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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • Explicit localization problem

    - by X-Dev
    when trying to translate the confirmation message to Norwegian i get the following error: Cannot have more than one binding on property 'OnClientClick' on 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton'. Ensure that this property is not bound through an implicit expression, for example, using meta:resourcekey. i use Explicit localization in the following manner: <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkMarkInvoiced" runat="server" OnClick="lnkMarkInvoiced_OnClick" OnClientClick="<%# Resources: lnkMarkInvoicedResource.OnClientClick%>" Visible="False" CssClass="stdtext" meta:resourcekey="lnkMarkInvoicedResource" ></asp:LinkButton> here's the local resource file entry: <data name="lnkMarkInvoicedResource.OnClientClick" xml:space="preserve"> <value>return confirm('Er du sikker?');</value> if i remove the meta attribute i get the English text(default). how do i get the Norwegian text appearing without resorting to using the code behind? Update: removing the meta attribute prevents the exception from occurring but the original problem still exists. I can't get the Norwegian text to show. only the default English text shows. Another Update: I know this question is getting old but i still can't get the Norwegian text to display. If anyone has some tips please post a response.

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  • How to get root as '/' with Kohana3, base_url and mod rewrite.

    - by Drew
    Hi all! I've only just started using Kohana ( 3 hours ago), and so far it's blown my socks off (and I'm wearing slippers, so that's quite impressive). Right now, I have a controller 'Controller_FrontPage' with associated views and models and I'm trying to get it accesible from the root of my website (eg, http://www.mysite.com/). If I edit the default controller in the bootstrap from: Route::set('default', '(<controller>(/<action>(/<id>)))') ->defaults(array( 'controller' => 'welcome', 'action' => 'index', )); to 'controller' => '', I get an error, could not find controller_ (which makes sense), and if I change it to 'controller' => '/', I get an error, could not find controller_/ (which also makes sense). If I set 'controller' => 'FrontPage', everything works fine, but all my links (html::anchor(...)) point to http://www.mysite.com/FrontPage/*. Is there a way to have all the anchors point to http://www.mysite.com/*?

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  • How do I configure multiple Ubuntu Python installations to avoid App Engine's SSL error?

    - by Linc
    I have Karmic Koala which has Python 2.6 installed by default. However I can't run any Python App Engine projects because they require Python 2.5 and python ssl. To install ssl I installed python2.5-dev first while following some instructions I found elsewhere. sudo apt-get install libssl-dev sudo apt-get install python-setuptools sudo apt-get install python2.5-dev sudo easy_install-2.5 pyopenssl However, I am afraid this is not good for my Ubuntu installation since Ubuntu expects to see version 2.6 of Python when you type 'python' on the command line. Instead, it says '2.5.5'. I tried to revert to the original default version of Python by doing this: sudo apt-get remove python2.5-dev But that didn't seem to do anything either - when I type 'python' on the command line it still say 2.5.5. And App Engine still doesn't work after all this. I continue to get an SSL-related error whenever I try to run my Python app: AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'HTTPSHandler' UPDATE: Just checked whether SSL actually installed as a result of those commands by typing this: $ python2.5 Python 2.5.5 (r255:77872, Apr 29 2010, 23:59:20) [GCC 4.4.1] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import ssl Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named ssl >>> As you can see, SSL is still not installed, which explains the continuing App Engine error. If anyone knows how I can dig myself out of this hole, I would appreciate it.

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  • Conditionally overriding a system method via categories in Objective-C?

    - by adib
    Hi Is there a way to provide a method implementation (that bears the exact same name of a method defined by the framework) only when the method isn't already defined in the system? For example method [NSSomeClass someMethod:] exists only in Mac OS X 10.6 and if my app runs in 10.5, I will provide that method's definition in a category. But when the app runs in 10.6, I want the OS-provided method to run. Background: I'm creating an app targeted for both 10.5 and 10.6. The problem is that I recently realized that method +[NSSortDescriptor sortDescriptorWithKey:ascending:] only exists in 10.6 and my code is already littered by that method call. I could provide a default implementation for it (since this time it's not too difficult to implement it myself), but I want the "native" one to be called whenever my app runs on 10.6. Furthermore if I encounter similar problems in the future (with more difficult-to-implement-myself methods), I might not be able to get away with providing a one-liner replacement. This question vaguely similar to Override a method via ObjC Category and call the default implementation? but the difference is that I want to provide implementations only when the system doesn't already has one. Thanks.

