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• Extand legacy site with another server-side programming platform best practice

  - by Andrew Florko

  Company I work for have a site developed 6-8 years ago by a team that was enthusiastic enough to use their own private PHP-based CMS. I have to put dynamic data from one intranet company database on this site in one week: 2-3 pages. I contacted company site administrator and she showed me administrative part - CMS allows only to insert html blocks & manage site map (site is deployed on machine that is inside company & fully accessible & upgradable). I'm not a PHP-guy & I don't want to dive into legacy hardly-who-ever-heard-about CMS engine I also don't want to contact developers team, 'cos I'm not sure they are still present and capable enough to extend this old days site and it'll take too much time anyway. I am about to deploy helper asp.net site on iis with 2-3 pages required & refer helper site via iframe from present site. New pages will allow to download some dynamic content from present site also. Is it ok and what are the pitfalls with iframe approach?

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• Type conversion between PHP client and Java webservice

  - by a1ex07

  I have a web service implemented as EJB. One of it's methods returns Map<String,String>. On client side I use php : $client = new SoapClient($wsdl,array("cache_wsdl"=>WSDL_CACHE_NONE)); $result = $client->foo($params); Everything works fine, but I would like $result-return to be an associative array. Now it looks like array(10) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#46 (2) { ["key"]=> string(4) "key1" ["value"]=> string(4) "val1" } .... I want array(10) {"key1"=>"value1", "key2"=>"value2", .... } The obvious solution is to iterate through this array and create a new array $arr = array(); foreach ($result->return as $val) $arr[$val->key] = $val->value; But I wonder if there is a better way to get an assosicative array ? Thanks in advance.

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• How to output KML by GAE

  - by Niklas R

  Hi I use KML for a google map where entities have a geopt.db coordinate and soft memory limit was exceeded with 213.465 MB after servicing 1 requests total. The log says /list.kml 200 13130ms 10211cpu_ms 4238api_cpu_ms The file list.kml which outputs about 455,7 KB is a template as follows <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><kml xmlns="http:// www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:gx="http://www.google.com/kml/ext/2.2" xmlns:kml="http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:atom="http:// www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <Document>{% for a in list %} <Placemark> <name> </name> <description> <![CDATA[<a href="http://{{host}}/{{a.key.id}}"> {{ a.title }} </a> <br/>{{a.text}}]]> </description> <Style> <IconStyle> <Icon> <href> http://www.google.com/intl/en_us/mapfiles/ms/icons/green-dot.png </href> </Icon> </IconStyle> </Style> <Point> <coordinates> {{a.geopt.lon|floatformat:2}},{{a.geopt.lat|floatformat:2}} </coordinates> </Point> </Placemark> {% endfor %} </Document> </kml> Is there a memory leak in the template or the python that passes the list variable? Can I improve using other template engine or other framework than default? Is kmz compression a good idea in this case? Thanks in advance for any suggestion where or how to change the code.

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• Idiomatic way to build a custom structure from XML zipper in Clojure

  - by Checkers

  Say, I'm parsing an RSS feed and want to extract a subset of information from it. (def feed (-> "http://..." clojure.zip/xml-zip clojure.xml/parse)) I can get links and titles separately: (xml-> feed :channel :item :link text) (xml-> feed :channel :item :title text) However I can't figure out the way to extract them at the same time without traversing the zipper more than once, e.g. (let [feed (-> "http://..." clojure.zip/xml-zip clojure.xml/parse)] (zipmap (xml-> feed :channel :item :link text) (xml-> feed :channel :item :title text))) ...or a variation of thereof, involving mapping multiple sequences to a function that incrementally builds a map with, say, assoc. Not only I have to traverse the sequence multiple times, the sequences also have separate states, so elements must be "aligned", so to speak. That is, in a more complex case than RSS, a sub-element may be missing in particular element, making one of sequences shorter by one (there are no gaps). So the result may actually be incorrect. Is there a better way or is it, in fact, the way you do it in Clojure?

