtualizationOpe rationFailedException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : InvalidParameter,Microsoft.HyperV.PowerShell.Commands.NewVMCommand Also please not in the csv file im passing memory as 1,2,4.. etc as shown below, and converting them to MB by multiplying them with 1024 later Memory 1 Can Anyone help me out on how to format and pass the memory details to the function

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  • Screen information while Windows system is locked (.NET)

    - by Matt
    We have a nightly process that updates applications on a user's pc, and that requires bringing the application down and back up again (not looking to get into changing that process). The problem is that we are building a Windows AppBar on launch which requires a valid screen, and when the system is locked there isn't one in the Screen class. So none of the visual effects are enabled and it shows up real ugly. The only way we currently have around this is to detect a locked screen and just spin and wait until the user unlocks the desktop, then continue launching. Leaving it down isn't an option, as this is a key part of our user's workflow, and they expect it to be up and running if they left it that way the night before. Any ideas?? I can't seem to find the display information anywhere, but it has to be stored off someplace, since the user is still logged in. The contents of the Screen.AllScreens array: ** When Locked: Device Name : DISPLAY Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 0 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=2560,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} ** When Unlocked: Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY1 Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=994} Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY2 Primary : False Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=964}

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  • Javascript callback with AJAX + jQuery

    - by Fred
    Hey! I have this jQuery code (function () { function load_page (pagename) { $.ajax({ url: "/backend/index.php/frontend/pull_page/", type: "POST", data: {page: pagename}, success: function (json) { var parsed = $.parseJSON(json); console.log(parsed); return parsed; }, error: function (error) { $('#content').html('Sorry, there was an error: <br>' + error); return false; } }); } ... var json = load_page(page); console.log(json); if (json == false) { $('body').fadeIn(); } else { document.title = json.pagename + ' | The Other Half | freddum.com'; $("#content").html(json.content); $('#header-navigation-ul a:Contains('+page+')').addClass('nav-selected'); $('body').fadeIn(); } })(); and, guessed it, it doesn't work. The AJAX fires fine, the server returns valid JSON but the console.log(json); returns undefined and the js crashes when it gets to json.pagename. The first console.log(parsed) also returns good data so it's just a problem with the return (I think). I knew I was clutching at straws and would be extremely if this worked, but it doesn't. To be honest, I don't know how to program callback functions for this situation. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

    - by johnrock
    I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by burnt_hand
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • Web Shop Schema - Document Db

    - by Maxem
    I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

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  • small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

    - by wallacoloo
    So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

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  • Matlab GUI - How to get the previous value entered from a callback function?

    - by Graham
    Hi, I know that this is probably a simple problem but I am new to Matlab GUI's and basically want to get the old value which used to be stored in the text box to replace the value which has just been entered. E.g. Text box contains a valid string, User enters invalid string, Callback func, validates input and realises new input is an error and reverts to the old previous value. How should this be implemented or done? Atm I am just using the get and set property values. Below is some sample code: function sampledist_Callback(hObject, eventdata, handles) % hObject handle to sampledist (see GCBO) % eventdata reserved - to be defined in a future version of MATLAB % handles structure with handles and user data (see GUIDATA) % Hints: get(hObject,'String') returns contents of sampledist as text % str2double(get(hObject,'String')) returns contents of sampledist as a double input = str2double(get(hObject,'String')); if(input < 0 || input > 500) errordlg('Sampled Dist. must be > 0 and < 500','Sample Dist - Input Error'); set(handles.sampledist,'String',['10']); %<--- I would like this value 10 to be the previous entry! guidata(hObject,handles); else set(handles.sampledist,'String',['',input]); guidata(hObject,handles); end

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