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  • New to asp.net. Need help debugging this email form.

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys, First of all, I am a php developer and most of .net is alien to me which is why I am posting here! I just migrated over a site from one set of webhosting to another. The whole site is written in .net. None of the site is database driven so most of it works, except for the contact form. The output on the site simple states there was an error with "There has been an error - please try to submit the contact form again, if you continue to experience problems, please notify our webmaster." This is just a simple message it pops out of it gets to the "catch" part of the email function. I went into web.config and changed the parameters: <emailaddresses> <add name="System" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Contact" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Info" value="[email protected]"/> </emailaddresses> <general> <add name="WebSiteDomain" value="hoyespharmacy.com"/> </general> Then the .cs file for contact contains the mail function EmailFormData(): private void EmailFormData() { try { StringBuilder body = new StringBuilder(); body.Append("Name" + ": " + txtName.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Phone" + ": " + txtPhone.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Email" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Fax" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Subject" + ": " + ddlSubject.SelectedValue + "\n\r"); body.Append("Message" + ": " + txtMessage.Text); MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.IsBodyHtml = false; mail.To.Add(new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"))); mail.Subject = "Contact Us Form Submission"; mail.From = new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"), Settings.WebSiteDomain); mail.Body = body.ToString(); SmtpClient smtpcl = new SmtpClient(); smtpcl.Send(mail); } catch { Utilities.RedirectPermanently(Request.Url.AbsolutePath + "?messageSent=false"); } } How do I see what the actual error is. I figure I can do something with the "catch" part of the function.. Any pointers? Thanks!

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  • Dealing with personal failure

    - by codeelegance
    A while ago I was given the task of updating and extending the functionality of a software project. I was given a year to make the needed changes working solo. A month into development I came to the conclusion that it would take longer to change the existing product than to rewrite it from the ground up. I'd never attempted a complete rewrite so I talked with my boss about it and he was thrilled with the idea. I'm a fan of agile development but had never had the opportunity to take advantage of all of the prescribed practices so when I set to work I tried to incorporate as many as I could. I didn't have direct access to the customer and my coworkers (non-programmers) knew the business domain but were already so busy they didn't really have time to participate in design meetings so I resigned to working in the dark and occasionally calling one of them over to my desk to get feedback on my progress. I used TDD and refactored mercilessly and even tried taking a domain driven design approach. Things went well for a while. As the deadline came closer and the complexity of the project grew my productivity start slipping. I found myself cutting corners and ignoring the practices I had established as the pressure increased to meet the deadline. I also started working late nights and weekends to keep up with the load. In the end it made little difference how hard I worked. The project missed its deadline and what was completed wasn't enough to give to the customer. I had failed. Not only had I not finished on time but the previous version had sat untouched for almost a year so it wouldn't be of any help. Luckily we had another product that offered some of the same functionality. My boss decided to cancel the project entirely and moved all our orphaned customers to the other product. I spent weeks (along with everyone else at the company) manning the phones providing technical support for those customers. After it was all over, my boss was gracious enough not to fire me for nearly ruining the company. I was moved to the other product and have been trying to redeem myself ever since. Where did I go wrong? Has anyone else had to deal with this kind of defeat? How did you recover?

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  • Why does my Spring Controller direct me to the wrong page?

    - by kc2001
    I am writing my first Spring 3.0.5 MVC app and am confused about why my controller mappings aren't doing what I expect. I have a VerifyPasswordController that is called after a user tries to log in by entering his name and password. // Called upon clicking "submit" from /login @RequestMapping(value = "/verifyPassword", method = RequestMethod.POST) @ModelAttribute("user") public String verifyPassword(User user, BindingResult result) { String email = user.getEmail(); String nextPage = CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE; // success case if (result.hasErrors()) { nextPage = LOGIN_PAGE; } else if (!passwordMatches(email, user.getPassword())) { nextPage = LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE; } else { // success } return nextPage; } I can verify in the debugger that this method is being called, but afterwards, the verifyPassword page is displayed rather than the chooseOperation page. The console output of WebLogic seems to show that my mapping are correct: INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation.*] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation/] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' Here is the ChooseOperationController: @Controller @SessionAttributes("leaveRequestForm") public class ChooseOperationController implements PageIfc, AttributeIfc { @RequestMapping(value = "/chooseOperation") @ModelAttribute("leaveRequestForm") public LeaveRequest setUpLeaveRequestForm( @RequestParam(NAME_ATTRIBUTE) String name) { LeaveRequest form = populateFormFromDatabase(name); return form; } // helper methods omited } I welcome any advice, particularly "generic" techniques for debugging such mapping problems. BTW, I've also tried to "redirect" to the desired page, but got the same result. servlet-context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <!-- DispatcherServlet Context: defines this servlet's request-processing infrastructure --> <!-- Enables the Spring MVC @Controller programming model --> <annotation-driven /> <!-- Handles HTTP GET requests for /resources/** by efficiently serving up static resources in the ${webappRoot}/resources directory --> <resources mapping="/resources/**" location="/resources/" /> <!-- Resolves views selected for rendering by @Controllers to .jsp resources in the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker" /> <beans:bean id="leaveRequestForm" class="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker.model.LeaveRequest" /> </beans:beans> The constants: String LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE = "loginFailure"; String LOGIN_PAGE = "login"; String CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE = "chooseOperation";

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  • Working with friends. Poor career choice?