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• GAE datastore querying integer fields

  - by ParanoidAndroid

  I notice strange behavior when querying the GAE datastore. Under certain circumstances Filter does not work for integer fields. The following java code reproduces the problem: log.info("start experiment"); DatastoreService datastore = DatastoreServiceFactory.getDatastoreService(); int val = 777; // create and store the first entity. Entity testEntity1 = new Entity(KeyFactory.createKey("Test", "entity1")); Object value = new Integer(val); testEntity1.setProperty("field", value); datastore.put(testEntity1); // create the second entity by using BeanUtils. Test test2 = new Test(); // just a regular bean with an int field test2.setField(val); Entity testEntity2 = new Entity(KeyFactory.createKey("Test", "entity2")); Map<String, Object> description = BeanUtilsBean.getInstance().describe(test2); for(Entry<String,Object> entry:description.entrySet()){ testEntity2.setProperty(entry.getKey(), entry.getValue()); } datastore.put(testEntity2); // now try to retrieve the entities from the database... Filter equalFilter = new FilterPredicate("field", FilterOperator.EQUAL, val); Query q = new Query("Test").setFilter(equalFilter); Iterator<Entity> iter = datastore.prepare(q).asIterator(); while (iter.hasNext()) { log.info("found entity: " + iter.next().getKey()); } log.info("experiment finished"); the log looks like this: INFO: start experiment INFO: found entity: Test("entity1") INFO: experiment finished For some reason it only finds the first entity even though both entities are actually stored in the datastore and both 'field' values are 777 (I see it in the Datastore Viewer)! Why does it matter how the entity is created? I would like to use BeanUtils, because it is convenient. The same problem occurs on the local devserver and when deployed to GAE.

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• How would the 'Model' in a Rails-type webapp be implemented in a functional programming langauge?

  - by ceptorial

  In MVC web development frameworks such as Ruby on Rails, Django, and CakePHP, HTTP requests are routed to controllers, which fetch objects which are usually persisted to a backend database store. These objects represent things like users, blog posts, etc., and often contain logic within their methods for permissions, fetching and/or mutating other objects, validation, etc. These frameworks are all very much object oriented. I've been reading up recently on functional programming and it seems to tout tremendous benefits such as testability, conciseness, modularity, etc. However most of the examples I've seen for functional programming implement trivial functionality like quicksort or the fibonnacci sequence, not complex webapps. I've looked at a few 'functional' web frameworks, and they all seem to implement the view and controller just fine, but largely skip over the whole 'model' and 'persistence' part. (I'm talking more about frameworks like Compojure which are supposed to be purely functional, versus something Lift which conveniently seems to use the OO part of Scala for the model -- but correct me if I'm wrong here.) I haven't seen a good explanation of how functional programming can be used to provide the metaphor that OO programming provides, i.e. tables map to objects, and objects can have methods which provide powerful, encapsulated logic such as permissioning and validation. Also the whole concept of using SQL queries to persist data seems to violate the whole 'side effects' concept. Could someone provide an explanation of how the 'model' layer would be implemented in a functionally programmed web framework?

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• Fluent Nhibernate Mapping Single class on two database tables

  - by nabeelfarid

  Hi guys, I am having problems with Mapping. I have two tables in my database as follows: Employee and EmployeeManagers Employee EmployeeId int Name nvarchar EmployeeManagers EmployeeIdFk int ManagerIdFk int So the employee can have 0 or more Managers. A manager itself is also an Employee. I have the following class to represent the Employee and Managers public class Employee { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Employee> Managers { get; protected set; } public Employee() { Managers = new List<Employee>(); } } I don't have any class to represent Manager because I think there is no need for it, as Manager itself is an Employee. I am using autoMapping and I just can't figure out how to map this class to these two tables. I am implementing IAutoMappingOverride for overriding automappings for Employee but I am not sure what to do in it. public class NodeMap : IAutoMappingOverride { public void Override(AutoMapping<Node> mapping) { //mapping.HasMany(x => x.ValidParents).Cascade.All().Table("EmployeeManager"); //mapping.HasManyToMany(x => x.ValidParents).Cascade.All().Table("EmployeeManager"); } } I also want to make sure that an employee can not be assigned the same manager twice. This is something I can verify in my application but I would like to put constraint on the EmployeeManager table (e.g. a composite key) so a same manager can not be assigned to an employee more than once. Could anyone out there help me with this please? Awaiting Nabeel

