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• Jquery Apache - IE problem

  - by Soldierflup

  I'm having a button tag on my page with a value. <button class='btn' value='value'>show value</button> I have this jquery code : $('.btn').click(function() { var w = 'value = '+$(this).val()+' / text = '+$(this).html(); alert(w); }); In FF, no problem the result is ok (display: value = value / text = show value). The problem comes with IE8 which displays a different results from my testing server and the production server. The testing server is my local machine with a standard XAMPP installation. The productionserver is a server based on linux with apache, php and mysql. Result from the testing server is ok (display like FF), the result from the production server is not good (displaying : value = show value / text : show value). Anyone an idea if it is apache that causes the error ? I know there are some issues with the use of val() because IE is considering it as an attribute and not a value. The problem is that changing the jQuery from val() to attr('value') is quit a lot of work (this implementation is already on a lot of pages) and I think it could be much easier to change something on the webserver.

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• Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code?

  - by finrod

  Is there a way to easily create Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code? Motivation: I need my own implementation of the Process class. The native code spawns me a new process with subprocess' IO streams redirected to unnamed pipes. Problem: The file descriptors for correct ends of those pipes make their way to Java. At this point I get stuck as I cannot create a new FileDescriptor which I could pass to FileInput/FileOutput stream. I have used reflection to get around the problem and got communication with a simple bouncer sub-process running. However I have a notion that it is not the cleanest way to go. Have you used this approach? Do you see any problems with this approach? (the platform will never change) Searching around the internets revealed similar solution using native code. Any thoughts before I dive into heavy testing of this approach are very welcome. I would like to give a shot to existing code before writing my own IO stream implementations... Thank you.

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• Nested functions not allowed in drawrect problem

  - by Martin

  I have a custom view onto which I draw some graphics from the drawrect function, which works fine. However I like to draw based on the contens of an array I pass on the the view just before I do a setNeedsDisplay. In the drawRect function I try to access the array but then I get a nested functions error which I do not understand. Here's my code: // // MyView.h // window // #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MyView : UIView { NSArray * nary; } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSArray *nary; @end // // MyView.m // window // #import "MyView.h" @implementation MyView @synthesize nary; CGContextRef c; CGFloat black[4] = {0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f}; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { // Initialization code } return self; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { c = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextSetStrokeColor(c, black); NSLog(@"mview"); NSArray *ns = [nary objectAtIndex:0]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

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• Slightly different execution times between python2 and python3

  - by user557634

  Hi. Lastly I wrote a simple generator of permutations in python (implementation of "plain changes" algorithm described by Knuth in "The Art... 4"). I was curious about the differences in execution time of it between python2 and python3. Here is my function: def perms(s): s = tuple(s) N = len(s) if N <= 1: yield s[:] raise StopIteration() for x in perms(s[1:]): for i in range(0,N): yield x[:i] + (s[0],) + x[i:] I tested both using timeit module. My tests: $ echo "python2.6:" && ./testing.py && echo "python3:" && ./testing3.py python2.6: args time[ms] 1 0.003811 2 0.008268 3 0.015907 4 0.042646 5 0.166755 6 0.908796 7 6.117996 8 48.346996 9 433.928967 10 4379.904032 python3: args time[ms] 1 0.00246778964996 2 0.00656183719635 3 0.01419159912 4 0.0406293644678 5 0.165960511097 6 0.923101452814 7 6.24257639835 8 53.0099868774 9 454.540967941 10 4585.83498001 As you can see, for number of arguments less than 6, python 3 is faster, but then roles are reversed and python2.6 does better. As I am a novice in python programming, I wonder why is that so? Or maybe my script is more optimized for python2? Thank you in advance for kind answer :)

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• Wpf ItemsControl with datatemplate, problem with doubled border for some items