    - by a_person
    Hi all, Hope you can help me solve somewhat of a moral dilemma. Some time ago, after just a few years of living in U.S. and having to take any job I could get my hands on a friend of mine submitted recommended me for an open position at the company that he was working for. I could have not been happier. I do not have a degree of any sort, however, by being passionate about CS and with constant drive for self education I've became a somewhat of a strong generalist. Every place I worked for recognized me for that quality and used me on various projects where set of technology in hand had no overlap with set of knowledge of the team members. Rapidly I've advanced to Sr. Programmer position and the trend of me following a friend from one place to another have started and continued on for a few years. My friend's goal always been to become an IT Director, mine is to become the best programmer I can be. To my knowledge I've accommodated his goals as much as I could by taking a back seat, and letting him take the lead. Fast forward to today. He's a manager, and I am on his team. I am unhappy and I in considerable amount of suffering. I am not being utilized to my potential, it's almost exact opposite, I am being micromanaged to an unhealthy extent, my decisions, and suggestions are constantly met with negative connotation. Last week I had to hear about how my friend is a better programmer than I am. My ego was ecstatic about this one /s. In addition to that working in the field of BI have exhausted itself for most parts. The only pleasure of my work is being derived from making everything as dynamic and parameter driven as possible. This is the only area where a friend of mine does not feel competent enough to actually micromanage. Because of my situation I feel a fair amount of guilt and ever growing resentment. I need your advice, maybe you've dealt with this expression of ego before, needs of self vs the needs of your friend. Is working with a friend a poor choice? Thank you for reading in.

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  • Primary language - C++/Qt, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • PHP Regex: How to match anything except a pattern between two tags

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I am attempting to match a string which is composed of HTML. Basically it is an image gallery so there is a lot of similarity in the string. There are a lot of <dl> tags in the string, but I am looking to match the last <dl>(.?)+</dl> combo that comes before a </div>. The way I've devised to do this is to make sure that there aren't any <dl's inside the <dl></dl> combo I'm matching. I don't care what else is there, including other tags and line breaks. I decided I had to do it with regular expressions because I can't predict how long this substring will be or anything that's inside it. Here is my current regex that only returns me an array with two NULL indicies: preg_match_all('/<dl((?!<dl).)+<\/dl>(?=<\/div>)/', $foo, $bar) As you can see I use negative lookahead to try and see if there is another <dl> within this one. I've also tried negative lookbehind here with the same results. I've also tried using +? instead of just + to no avail. Keep in mind that there's no pattern <dl><dl></dl> or anything, but that my regex is either matching the first <dl> and the last </dl> or nothing at all. Now I realize . won't match line breaks but I've tried anything I could imagine there and it still either provides me with the NULL indicies or nearly the whole string (from the very first occurance of <dl to </dl></div>, which includes several other occurances of <dl>, exactly what I didn't want). I honestly don't know what I'm doing incorrectly. Thanks for your help! I've spent over an hour just trying to straighten out this one problem and it's about driven me to pulling my hair out.

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  • Rails learn's confusion

    - by Steve
    This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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  • A standard event messaging system with AJAX?

    - by Gutzofter
    Is there any standards or messaging framework for AJAX? Right now I have a single page that loads content using Ajax. Because I had a complex form for data entry as part of my content, I need to validate certain events that can occur in my form. So after some adjustments driven by my tests: asyncShould("search customer list click", 3, function() { stop(1000); $('#content').show(); var forCustomerList = newCustomerListRequest(); var forShipAndCharge = newShipAndChargeRequest(forCustomerList); forCustomerList.page = '../../vt/' + forCustomerList.page; forShipAndCharge.page = 'helpers/helper.php'; forShipAndCharge.data = { 'action': 'shipAndCharge', 'DB': '11001' }; var originalComplete = forShipAndCharge.complete; forShipAndCharge.complete = function(xhr, status) { originalComplete(xhr, status); ok($('#customer_edit').is(":visible"), 'Shows customer editor'); $('#search').click(); ok($('#customer_list').is(":visible"), 'Shows customer list'); ok($('#customer_edit').is(":hidden"), 'Does not show customer editor'); start(); }; testController.getContent(forShipAndCharge); }); Here is the controller for getting content: getContent: function (request) { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: request.page, dataType: 'json', data: request.data, async: request.async, success: request.success, complete: request.complete }); }, And here is the request event: function newShipAndChargeRequest(serverRequest) { var that = { serverRequest: serverRequest, page: 'nodes/orders/sc.php', data: 'customer_id=-1', complete: errorHandler, success: function(msg) { shipAndChargeHandler(msg); initWhenCustomer(that.serverRequest); }, async: true }; return that; } And here is a success handler: function shipAndChargeHandler(msg) { $('.contentContainer').html(msg.html); if (msg.status == 'flash') { flash(msg.flash); } } And on my server side I end up with a JSON structure that looks like this: $message['status'] = 'success'; $message['data'] = array(); $message['flash'] = ''; $message['html'] = ''; echo json_encode($message); So now loading content consists of two parts: HTML, this is the presentation of the form. DATA, this is any data that needs be loaded for the form FLASH, any validation or server errors STATUS tells client what happened on server. My question is: Is this a valid way to handle event messaging on the client-side or am I going down a path of heartache and pain?