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• Separating columnName and Value in C#

  - by KungfuPanda

  hi, I have a employee object as shown below class emp { public int EmpID { get; set; } public string EmpName { get; set; } public int deptID { get; set; } } I need to create a mapping either in this class or a different class to map the properties with column name of my SQL for eg. EmpdID="employeeID" EmpName="EmployeeName" deptID="DepartmentID" When from my asp.net page when I create the employee class and pass it to a function: for eg: emp e=new emp(); e.EmpID=1; e.EmpName="tommy"; e.deptID=10; When the emp object is populated and passed to the buildValues function it should return array of ComumnName(e.g.employeeID):Value(e.g.1),EmployeeName:tommy,DepartmentID:10) string[] values=buildValues(emp); public string[] buildValues(emp e) { string[] values=null; return values; } I have 2 questions: 1. Where do I specify the mappings 2. How do I use the mappings in my buildValues function shown above and build the values string array. I would really appreciate if you can help me with this

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• Browser relative positioning with jQuery and CutyCapt

  - by Acoustic

  I've been using CutyCapt to take screen shots of several web pages with great success. My challenge now is to paint a few dots on those screen shots that represent where a user clicked. CutyCapt goes through a process of resizing the web page to the scroll width before taking a screen shot. That's extremely useful because you only get content and not much (if any) of the page's background. My challenge is trying to map a user's mouse X coordinates to the screen shot. Obviously users have different screen resolutions and have their browser window open to different sizes. The image below shows 3 examples with the same logo. Assume, for example, that the logo is 10 pixels to the left edge of the content area (in red). In each of these cases, and for any resolution, I need a JavaScript routine that will calculate that the logo's X coordinate is 10. Again, the challenge (I think) is differing resolutions. In the center-aligned examples, the logo's position, as measured from the left edge of the browser (in black), differs with changing browser size. The left-aligned example should be simple as the logo never moves as the screen resizes. Can anyone think of a way to calculate the scrollable width of a page? In other words, I'm looking for a JavaScript solution to calculate the minimum width of the browser window before a horizontal scroll bar shows up. Thanks for your help!

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• Mapping composite foreign keys in a many-many relationship, with overlapping components.

  - by Kirk Broadhurst

  I have a Page table and a View table. There is a many-many relationship between these two via a PageView table. Unfortunately all of these tables need to have composite keys (for business reasons). Page has a primary key of (PageCode, Version), View has a primary key of (ViewCode, Version). PageView obviously enough has PageCode, ViewCode, and Version. The FK to Page is (PageCode, Version) and the FK to View is (ViewCode, Version) Makes sense and works, but when I try to map this in Entity framework I get Error 3021: Problem in mapping fragments...: Each of the following columns in table PageView is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: PageView.Version is mapped to (PageView_Association.View.Version, PageView_Association.Page.Version) So clearly enough, EF is having a complain about the Version column being a common component of the two foreign keys. Obviously I could create a PageVersion and ViewVersion column in the join table, but that kind of defeats the point of the constraint, i.e. the Page and View must have the same Version value. Has anyone encountered this, and is there anything I can do get around it? Thanks!

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• Python multiprocessing doesn't play nicely with uuid.uuid4().

  - by yig

  I'm trying to generate a uuid for a filename, and I'm also using the multiprocessing module. Unpleasantly, all of my uuids end up exactly the same. Here is a small example: import multiprocessing import uuid def get_uuid( a ): ## Doesn't help to cycle through a bunch. #for i in xrange(10): uuid.uuid4() ## Doesn't help to reload the module. #reload( uuid ) ## Doesn't help to load it at the last minute. ## (I simultaneously comment out the module-level import). #import uuid ## uuid1() does work, but it differs only in the first 8 characters and includes identifying information about the computer. #return uuid.uuid1() return uuid.uuid4() def main(): pool = multiprocessing.Pool( 20 ) uuids = pool.map( get_uuid, range( 20 ) ) for id in uuids: print id if __name__ == '__main__': main() I peeked into uuid.py's code, and it seems to depending-on-the-platform use some OS-level routines for randomness, so I'm stumped as to a python-level solution (to do something like reload the uuid module or choose a new random seed). I could use uuid.uuid1(), but only 8 digits differ and I think there are derived exclusively from the time, which seems dangerous especially given that I'm multiprocessing (so the code could be executing at exactly the same time). Is there some Wisdom out there about this issue?