  - by ksirg

  Hi, I have simple ItemsControl with custom datatemplate, template contains only textblock with border. All items should be displayed vericaly one after another, but some items have extra border. How can I remove it? I want to achieve something similar to enso launcher, it looks like My implementation looks like this here is my xaml code: <Window x:Class="winmole.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" x:Name="hostWindow" Height="Auto" MinHeight="100" MinWidth="100" Width="Auto" Padding="10" AllowsTransparency="True" WindowStyle="None" Background="Transparent" Top="0" Left="0" SizeToContent="WidthAndHeight" Topmost="True" Loaded="Window_Loaded" KeyUp="Window_KeyUp" > <Window.Resources> <!--Simple data template for Items--> <DataTemplate x:Key="itemsTemplate"> <Border Background="Black" Opacity="0.9" HorizontalAlignment="Left" CornerRadius="0,2,2,0"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Title}" TextWrapping="Wrap" FontFamily="Georgia" FontSize="30" Height="Auto" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" TextAlignment="Left" Padding="5" Margin="0" Foreground="Yellow"/> </Border> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> <DockPanel> <ItemsControl DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" Name="itcPrompt" ItemsSource="{Binding ElementName=hostWindow, Path=DataItems}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource itemsTemplate}" > <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <WrapPanel Orientation="Vertical" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> </ItemsControl> </DockPanel>

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• Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

  - by Laird Nelson

  I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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• Why does this tooltip appear *below* a transclucent form?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I'm testing on an XP system with .NET 3.5. If you don't see this problem on your system, let me know what operating system and version of .NET you have. I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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• How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

  - by Dimitri C.

  In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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• Accessing red5 server outside the localhost

  - by user1039290

  I am new on red5 server so I stuck in. I am trying to record videos from webcam and save them in to my server. To do this, I installed red5 to my server. In addition, I also downloaded red5recorder and put it into my webapps folder. But there is any information about its implementation details. Whatever. So I go on with Red5 SimpleRecorder tutorial. Everything works fine when I tried in my server, but there is a problem when I try to connect to server from other computer to record a video. Actually, video recording is handled but the recorded video is not uploaded to the server. When I work in localhost it works fine, but from outside I couldn't be able to record or upload the video. I change the red5-web.properties document, and set virtual host to my server's IP but it again only works in localhost. What could be the reason? Is it about file permissions? or what could it be? Kind regards, Can

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• Esper generating episodes

  - by Jasonojh

  I would like to use Esper to generate episodes of events. I am trying to detect the changes in robot movement during each time period and was wondering what would be the best way of implementation. The rules for generation of episodes from the events would be If the new event time(eg. 7sec, robot A) of a robot is more than 3 sec than the latest event(eg. 3 sec, robot A) of the same robot, the new event belongs to a new episode. Each episode should represent only one robot (eg. 2sec, robotA and 3sec, robotB should output 2 episodes) Input data: Event Time Robot Position 1 1 A 0 2 2 A 1 3 6 A 2 Output data should be: Array[0]={Event 1,Event 2} Array[1]={Event 3} //more than 3 sec Input data: Event Time Robot Position 1 1 A 0 2 2 A 1 3 4 B 0 4 6 A 2 Output data should be: Array[0]={Event 1,Event 2} Array[1]={Event 3} //different robot Array[2]={Event 4} Please help provide suggestions. I have tried using mulitple listeners, one for each robot, to create episodes and it works but I am trying to use a single EPL statement to do it. I have tried win:time_accum(3sec) group by robot but the second example output: Array[0]={Event 1,Event 2, Event 4} Array[1]={Event 3} as the time window is shifted everytime an event comes in, the system still thinks that event 4 is less than 3 sec due to event 3. how do I create a unique time window for each robot? Thank you for your suggestions and any help is greatly appreciated.

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• MVC for a desktop application, connection a view/controller pair with another one

  - by lcf

  Hello. I've had mostly experience with "server-side" mvc frameworks very popular in different languages like ASP.NET MVC or Zend Framework for php, Spring for Java etc. Some of them are also possible to use for desktop applications development but I never tried that. I fully understand that design patterns should not limit implementation, they should generally provide ideas and common rules that can be differently implemented. Now I'm playing with one of those mvc frameworks for usual Desktop Applications development (it does not have many tutorials or a decent quickstart) and I have some questions regarding to the mvc paradigm. Here is one of them: What are common ways to link different views / controllers? If I click a button, special controller for that button dispatches the event that is generated, does something with the model, changes view state. But what if I need to interact with another view? Like, when I click on a button, it changes a model, but also I need to open another window or change state of another window (hiding a button on another window let's say...), without changing actually the model. What are common ways here to address this? Should my first controller generate an event for the second controller (or second view)? Or should the second controller be handling events from first view? Some links or examples for any languages/frameworks would be really helpful, thanks!