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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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  • When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

    - by smallufo
    I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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  • Primary language - QtC++, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Issues querying Access '07 database in C#

    - by Kye
    I'm doing a .NET unit as part of my studies. I've only just started, with a lecturer that as kinda failed to give me the most solid foundation with .NET, so excuse the noobishness. I'm making a pretty simple and generic database-driven application. I'm using C# and I'm accessing a Microsoft Access 2007 database. I've put the database-ish stuff in its own class with the methods just spitting out OleDbDataAdapters that I use for committing. I feed any methods which preform a query a DataSet object from the main program, which is where I'm keeping the data (multiple tables in the db). I've made a very generic private method that I use to perform SQL SELECT queries and have some public methods wrapping that method to get products, orders.etc (it's a generic retail database). The generic method uses a separate Connect method to actually make the connection, and it is as follows: private static OleDbConnection Connect() { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0; Data Source=C:\Temp\db.accdb"); return conn; } The generic method is as follows: private static OleDbDataAdapter GenericSelectQuery( DataSet ds, string namedTable, String selectString) { OleDbCommand oleCommand = new OleDbCommand(); OleDbConnection conn = Connect(); oleCommand.CommandText = selectString; oleCommand.Connection = conn; oleCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = oleCommand; adapter.MissingSchemaAction = MissingSchemaAction.AddWithKey; adapter.Fill(ds, namedTable); return adapter; } The wrapper methods just pass along the DataSet that they received from the main program, the namedtable string is the name of the table in the dataset, and you pass in the query you wish to make. It doesn't matter which query I give it (even something simple like SELECT * FROM TableName) I still get thrown an OleDbException, stating that there was en error with the FROM clause of the query. I've just resorted to building the queries with Access, but there's still no use. Obviously there's something wrong with my code, which wouldn't actually surprise me. Here are some wrapper methods I'm using. public static OleDbDataAdapter GetOrderLines(DataSet ds) { OleDbDataAdapter adapter = GenericSelectQuery( ds, "orderlines", "SELECT OrderLine.* FROM OrderLine;"); return adapter; } They all look the same, it's just the SQL that changes.

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  • Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

    - by Darien
    Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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  • Dynamic swappable Data Access Layer

    - by Andy
    I'm writing a data driven WPF client. The client will typically pull data from a WCF service, which queries a SQL db, but I'd like the option to pull the data directly from SQL or other arbitrary data sources. I've come up with this design and would like to hear your opinion on whether it is the best design. First, we have some data object we'd like to extract from SQL. // The Data Object with a single property public class Customer { private string m_Name = string.Empty; public string Name { get { return m_Name; } set { m_Name = value;} } } Then I plan on using an interface which all data access layers should implement. Suppose one could also use an abstract class. Thoughts? // The interface with a single method interface ICustomerFacade { List<Customer> GetAll(); } One can create a SQL implementation. // Sql Implementation public class SqlCustomrFacade : ICustomerFacade { public List<Customer> GetAll() { // Query SQL db and return something useful // ... return new List<Customer>(); } } We can also create a WCF implementation. The problem with WCF is is that it doesn't use the same data object. It creates its own local version, so we would have to copy the details over somehow. I suppose one could use reflection to copy the values of similar fields across. Thoughts? // Wcf Implementation public class WcfCustomrFacade : ICustomerFacade { public List<Customer> GetAll() { // Get date from the Wcf Service (not defined here) List<WcfService.Customer> wcfCustomers = wcfService.GetAllCustomers(); // The list we're going to return List<Customer> customers = new List<Customer>(); // This is horrible foreach(WcfService.Customer wcfCustomer in wcfCustomers) { Customer customer = new Customer(); customer.Name = wcfCustomer.Name; customers.Add(customer); } return customers; } } I also plan on using a factory to decide which facade to use. // Factory pattern public class FacadeFactory() { public static ICustomerFacade CreateCustomerFacade() { // Determine the facade to use if (ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["DAL"] == "Sql") return new SqlCustomrFacade(); else return new WcfCustomrFacade(); } } This is how the DAL would typically be used. // Test application public class MyApp { public static void Main() { ICustomerFacade cf = FacadeFactory.CreateCustomerFacade(); cf.GetAll(); } } I appreciate your thoughts and time.