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• Database Functional Programming in Clojure

  - by Ralph

  "It is tempting, if the only tool you have is a hammer, to treat everything as if it were a nail." - Abraham Maslow I need to write a tool to dump a large hierarchical (SQL) database to XML. The hierarchy consists of a Person table with subsidiary Address, Phone, etc. tables. I have to dump thousands of rows, so I would like to do so incrementally and not keep the whole XML file in memory. I would like to isolate non-pure function code to a small portion of the application. I am thinking that this might be a good opportunity to explore FP and concurrency in Clojure. I can also show the benefits of immutable data and multi-core utilization to my skeptical co-workers. I'm not sure how the overall architecture of the application should be. I am thinking that I can use an impure function to retrieve the database rows and return a lazy sequence that can then be processed by a pure function that returns an XML fragment. For each Person row, I can create a Future and have several processed in parallel (the output order does not matter). As each Person is processed, the task will retrieve the appropriate rows from the Address, Phone, etc. tables and generate the nested XML. I can use a a generic function to process most of the tables, relying on database meta-data to get the column information, with special functions for the few tables that need custom processing. These functions could be listed in a map(table name -> function). Am I going about this in the right way? I can easily fall back to doing it in OO using Java, but that would be no fun. BTW, are there any good books on FP patterns or architecture? I have several good books on Clojure, Scala, and F#, but although each covers the language well, none look at the "big picture" of function programming design.

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• problem loading texture with transparency with OpenGL ES and Android

  - by Evan Kimia

  Im trying to load an image that has background transparency that will be layered over another texture. When i try and load it, all i get is a white screen. The texture is 512 by 512, and its saved in photoshop as a 24 bit PNG (standard PNG specs in the Photoshop Save for Web and Devices config window). Any idea why its not showing? The texture without transparency shows without a problem. Here is my loadTextures method: public void loadGLTexture(GL10 gl, Context context) { //Get the texture from the Android resource directory Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(context.getResources(), R.drawable.m1); Bitmap normalScheduleLines = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(context.getResources(), R.drawable.m1n); //Generate texture pointers... gl.glGenTextures(3, textures, 0); //...and bind it to our array gl.glBindTexture(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[1]); //Create Nearest Filtered Texture gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL10.GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_NEAREST); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL10.GL_LINEAR); gl.glTexParameterf(GL11.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL11.GL_GENERATE_MIPMAP, GL11.GL_TRUE); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); GLUtils.texImage2D(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, bitmap, 0); bitmap.recycle(); //Bind our normal schedule bus map lines gl.glBindTexture(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[0]); //Create Nearest Filtered Texture gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL10.GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_NEAREST); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL10.GL_LINEAR); gl.glTexParameterf(GL11.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL11.GL_GENERATE_MIPMAP, GL11.GL_TRUE); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); GLUtils.texImage2D(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL10.GL_RGBA, normalScheduleLines, 0); normalScheduleLines.recycle(); }

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• What's the standard convention for creating a new NSArray from an existing NSArray?

  - by Prairiedogg

  Let's say I have an NSArray of NSDictionaries that is 10 elements long. I want to create a second NSArray with the values for a single key on each dictionary. The best way I can figure to do this is: NSMutableArray *nameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[array count]]; for (NSDictionary *p in array) { [nameArray addObject:[p objectForKey:@"name"]]; } self.my_new_array = array; [array release]; [nameArray release]; } But in theory, I should be able to get away with not using a mutable array and using a counter in conjunction with [nameArray addObjectAtIndex:count], because the new list should be exactly as long as the old list. Please note that I am NOT trying to filter for a subset of the original array, but make a new array with exactly the same number of elements, just with values dredged up from the some arbitrary attribute of each element in the array. In python one could solve this problem like this: new_list = [p['name'] for p in old_list] or if you were a masochist, like this: new_list = map(lambda p: p['name'], old_list) Having to be slightly more explicit in objective-c makes me wonder if there is an accepted common way of handling these situations.