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• Can't touch UITextField on UIScrollView

  - by Chris B

  Hey guys, I know this has been talked about a lot. I think I've gone thru every question on this site, and still have not been able to get this working. I'm new to developing but I have a good sense of what's going on with all of my code. I definitely don't have a lot of experience though, this is my first iPhone app. I'm making a data entry field that is comprised of multiple UITextFields within a UIScrollView. I'll avoid explaining the other details for now, as it seems its a very basic problem. Without a scrollview, the textfields work perfectly. I can touch the textfield and the keyboard or picker view show up appropriately. When I add the textfields to a scrollview, the scrollview works, but then the text fields don't receive my touches. Here's the key: When 'User Interaction' is ENABLED, the scrollview works but the textfield touches are NOT registered. When 'User Interaction' is DISABLED, the scrollview doesn't work, but the textfield touches ARE registered and the keyboard/picker pops up. From the other posts I have seen people creating subclasses and overriding the touches in a separate implementation. I've seen people using custom content views (subviews?), I've seen some solutions that are now obsolete since the APIs have changed in newer versions of the SDK, and I am just completely stuck. I will leave out my code for now, because maybe there is a solution that someone has without requiring my code. If someone needs to see my code, I will put it up. My app is being written in the 3.1.3 SDK. If anyone has ANY information that could help, it would be so greatly appreciated.

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• How can I check if a TTTabItem gets selected?

  - by schoash

  I have several TTTabGrids in my view and now I am stuck with the problem, that I can't figure out, how to detect, when a TTTabItem gets touched. If someone selects an item in one of the TTTabGrids I should upadate some labels. Can someone tell me a way how to detect, when the selection in a TTTabGrid gets changed? My code looks like this: @interface MyTTTabGrid : TTTabGrid @end @implementation MyTTTabGrid - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame columns:(NSInteger)columns{ if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { self.style = TTSTYLE(tabGrid); _columnCount = columns; } return self; } @end - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; _tabBarHours = [[MyTTTabGrid alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(10, _tabBarZone.bottom+10, 300, 0) columns:7]; _tabBarHours.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; NSMutableArray *tmpHours = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; int i=6; while (i<20) { [tmpHours addObject:[[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", i]] autorelease]]; i++; } _tabBarHours.tabItems = tmpHours; [_tabBarHours sizeToFit]; [self.view addSubview:_tabBarHours]; [tmpHours release]; }

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• Is it OK to write code after [super dealloc]? (Objective-C)

  - by Richard J. Ross III

  I have a situation in my code, where I cannot clean up my classes objects without first calling [super dealloc]. It is something like this: // Baseclass.m @implmentation Baseclass ... -(void) dealloc { [self _removeAllData]; [aVariableThatBelongsToMe release]; [anotherVariableThatBelongsToMe release]; [super dealloc]; } ... @end This works great. My problem is, when I went to subclass this huge and nasty class (over 2000 lines of gross code), I ran into a problem: when I released my objects before calling [super dealloc] I had zombies running through the code that were activated when I called the [self _removeAllData] method. // Subclass.m @implementation Subclass ... -(void) deallloc { [super dealloc]; [someObjectUsedInTheRemoveAllDataMethod release]; } ... @end This works great, and It didn't require me to refactor any code. My question Is this: Is it safe for me to do this, or should I refactor my code? Or maybe autorelease the objects? I am programming for iPhone if that matters any.

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• Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

  - by zpasternack

  I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

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• Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

  - by nickname

  I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

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• On XP, how do I get the tooltip to appear above a transclucent form?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Edit: this appears to be an XP-only problem. Vista and Windows 7 work correctly. I'd still like to find a workaround to get the tooltip to appear above the form on XP. Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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• Request for advice about class design, inheritance/aggregation