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  • @Transactional in Spring+Hibernate

    - by Arun Kumar
    I an using Spring 3.1 + Hibernate 4.x in my web application. In my DAO, i am saving User type object as following sessionFactory.getCurrentSession().save(user); But getting following exception: org.hibernate.HibernateException: save is not valid without active transaction I googled and found similar question on SO, with following solution: Session session=getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction trans=session.beginTransaction(); session.save(entity); trans.commit(); That solves the problem. But in that solution, there is lot of mess of beginning and committing the transactions manually. Can't i use sessionFactory.getCurrentSession().save(user); directly without begin/commit of transactions manually? I try to use @Transactional on my service/dao methods too, but the problem persists. EDIT : Here is my Hibernate Config File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:tx="http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.1.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx/spring-tx-3.1.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.1.xsd"> <!-- enable the configuration of transactional behavior based on annotations --> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="txManager"/> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource" p:driverClassName="${db.driverClassName}" p:url="${db.url}" p:username="${db.username}" p:password="${db.password}" /> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="packagesToScan" value="com.myapp.entities" /> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <!--Transaction Manager Added --> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager"> <property name="sessionFactory"> <ref bean="sessionFactory" /> </property> </bean> </beans> Please help.

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  • Please Describe Your Struggles with Minimizing Use of Global Variables

    - by MetaHyperBolic
    Most of the programs I write are relatively flowchartable processes, with a defined start and hoped-for end. The problems themselves can be complex but do not readily lean towards central use of objects and event-driven programming. Often, I am simply churning through great varied batches of text data to produce different text data. Only occasionally do I need to create a class: As an example, to track warnings, errors, and debugging message, I created a class (Problems) with one instantiation (myErr), which I believe to be an example of the Singleton design pattern. As a further factor, my colleagues are more old school (procedural) than I and are unacquainted with object-oriented programming, so I am loath to create things they could not puzzle through. And yet I hear, again and again, how even the Singleton design pattern is really an anti-pattern and ought to be avoided because Global Variables Are Bad. Minor functions need few arguments passed to them and have no need to know of configuration (unchanging) or program state (changing) -- I agree. However, the functions in the middle of the chain, which primarily control program flow, have a need for a large number of configuration variables and some program state variables. I believe passing a dozen or more arguments along to a function is a "solution," but hardly an attractive one. I could, of course, cram variables into a single hash/dict/associative array, but that seems like cheating. For instance, connecting to the Active Directory to make a new account, I need such configuration variables as an administrative username, password, a target OU, some default groups, a domain, etc. I would have to pass those arguments down through a variety of functions which would not even use them, merely shuffle them off down through a chain which would eventually lead to the function that actually needs them. I would at least declare the configuration variables to be constant, to protect them, but my language of choice these days (Python) provides no simple manner to do this, though recipes do exist as workarounds. Numerous Stack Overflow questions have hit on the why? of the badness and the requisite shunning, but do not often mention tips on living with this quasi-religious restriction. How have you resolved, or at least made peace with, the issue of global variables and program state? Where have you made compromises? What have your tricks been, aside from shoving around flocks of arguments to functions?

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  • Spring OpenSessionInViewFilter with @Transactional annotation

    - by Gautam
    This is regarding Spring OpenSessionInViewFilter using with @Transactional annotation at service layer. i went through so many stack overflow post on this but still confused about whether i should use OpenSessionInViewFilter or not to avoid LazyInitializationException It would be great help if somebody help me find out answer to below queries. Is it bad practice to use OpenSessionInViewFilter in application having complex schema. using this filter can cause N+1 problem if we are using OpenSessionInViewFilter does it mean @Transactional not required? Below is my Spring config file <context:component-scan base-package="com.test"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="resources/messages" /> <property name="defaultEncoding" value="UTF-8" /> </bean> <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" p:location="/WEB-INF/jdbc.properties" /> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="configLocation"> <value>classpath:hibernate.cfg.xml</value> </property> <property name="configurationClass"> <value>org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration</value> </property> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">${jdbc.dialect}</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <!-- <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">create</prop> --> </props> </property> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven /> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager"> <property name="sessionFactory" ref="sessionFactory" /> </bean>

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  • Spring noHandlerFound

    - by Justin
    I am trying to set up my Spring MVC testing environment. But I always get this noHandlerFound error: Aug 21, 2014 4:43:25 PM org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/restful/firstPage] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring' Aug 21, 2014 4:47:21 PM org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/restful/firstPage2] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring' Aug 21, 2014 5:10:27 PM org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/restful/index.html] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring' I already searched for solution, but none can fix my problem. My spring mvc version: 3.1.3.RELEASE This is my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml </param-value> </context-param> this is my spring-servlet.xml: <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver" p:prefix="/WEB-INF/jsp/" p:suffix=".jsp" /> this is my applicationContext.xml: <context:annotation-config /> <context:component-scan base-package="test.spring" /> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <mvc:resources mapping="/index.html" location="/index.html" /> <mvc:view-controller path="/firstPage" /> This is my Controller: package test.spring; .... @Controller @RequestMapping("/") public class FirstController { @RequestMapping(value = "firstPage2", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String showFirstPage(Map<String,Object> model){ return "firstPage"; } } My server is tomcat 7, there is no error and warning when it is deployed. I also tried this with no luck: <mvc:default-servlet-handler/> Before I start Spring MVC, I can access index.html

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  • Linux fsck.ext3 says "Device or resource busy" although I did not mount the disk.