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• URL rewriting to a common end point

  - by sunil

  I want to create an asp.net white-label site http://whitelabel.com, that could be styled for each of our clients according to their specific needs. So for example, client abc would see the site in their corporate colours and be accessed through their specific url http://abc.com. Likewise client xyz would see the site in their own styling and url http://xyz.com. Typing either url, in effect, takes the user to http://whitelabel.com where the styling is applied, and the client's url structure is retained. I was thinking of URL rewriting using URLRewriter.Net (http://urlrewriter.net/), or similar, mapping the incoming address to a client id and applying the theme accordingly. So, a url rewrite rule may be something like <rewrite url="http//abc.com/(.+)" to="~/$1?id=1" /> <rewrite url="http//xyz.com/(.+)" to="~/$1?id=2" /> I could then read the id, map it to the client, and with a bit of jiggery-pokery, apply the correct theme. I was wondering if: this is the right approach ? I've overlooked something ? there is a better way to do this ? Any suggestions would be appreciated.

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• Using ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping with @Controller and extending AbstractController

  - by whiskerz

  Hey there, actually I thought I was trying something really simple. ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping sounded great to produce a small spring webapp using a very lean configuration. Just annotate the Controller with @Controller, have it extend AbstractController and the configuration shouldn't need more than this <context:component-scan base-package="test.mypackage.controller" /> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping" /> to resolve my requests and map them to my controllers. I've mapped the servlet to "*.spring", and calling <approot>/hello.spring All I ever get is an error stating that no mapping was found. If however I extend the MultiActionController, and do something like <approot>/hello/hello.spring it works. Which somehow irritates me, as I would have thought that if that is working, why didn't my first try? Does anyone have any idea? The two controllers I used looked like this @Controller public class HelloController extends AbstractController { @Override protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } } and @Controller public class HelloController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView hello(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } }

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• MSBuild script fails but produces no errors

  - by Kate

  I have a MSBuild script that I am executing through TeamCity. One of the tasks that is runs is from Xheo DeploxLX CodeVeil which obfuscates some DLLs. The task I am using is called VeilProject. I have run the CodeVeil Project through the interface manually and it works correctly, so I think I can safely assume that the actual obfuscate process is ok. This task used to take around 40 minutes and the rest of the MSBuild file executed perfectly and finished without errors. For some reason this task is now taking 1hr 20 minutes or so to execute. Once the VeilProject task is finished the output from the task says it completely successfully, however the MSBuild script fails at this point. I have a task directly after the VeilProject task and it does not get outputted. Using diagnostic output from MSBUild I can see the following: My questions are: Would it be possible that the MSBuild script has timed out? Once the task has completed it is after a certain timeout period so it just fails? Why would the build fail with no errors and no warnings? [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Finished. [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Saving exception map [05:49:21]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds [05:49:22]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Done. [05:49:51]: MSBuild output: Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds (TaskId:8) Done. (TaskId:8) Done executing task "VeilProject" -- FAILED. (TaskId:8) Done building target "Obfuscate" in project "AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" -- FAILED.: (TargetId:12) Done Building Project "C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" (All target(s)) -- FAILED. Project Performance Summary: 6535484 ms C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx 1 calls 6535484 ms All 1 calls Target Performance Summary: 156 ms PreClean 1 calls 266 ms SetBuildVersionNumber 1 calls 2406 ms CopyFiles 1 calls 6532391 ms Obfuscate 1 calls Task Performance Summary: 16 ms MakeDir 2 calls 31 ms TeamCitySetBuildNumber 1 calls 31 ms Message 1 calls 62 ms RemoveDir 2 calls 234 ms GetAssemblyIdentity 1 calls 2406 ms Copy 1 calls 6528047 ms VeilProject 1 calls Build FAILED. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) Time Elapsed 01:48:57.46 [05:49:52]: Process exit code: 1 [05:49:55]: Build finished

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• MKAnnotationView for userLocation pin iPhone