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have started writing my own WebDAV server class in .NET, and the first class I'm starting with is a WebDAVListener class, modelled after how the HttpListener class works. Since I don't want to reimplement the core http protocol handling, I will use HttpListener for all its worth, and thus I have a question. What would the suggested way be to handle this: Implement all the methods and properties found inside HttpListener, just changing the class types where it matters (ie. the GetContext + EndGetContext methods would return a different class for WebDAV contexts), and storing and using a HttpListener object internally Construct WebDAVListener by passing it a HttpListener class to use? Create a wrapper for HttpListener with an interface, and constrct WebDAVListener by passing it an object implementing this interface? If going the route of passing a HttpListener (disguised or otherwise) to the WebDAVListener, would you expose the underlying listener object through a property, or would you expect the program that used the class to keep a reference to the underlying HttpListener? Also, in this case, would you expose some of the methods of HttpListener through the WebDAVListener, like Start and Stop, or would you again expect the program that used it to keep the HttpListener reference around for all those things? My initial reaction tells me that I want a combination. For one thing, I would like my WebDAVListener class to look like a complete implementation, hiding the fact that there is a HttpListener object beneath it. On the other hand, I would like to build unit-tests without actually spinning up a networked server, so some kind of mocking ability would be nice to have as well, which suggests I would like the interface-wrapper way. One way I could solve this would be this: public WebDAVListener() : WebDAVListener(new HttpListenerWrapper()) { } public WebDAVListener(IHttpListenerWrapper listener) { } And then I would implement all the methods of HttpListener (at least all those that makes sense) in my own class, by mostly just chaining the call to the underlying HttpListener object. What do you think? Final question: If I go the way of the interface, assuming the interface maps 1-to-1 onto the HttpListener class, and written just to add support for mocking, is such an interface called a wrapper or an adapter?

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• importing symbols from python package into caller's namespace

  - by Paul C

  I have a little internal DSL written in a single Python file that has grown to a point where I would like to split the contents across a number of different directories + files. The new directory structure currently looks like this: dsl/ __init__.py types/ __init__.py type1.py type2.py and each type file contains a class (e.g. Type1). My problem is that I would like to keep the implementation of code that uses this DSL as simple as possible, something like: import dsl x = Type1() ... This means that all of the important symbols should be available directly in the user's namespace. I have tried updating the top-level __init__.py file to import the relevant symbols: from types.type1 import Type1 from types.type2 import Type2 ... print globals() the output shows that the symbols are imported correctly, but they still aren't present in the caller's code (the code that's doing the import dsl). I think that the problem is that the symbols are actually being imported to the 'dsl' namespace. How can I change this so that the classes are also directly available in the caller's namespace?

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• Autoscale Font in a TextBox Control so that its as big as possible and still fits in text area bound

  - by blak3r

  I need a TextBox or some type of Multi-Line Label control which will automatically adjust the font-size to make it as large as possible and yet have the entire message fit inside the bounds of the text area. I wanted to see if anyone had implemented a user control like this before developing my own. Example application: have a TextBox which will be half of the area on a windows form. When a message comes in which is will be approximately 100-500 characters it will put all the text in the control and set the font as large as possible. An implementation which uses Mono Supported .NET libraries would be a plus. Thanks in advance. If know one has implemented a control already... If someone knows how to test if a given text completely fits inside the text area that would be useful for if I roll my own control. Edit: I ended up writing an extension to RichTextBox. I will post my code shortly once i've verified that all the kinks are worked out.

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• Conversion between different template instantiation of the same template

  - by Naveen

  I am trying to write an operator which converts between the differnt types of the same implementation. This is the sample code: template <class T = int> class A { public: A() : m_a(0){} template <class U> operator A<U>() { A<U> u; u.m_a = m_a; return u; } private: int m_a; }; int main(void) { A<int> a; A<double> b = a; return 0; } However, it gives the following error for line u.m_a = m_a;. Error 2 error C2248: 'A::m_a' : cannot access private member declared in class 'A' d:\VC++\Vs8Console\Vs8Console\Vs8Console.cpp 30 Vs8Console I understand the error is because A<U> is a totally different type from A<T>. Is there any simple way of solving this (may be using a friend?) other than providing setter and getter methods? I am using Visual studio 2008 if it matters.

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• @selector and return value

  - by user320926

  The idea it's very easy, i have an http download class, this class must support the http authentication but it's basically a background thread so i would like to avoid to prompt directly to the screen, i would like to use a delegate method to require from outside of the class, like a viewController. But i don't know if is possible or if i have to use a different syntax. This class use this delegate protocol: //Updater.h @protocol Updater <NSObject> -(NSDictionary *)authRequired; @optional -(void)statusUpdate:(NSString *)newStatus; -(void)downloadProgress:(int)percentage; @end @interface Updater : NSThread { ... } This is the call to the delegate method: //Updater.m // This check always fails :( if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(authRequired:)]) { auth = [delegate authRequired]; } This is the implementation of the delegate method //rootViewController.m -(NSDictionary *)authRequired; { // TODO: some kind of popup or modal view NSMutableDictionary *ret=[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [ret setObject:@"utente" forKey:@"user"]; [ret setObject:@"password" forKey:@"pass"]; return ret; }