    - by matnagel
    I am running an ubuntu 8.04 server instance with a 8GB virtual disk on vmware 1.0.9. For disk maintenance I made a copy of the virtual disk (by making a copy of the 2 vmdk files of sda on the stopped vm on the host) and added it to the original vm. Now this vm has it's original virtual disk sda plus a 1:1 copy (sdd). There are 2 additional disk sdb and sdc which I ignore.) I would expect sdb not to be mounted when I start the vm. So I try tp do a ext2 fsck on sdd from the running vm, but it reports fsck reported that sdb was mounted. $ sudo fsck.ext3 -b 8193 /dev/sdd e2fsck 1.40.8 (13-Mar-2008) fsck.ext3: Device or resource busy while trying to open /dev/sdd Filesystem mounted or opened exclusively by another program? The "mount" command does not tell me sdd is mounted: $ sudo mount /dev/sda1 on / type ext3 (rw,relatime,errors=remount-ro) proc on /proc type proc (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) /sys on /sys type sysfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) varrun on /var/run type tmpfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev,mode=0755) varlock on /var/lock type tmpfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev,mode=1777) udev on /dev type tmpfs (rw,mode=0755) devshm on /dev/shm type tmpfs (rw) devpts on /dev/pts type devpts (rw,gid=5,mode=620) /dev/sdc1 on /mnt/r1 type ext3 (rw,relatime,errors=remount-ro) /dev/sdb1 on /mnt/k1 type ext3 (rw,relatime,errors=remount-ro) securityfs on /sys/kernel/security type securityfs (rw) When I ignore the warning and continue the fsck, it reported many errors. How do I get this under control? Is there a better way to figure out if sdd is mounted? Or how is it "busy? How to unmount it then? How to prevent ubuntu from automatically mounting. Or is there something else I am missing? Also from /var/log/syslog I cannot see it is mounted, this is the last part of the startup sequence: kernel: [ 14.229494] ACPI: Power Button (FF) [PWRF] kernel: [ 14.230326] ACPI: AC Adapter [ACAD] (on-line) kernel: [ 14.460136] input: PC Speaker as /devices/platform/pcspkr/input/input3 kernel: [ 14.639366] udev: renamed network interface eth0 to eth1 kernel: [ 14.670187] eth1: link up kernel: [ 16.329607] input: ImPS/2 Generic Wheel Mouse as /devices/platform/i8042/serio1/ kernel: [ 16.367540] parport_pc 00:08: reported by Plug and Play ACPI kernel: [ 16.367670] parport0: PC-style at 0x378, irq 7 [PCSPP,TRISTATE] kernel: [ 19.425637] NET: Registered protocol family 10 kernel: [ 19.437550] lo: Disabled Privacy Extensions kernel: [ 24.328857] loop: module loaded kernel: [ 24.449293] lp0: using parport0 (interrupt-driven). kernel: [ 26.075499] EXT3 FS on sda1, internal journal kernel: [ 28.380299] kjournald starting. Commit interval 5 seconds kernel: [ 28.381706] EXT3 FS on sdc1, internal journal kernel: [ 28.381747] EXT3-fs: mounted filesystem with ordered data mode. kernel: [ 28.444867] kjournald starting. Commit interval 5 seconds kernel: [ 28.445436] EXT3 FS on sdb1, internal journal kernel: [ 28.445444] EXT3-fs: mounted filesystem with ordered data mode. kernel: [ 31.309766] eth1: no IPv6 routers present kernel: [ 35.054268] ip_tables: (C) 2000-2006 Netfilter Core Team mysqld_safe[4367]: started mysqld[4370]: 100124 14:40:21 InnoDB: Started; log sequence number 0 10130914 mysqld[4370]: 100124 14:40:21 [Note] /usr/sbin/mysqld: ready for connections. mysqld[4370]: Version: '5.0.51a-3ubuntu5.4' socket: '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' port: 3 /etc/mysql/debian-start[4417]: Upgrading MySQL tables if necessary. /etc/mysql/debian-start[4422]: Looking for 'mysql' in: /usr/bin/mysql /etc/mysql/debian-start[4422]: Looking for 'mysqlcheck' in: /usr/bin/mysqlcheck /etc/mysql/debian-start[4422]: This installation of MySQL is already upgraded to 5.0.51a, u /etc/mysql/debian-start[4436]: Checking for insecure root accounts. /etc/mysql/debian-start[4444]: Checking for crashed MySQL tables.