  - by Mauricio Galindo

  I have an application that uses MKMapView and at some point in the app I need to remove all the current pins in the map using [mapView removeAnnotations:mapView.annotations] And then I want to show again the current user location mapView.showUserLocation = YES But I can only make it reappear as a regular pin, because the userLocation view class its not public so I cant return views of that type. Here is my code - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)theMapView viewForAnnotation:(id <MKAnnotation>)annotation MKPinAnnotationView* annView = (MKPinAnnotationView *)[mapView dequeueReusableAnnotationViewWithIdentifier:@"currentloc"]; if (!annView) { MKPinAnnotationView *annView=[[MKPinAnnotationView alloc] initWithAnnotation:annotation reuseIdentifier:@"currentloc"]; annView.pinColor = MKPinAnnotationColorRed; annView.animatesDrop=TRUE; annView.canShowCallout = YES; annView.calloutOffset = CGPointMake(-5, 5); if ([annotation isKindOfClass:[DraggableAnnotationAM class]] ) annView.draggable = YES; return annView; } else { if ([annotation isKindOfClass:[DraggableAnnotationAM class]] ) annView.draggable = YES; annView.annotation = annotation; return annView; } Also I have found through reflection that MKUserLocationView is the class that is used to display the current location, but because its not public its not safe to use and my app keeps crashing and Im sure theres a easier way. Is it possible to do what I want, or should I just never remove the user location annotation of the mapView? Thanks in advance

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• Ruby GraphViz Binary Tree Record

  - by Jason M

  I'm using the ruby-graphviz gem and I'm trying to draw binary trees. I'd like to use the record shape so that each node can have a left, middle, and right field and, thus, if there are two edges leaving a node, the left and right edges can be distinguished. I tried specifying the field by concatenating the field name like this: @node1.name + ":left" But that did not work. What is the correct way of specifying the field? require 'rubygems' require 'graphviz' @graph = GraphViz.new( :G, :type => :digraph ) @node1 = @graph.add_node("1", "shape" => "record", "label" => "<left>|<f1> 1|<right>" ) @node2 = @graph.add_node("2", "shape" => "record", "label" => "<left>|<f1> 2|<right>" ) @graph.add_edge(@node1.name + ":left", @node2) # generate a random filename filename = "/tmp/#{(0...8).map{65.+(rand(25)).chr}.join}.png" @graph.output( :png => filename ) exec "open #{filename}"

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• Asymptotic runtime of list-to-tree function

  - by Deestan

  I have a merge function which takes time O(log n) to combine two trees into one, and a listToTree function which converts an initial list of elements to singleton trees and repeatedly calls merge on each successive pair of trees until only one tree remains. Function signatures and relevant implementations are as follows: merge :: Tree a -> Tree a -> Tree a --// O(log n) where n is size of input trees singleton :: a -> Tree a --// O(1) empty :: Tree a --// O(1) listToTree :: [a] -> Tree a --// Supposedly O(n) listToTree = listToTreeR . (map singleton) listToTreeR :: [Tree a] -> Tree a listToTreeR [] = empty listToTreeR (x:[]) = x listToTreeR xs = listToTreeR (mergePairs xs) mergePairs :: [Tree a] -> [Tree a] mergePairs [] = [] mergePairs (x:[]) = [x] mergePairs (x:y:xs) = merge x y : mergePairs xs This is a slightly simplified version of exercise 3.3 in Purely Functional Data Structures by Chris Okasaki. According to the exercise, I shall now show that listToTree takes O(n) time. Which I can't. :-( There are trivially ceil(log n) recursive calls to listToTreeR, meaning ceil(log n) calls to mergePairs. The running time of mergePairs is dependent on the length of the list, and the sizes of the trees. The length of the list is 2^h-1, and the sizes of the trees are log(n/(2^h)), where h=log n is the first recursive step, and h=1 is the last recursive step. Each call to mergePairs thus takes time (2^h-1) * log(n/(2^h)) I'm having trouble taking this analysis any further. Can anyone give me a hint in the right direction?

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• Is JavaEE really portable?