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• Appropriate uses of Monad `fail` vs. MonadPlus `mzero`

  - by jberryman

  This is a question that has come up several times for me in the design code, especially libraries. There seems to be some interest in it so I thought it might make a good community wiki. The fail method in Monad is considered by some to be a wart; a somewhat arbitrary addition to the class that does not come from the original category theory. But of course in the current state of things, many Monad types have logical and useful fail instances. The MonadPlus class is a sub-class of Monad that provides an mzero method which logically encapsulates the idea of failure in a monad. So a library designer who wants to write some monadic code that does some sort of failure handling can choose to make his code use the fail method in Monad or restrict his code to the MonadPlus class, just so that he can feel good about using mzero, even though he doesn't care about the monoidal combining mplus operation at all. Some discussions on this subject are in this wiki page about proposals to reform the MonadPlus class. So I guess I have one specific question: What monad instances, if any, have a natural fail method, but cannot be instances of MonadPlus because they have no logical implementation for mplus? But I'm mostly interested in a discussion about this subject. Thanks! EDIT: One final thought occured to me. I recently learned (even though it's right there in the docs for fail) that monadic "do" notation is desugared in such a way that pattern match failures, as in (x:xs) <- return [] call the monad's fail. It seems like the language designers must have been strongly influenced by the prospect of some automatic failure handling built in to haskell's syntax in their inclusion of fail in Monad.

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• ASP .NET Button event handlers do not fire on the first click, but on the second click after a PostB

  - by John

  Background: I am customizing an existing ASP .NET / C# application. It has it's own little "framework" and conventions for developers to follow when extending/customizing its functionality. I am currently extending some of it's administrative functionality, to which the framework provides a contract to enforce implementation of the GetAdministrationInterface() method, which returns System.Web.UI.Control. This method is called during the Page_Load() method of the page hosting the GUI interface. Problem: I have three buttons in my GUI, each of which have been assigned an Event Handler. My administration GUI loads up perfectly fine, but clicking any of the buttons doesn't do what I expect them to do. However, when I click them a second time, the buttons work. I placed breakpoints at the beginning of each event handler method and stepped through my code. On the first click, none of the event handlers were triggered. On the second click, they fired. Any ideas? Example of Button Definition (within GetAdministrationInterface) public override Control GetAdministrationInterface() { // more code... Button btn = new Button(); btn.Text = "Click Me!"; btn.Click += new EventHandler(Btn_Click); // more code... } Example of Event Handler Method Definition void Btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do Something } Page_Load Method that calls GetAdministrationInterface protected void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsAsync) { List<AdministrationInterface> interfaces = <DATABASE CALL>; foreach(AdministrationInteface ai in interfaces) { placeholderDiv.Controls.Add(ai.GetAdministrationInterface()); } } }

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• How to collect and inject all beans of a given type in Spring XML configuration

  - by GrzegorzOledzki

  One of the strongest accents of the Spring framework is the Dependency Injection concept. I understand one of the advices behind that is to separate general high-level mechanism from low-level details (as announced by Dependency Inversion Principle). Technically, that boils down to having a bean implementation to know as little as possible about a bean being injected as a dependency, e.g. public class PrintOutBean { private LogicBean logicBean; public void action() { System.out.println(logicBean.humanReadableDetails()); } //... } <bean class="PrintOutBean"> <property name="loginBean" ref="ShoppingCartBean"/> </bean> But what if I wanted to a have a high-level mechanism operating on multiple dependent beans? public class MenuManagementBean { private Collection<Option> options; public void printOut() { for (Option option:options) { // do something for option } //... } } I know one solution would be to use @Autowired annotation in the singleton bean, that is... @Autowired private Collection<Option> options; But doesn't it violate the separation principle? Why do I have to specify what dependents to take in the very same place I use them (i.e. MenuManagementBean class in my example)? Is there a way to inject collections of beans in the XML configuration like this (without any annotation in the MMB class)? <bean class="MenuManagementBean"> <property name="options"> <xxx:autowire by-type="MyOptionImpl"/> </property> </bean>

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