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  • PXE-E32 TFTP Open Timeout While Attempting to PXE Boot from Windows Deployment Services

    - by bschafer
    I'm running Windows Deployment Services on Windows Server 2008 R2 on top of an ESX 4.0 box. This is the only function of this VM instance, although it had previously functioned as an AD Domain Controller. My DHCP server is running on our primary Domain Controller, which is also Server 2008 R2, but running on metal. Everything was working perfectly until we recently had our backup generator fail during a power outage, causing all of our servers and networking equipment to lose power for a period of time. When we brought all of our equipment back up, everything was working as expected except for WDS. Our network is split up into several different vlans. Now, depending on which vlan the client computer is on, it's behaving differently when attempting to PXE boot into WDS. Our servers are located on the 10.55.x.x vlan, which, due to the nature of it, has no DHCP server active in it. The first computer we plugged in happened to be in the 10.99.x.x vlan, which is supposed to be reserved for network management devices (i.e. switches), but we've been using it occasionally otherwise. That computer gave us PXE-E11 ARP Timeout errors. When we moved to a different computer on the 10.19.x.x vlan (for general purpose use), it finally gets an IP from DHCP, but it presents us with a very stumping PXE-E32 TFTP Open Timeout error. Before the power outage, it didn't matter which vlan a device was on; it would PXE boot and image just fine. I've made no changes to anything server-side. Everything is configured exactly the same way it was on my WDS and DHCP servers as before the power outage. I've tried several different computers, including different models. All of this, combined with the quirky behavior depending on the vlan, makes me think something went wrong in one or more of our switches, probably because of the power outage. Unfortunately, I'm no network guy, and I know very little about how to configure our switches properly. Is this an issue with switches, etc? If so, how can I fix it? Is there some magical option I'm not aware of? Does anybody out there have any hunches? I've pretty much exhausted my ideas. Our main switch is an HP Procurve 5406. We also have 3x HP Procurve 4208 switches. The ESX Server is an HP ProLiant DL380 G6. The WDS VM is currently using the VMXNET3 network adaptor, but we've also tried the E1000 adaptor.

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  • IIS6 Log time recording problems

    - by Hafthor
    On three separate occasions on two separate servers at nearly the same times, 6.9 hours seemingly went by without any data being written to the IIS logs, but, on closer inspection, it appears that it was all recorded all at once. Here's the facts as I know them: Windows Server 2003 R2 w/ IIS6 Logging using GMT, server local time GMT-7. Application was still operating and I have SQL data to prove that Time gaps appear in log file, not across two # headers appear at gap Load balancer pings every 30 seconds No caching Here's info on a particular case: an entry appears for 2009-09-21 18:09:27 then #headers the next entry is for 2009-09-22 01:21:54, and so are the next 1600 entries in this log file and 370 in the next log file. about half of the ~2000 entries on 2009-09-22 01:21:54 are load balancer pings (est. at 2/min for 6.9hrs = 828 pings) then entries are recorded as normal. I believe that these events may coincide with me deploying an ASP.NET application update into those machines. Here's some relevant content from the logs in question: ex090921.log line 3684 2009-09-21 17:54:40 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:55:11 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:55:42 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:56:13 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 2009-09-21 17:56:45 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 0 #Software: Microsoft Internet Information Services 6.0 #Version: 1.0 #Date: 2009-09-21 18:04:37 #Fields: date time cs-method cs-uri-stem cs-uri-query s-port sc-status sc-substatus sc-win32-status sc-bytes cs-bytes time-taken 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 3078 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 404 0 0 3733 122 109 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 3828 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 278 122 0 ... continues until line 5449 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 <eof> ex090922.log #Software: Microsoft Internet Information Services 6.0 #Version: 1.0 #Date: 2009-09-22 00:00:16 #Fields: date time cs-method cs-uri-stem cs-uri-query s-port sc-status sc-substatus sc-win32-status sc-bytes cs-bytes time-taken 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 ... continues until line 367 2009-09-22 01:04:06 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 2009-09-22 01:04:30 GET /ping.aspx - 80 200 0 0 277 122 0 ... back to normal behavior Note the seemingly correct date/time written to the #header of the new log file. Also note that /ping.aspx returned 404 then switched to 200 just as the problem started. I rename the "I'm alive page" so the load balancer stops sending requests to the server while I'm working on it. What you see here is me renaming it back so the load balancer will use the server. So, this problem definitely coincides with me re-enabling the server. Any ideas?