  - by Bozho

  I'm just implementing a JavaEE assignment I was given on an interview. I have some prior experience with EJB, but nothing related to JMS and MDBs. So here's what I find through the numerous examples: application servers bind their topics and queues to different JNDI names - for example topic/queue, jms the activationConfig property is required on JBoss, while in the Sun tutorial it is not. after starting my application, jboss warns me that my topic isn't bound (it isn't actually - I haven't bound it, but I expect it to be bound automatically - in fact, in an example for JBoss 4.0 automatic binding does seem to happen). A suggested solution is to map it in some jboss files or even use jboss-specific annotations. This might be just JBoss, but since it is certified to implement to spec, it appears the spec doesn't specify these these things. And there all the alleged portability vanishes. So I wonder - how come it is claimed that JavaEE is portable and you can take an ear and deploy it on another application server and it magically runs, if such extremely basic things don't appear to be portable at all. P.S. sorry for the rant, but I'm assume I might be doing/getting something wrong, so state your opinions.

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• Routing problem with calling a new method without an ID

  - by alkaloids

  I'm trying to put together a form_tag that edits several Shift objects. I have the form built properly, and it's passing on the correct parameters. I have verified that the parameters work with updating the objects correctly in the console. However, when I click the submit button, I get the error: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in ShiftsController#update_individual Couldn't find Shift without an ID My route for the controller it is calling looks like this looks like this: map.resources :shifts, :collection => { :update_individual => :put } The method in ShiftsController is this: def update_individual Shift.update(params[:shifts].keys, params[:shifts].values) flash[:notice] = "Schedule saved" end The relevant form parts are these: <% form_tag( update_individual_shifts_path ) do %> ... (fields for...) <%= submit_tag "Save" %> <% end %> Why is this not working? If I browse to the url: "http://localhost:3000/shifts/update_individual/5" (or any number that corresponds to an existing shift), I get the proper error about having no parameters set, but when I pass parameters without an ID of some sort, it errors out. How do I make it stop looking for an ID at the end of the URL?

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• Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

  - by davy

  I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

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• Seperate html pages for each screen in Jquery mobile

  - by vrs

  I am newbie to Jquery Mobile, so far what ever examples i searched contains only one html page for whole application, with multipe div tags where each page/screen is defined as div tag with data-role as page with some header and footers optionally. Based on user actions, we are hiding some div's(pages) and showing only expected page. Also, this multi-page template seems to be standard design, as written by some blogs. Are there any other designing ways? what I would like to have is multipe html pages, for ex one for login, one for home, one for contact etc. Other wise it is difficult to understand/code/debug issues, especially people from Java background like me.So, what I want is some kind of MVC design with JQueryMobile, like each view/screen as sepearate html associated with one js (Controller). Can we have multiple html pages in JqueryMobile app? If possible how to pass data/ maintain session between them? Any samples are most welcome. Thanks In Advance. Note: Also I don't want server side includes, may app contains 10 to 15 screens, each page will make a webservice call and fetch some data and map it to UI.

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• VSTO Word ContentControls, Y U No have Name property?

  - by System.Cats.Lol

  When you add a VSTO (not Word native) content control, you specify the name: controls.AddContentControl(wordRange, "foo", wdType); Where controls is the VSTO (extended) Document.Controls collection. You can later look up the control by name: ContentControl myContentControl = controls["foo"]; So why in the world is there no Name property for ContentControl? (or ContentControlBase, or any of the other derivatives). I'm implementing a wrapper class for the Document.Controls property that lets you add or iterate the content controls. When iterating the underlying Document.Controls, there's no way to look up the name of each control. (We need it to return an instance of our ContentControl wrapper). So currently I'm doing this in our ContentControls wrapper class: public IEnumerator<IContentControl> GetEnumerator() { System.Collections.IEnumerator en = this.wordControls.GetEnumerator(); while (en.MoveNext()) { // VSTO Document.Controls includes all managed controls, not just // VSTO ContentControls; return only those. if (en.Current is Microsoft.Office.Tools.Word.ContentControl) { // The control's name isn't stored with the control, only when it was added, // so use a placeholder name for the wrapper. yield return new ContentControl("Unknown", (Microsoft.Office.Tools.Word.ContentControl)en.Current); } } } I'd prefer to not have to resort to keeping a map of names-to-wrapper-objects in our ContentControls object. Can anyone tell me how to get the control's name (the name parameter that was passed to Controls.Add()?

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