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  • Prevent Windows 7 User Accounts from accessing files in other User Accounts

    - by Mantis
    I'm trying to set up another User Account on my Windows 7 Professional laptop for use by another person. I do not want that person to have access to any of the files in my User Account on the same machine. This machine has a single hard disk formatted with NTFS. User accounts data is stored in the default location, C:\Users. I use the computer with a Standard Account (not an Administrator). Let's call my user account "User A." I have given the new user a Standard Account. Let's call the new user's account "User B." To be clear, I want User B to have the ability to log in to her account, to use the computer, but to be unable to access any of the files in the User A account on the same machine. Currently, User B cannot use Windows Explorer to navigate to the location C:\Users\User A. However, by simply using Windows Search, User B can easily find and open documents saved in C:\Users\User A\Documents. After opening a document, that document's full path appears in "Recent Places" in Windows Explorer, and the document appears as a file that can be opened using the "Recent" feature in Word 2010. This is not the desired behavior. User B should not have the ability to see any documents using Windows Search or anything else. I have attempted to set permissions using the following procedure. Using an Administrator account, navigate to C:\Users and right-click on the "User A" folder. Select "Properties." In the "User A Properties" window that appears, click the "Security" tab. Click the "Edit..." button to change permissions. IN the "Permissions for User B" window that appears, under "Group or User Names," select User B. Under "Permissions for User B", check the box under the "Deny" column for the "Full Control" row. Ensure that the "Deny" box is automatically checked for all the other rows, and then click "OK." The system should then begin working. The process could take several minutes. When I followed this procedure, I received several "Access Denied" errors, suggesting that the system was unable to set the permissions as I had directed. I think this might be one of the reasons why User B is still able to access files in User A's account folders. Is there any other way I could accomplish my goal here? Thank you.

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  • Touch gestures in IE not working without explorer.exe being run once

    - by Michael
    Edit: Rephrasing my question: Upon further troubleshooting, I can conclude that: Touch gestures (dragging, pinch to zoom, touch-and-hold right click) in Internet Explorer start to work when: The system has been running for ~2 minutes. This coincides with the delayed start of services. Explorer.exe is being run, then killed. I assume Explorer.exe starts some services? The services with delayed start are as follows: Security Center Software Protection Windows Defender, Search and Update Windows Font Cache Service Microsoft .NET Framework NGEN v4.0.30319_X64 and X86 I see no connection between these services and touch gestures, but just in case, I manually tried starting these services, but without luck. What else happens delayed after system boot, which also happens when explorer is started? Old question: Details: Internet Explorer 9 and Windows 7 Professional, running on a HP TouchSmart (touch screen PC). It is going to be a kiosk PC (running a custom GUI for displaying websites). Scenario 1: When running Internet Explorer as a normal program in Windows 7, touch functions work perfectly. I can scroll the website by dragging it with my finger, I can pinch zoom and I can touch-and-hold right click. I now change the default shell in Windows to Internet Explorer (ie. IE starts instead of explorer.exe). Internet Explorer of course starts up when logging in. However, touch functions are reduced to basic clicking (no dragging, no pinch zooming, no touch-and-hold right click). Then I manually start explorer.exe, and the touch functions work again! And here is the weird part: When I kill explorer.exe, the touch functions keeps working - even if I close IE and start a new instance. Scenario 2: The exact same, but instead of changing the default shell to Internet Explorer, I change it to my own program, which uses an embedded Internet Explorer ("WebBrowser"). Same thing happens. What I've tried: Autorun programs: When explorer.exe launches, it launches all the autorun programs. There are no relevant programs being run by explorer, but just in case, I have manually started all the autorun programs, so that it is identical (but without explorer.exe) to a normal login. It still does not work (until I launch explorer.exe). Specifically TabTip.exe, TabTip32.exe and wisptis.exe are all running. All services are also started. To sum it up Running explorer.exe once changes something in the touch capabilities of Internet Explorer. It doesn't matter if explorer.exe is running - as long as it has been run once. Does anyone know what causes this behavior? Or how I can circumvent it neatly?

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  • Apache2 cgi's crash on odbc db access (but run fine from shell)

    - by Martin
    Problem overview (details below): I'm having an apache2 + ruby integration problem when trying to connect to an ODBC data source. The main problem boils down to the fact that scripts that run fine from an interactive shell crash ruby on the database connect line when run as a cgi from apache2. Ruby cgi's that don't try to access the ODBC datasource work fine. And (again) ruby scripts that connect to a database with ODBC do fine when executed from the command line (or cron). This behavior is identical when I use perl instead of ruby. So, the issue seems to be with the environment provided for ruby (perl) by apache2, but I can't figure out what is wrong or what to do about it. Does anyone have any suggestions on how to get these cgi scripts to work properly? I've tried many different things to get this to work, and I'm happy to provide more detail of any aspect if that will help. Details: Mac OS X Server 10.5.8 Xserve 2 x 2.66 Dual-Core Intel Xeon (12 GB) Apache 2.2.13 ruby 1.8.6 (2008-08-11 patchlevel 287) [universal-darwin9.0] ruby-odbc 0.9997 dbd-odbc (0.2.5) dbi (0.4.3) mod_ruby 1.3.0 Perl -- 5.8.8 DBI -- 1.609 DBD::ODBC -- 1.23 odbc driver: DataDirect SequeLink v5.5 (/Library/ODBC/SequeLink.bundle/Contents/MacOS/ivslk20.dylib) odbc datasource: FileMaker Server 10 (v10.0.2.206) ) a minimal version of a script (anonymized) that will crash in apache but run successfully from a shell: #!/usr/bin/ruby require 'cgi' require 'odbc' cgi = CGI.new("html3") aConnection = ODBC::connect('DBFile', "username", 'password') aQuery = aConnection.prepare("SELECT zzz_kP_ID FROM DBTable WHERE zzz_kP_ID = 81044") aQuery.execute aRecord = aQuery.fetch_hash.inspect aQuery.drop aConnection.disconnect # aRecord = '{"zzz_kP_ID"=>81044.0}' cgi.out{ cgi.html{ cgi.body{ "<pre>Primary Key: #{aRecord}</pre>" } } } Example of running this from a shell: gamma% ./minimal.rb (offline mode: enter name=value pairs on standard input) Content-Type: text/html Content-Length: 134 <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 3.2 Final//EN"><HTML><BODY><pre>Primary Key: {"zzz_kP_ID"=>81044.0}</pre></font></BODY></HTML>% gamma% ) typical crash log lines: Dec 22 14:02:38 gamma ReportCrash[79237]: Formulating crash report for process perl[79236] Dec 22 14:02:38 gamma ReportCrash[79237]: Saved crashreport to /Library/Logs/CrashReporter/perl_2009-12-22-140237_HTCF.crash using uid: 0 gid: 0, euid: 0 egid: 0 Dec 22 14:03:13 gamma ReportCrash[79256]: Formulating crash report for process perl[79253] Dec 22 14:03:13 gamma ReportCrash[79256]: Saved crashreport to /Library/Logs/CrashReporter/perl_2009-12-22-140311_HTCF.crash using uid: 0 gid: 0, euid: 0 egid: 0

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  • Monitoring slow nginx/unicorn requests

    - by injekt
    I'm currently using Nginx to proxy requests to a Unicorn server running a Sinatra application. The application only has a couple of routes defined, those of which make fairly simple (non costly) queries to a PostgreSQL database, and finally return data in JSON format, these services are being monitored by God. I'm currently experiencing extremely slow response times from this application server. I have another two Unicorn servers being proxied via Nginx, and these are responding perfectly fine, so I think I can rule out any wrong doing from Nginx. Here is my God configuration: # God configuration APP_ROOT = File.expand_path '../', File.dirname(__FILE__) God.watch do |w| w.name = "app_name" w.interval = 30.seconds # default w.start = "cd #{APP_ROOT} && unicorn -c #{APP_ROOT}/config/unicorn.rb -D" # -QUIT = graceful shutdown, waits for workers to finish their current request before finishing w.stop = "kill -QUIT `cat #{APP_ROOT}/tmp/unicorn.pid`" w.restart = "kill -USR2 `cat #{APP_ROOT}/tmp/unicorn.pid`" w.start_grace = 10.seconds w.restart_grace = 10.seconds w.pid_file = "#{APP_ROOT}/tmp/unicorn.pid" # User under which to run the process w.uid = 'web' w.gid = 'web' # Cleanup the pid file (this is needed for processes running as a daemon) w.behavior(:clean_pid_file) # Conditions under which to start the process w.start_if do |start| start.condition(:process_running) do |c| c.interval = 5.seconds c.running = false end end # Conditions under which to restart the process w.restart_if do |restart| restart.condition(:memory_usage) do |c| c.above = 150.megabytes c.times = [3, 5] # 3 out of 5 intervals end restart.condition(:cpu_usage) do |c| c.above = 50.percent c.times = 5 end end w.lifecycle do |on| on.condition(:flapping) do |c| c.to_state = [:start, :restart] c.times = 5 c.within = 5.minute c.transition = :unmonitored c.retry_in = 10.minutes c.retry_times = 5 c.retry_within = 2.hours end end end Here is my Unicorn configuration: # Unicorn configuration file APP_ROOT = File.expand_path '../', File.dirname(__FILE__) worker_processes 8 preload_app true pid "#{APP_ROOT}/tmp/unicorn.pid" listen 8001 stderr_path "#{APP_ROOT}/log/unicorn.stderr.log" stdout_path "#{APP_ROOT}/log/unicorn.stdout.log" before_fork do |server, worker| old_pid = "#{APP_ROOT}/tmp/unicorn.pid.oldbin" if File.exists?(old_pid) && server.pid != old_pid begin Process.kill("QUIT", File.read(old_pid).to_i) rescue Errno::ENOENT, Errno::ESRCH # someone else did our job for us end end end I have checked God status logs but it appears CPU and Memory Usage are never out of bounds. I also have something to kill high memory workers, which can be found on the GitHub blog page here. When running a tail -f on the Unicorn logs I see some requests, but they're far and few between, when I was at around 60-100 a second before this trouble seemed to have arrived. This log also shows workers being reaped and started as expected. So my question is, how would I go about debugging this? What are the next steps I should be taking? I'm extremely baffled that the server will sometimes respond quickly, but at others time it's very slow, for long periods of time (which may or may not be peak traffic times). Any advice is much appreciated.

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