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  • phpUnit - mock php extended exception object

    - by awongh
    I'm testing some legacy code that extends the default php exception object. This code prints out a custom HTML error message. I would like to mock this exception object in such a way that when the tested code generates an exception it will just echo the basic message instead of giving me the whole HTML message. I cannot figure out a way to do this. It seems like you can test for explicit exceptions, but you can't change in a general way the behavior of an exception, and you also can't mock up an object that extends a default php functionality. ( can't think of another example of this beyond exceptions... but it would seem to be the case ) I guess the problem is, where would you attach the mocked object?? It seems like you can't interfere with 'throw new' and this is the place that the object method is called.... Or if you could somehow use the existing phpunit exception functionality to change the exception behavior the way you want, in a general way for all your code... but this seems like it would be hacky and bad....

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  • Debug not working in Monodroid with a Galaxy Nexus

    - by MaxM
    I'm starting to work with Monodroid testing on a Galaxy Nexus from MonoDevelop for Mac. Running the default Android project without debugging works. But if I try to debug it either says this in the Application Output pane: Error trying to detect already running process Or it outputs the following to logcat: I/ActivityManager( 448): Start proc monotest.monotest for activity monotest.monotest/monotest.Activity1: pid=3075 uid=10068 gids={3003} D/dalvikvm( 3063): GC_CONCURRENT freed 98K, 89% free 478K/4096K, paused 0ms+1ms I/dalvikvm( 3075): Turning on JNI app bug workarounds for target SDK version 8... V/PhoneStatusBar( 524): setLightsOn(true) I/ActivityThread( 3075): Pub monotest.monotest.__mono_init__: mono.MonoRuntimeProvider D/dalvikvm( 3075): Trying to load lib /data/data/monotest.monotest/lib/libmonodroid.so 0x41820850 D/dalvikvm( 3075): Added shared lib /data/data/monotest.monotest/lib/libmonodroid.so 0x41820850 D/OpenGLRenderer( 683): Flushing caches (mode 1) E/mono ( 3075): WARNING: The runtime version supported by this application is unavailable. E/mono ( 3075): Using default runtime: v2.0.50727 D/OpenGLRenderer( 683): Flushing caches (mode 0) I/monodroid-gc( 3075): environment supports jni NewWeakGlobalRef I/mono ( 3075): Stacktrace: I/mono ( 3075): D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): >>>>>> AndroidRuntime START com.android.internal.os.RuntimeInit <<<<<< D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): CheckJNI is OFF D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): Calling main entry com.android.commands.am.Am D/dalvikvm( 3021): GC_CONCURRENT freed 359K, 3% free 15630K/16071K, paused 2ms+4ms D/Zygote ( 119): Process 3075 terminated by signal (11) I/ActivityManager( 448): Process monotest.monotest (pid 3075) has died. I tried using another device (a Galaxy Tab) and it worked fine. I also tried the suggestion from here and it didn't help.

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  • Long running transactions with Spring and Hibernate?

    - by jimbokun
    The underlying problem I want to solve is running a task that generates several temporary tables in MySQL, which need to stay around long enough to fetch results from Java after they are created. Because of the size of the data involved, the task must be completed in batches. Each batch is a call to a stored procedure called through JDBC. The entire process can take half an hour or more for a large data set. To ensure access to the temporary tables, I run the entire task, start to finish, in a single Spring transaction with a TransactionCallbackWithoutResult. Otherwise, I could get a different connection that does not have access to the temporary tables (this would happen occasionally before I wrapped everything in a transaction). This worked fine in my development environment. However, in production I got the following exception: java.sql.SQLException: Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction This happened when a different task tried to access some of the same tables during the execution of my long running transaction. What confuses me is that the long running transaction only inserts or updates into temporary tables. All access to non-temporary tables are selects only. From what documentation I can find, the default Spring transaction isolation level should not cause MySQL to block in this case. So my first question, is this the right approach? Can I ensure that I repeatedly get the same connection through a Hibernate template without a long running transaction? If the long running transaction approach is the correct one, what should I check in terms of isolation levels? Is my understanding correct that the default isolation level in Spring/MySQL transactions should not lock tables that are only accessed through selects? What can I do to debug which tables are causing the conflict, and prevent those tables from being locked by the transaction?

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  • why DataColumn AllowDbNull is true even if oracle db does not allow null

    - by matti
    Hi. I have column SomeId in table SomeLink. When I look with tOra or Sql Plus Worksheet both state: tOra: Column name Data type Default Null Comment SOMEID INTEGER {null} NOT NULL {null} Sql Plus: SOMEID NOT NULL NUMBER(38) I have authored a method that's intended to give default values to all NOT NULL fields that don't have values: public static void GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(DataRow row) { foreach(DataColumn col in row.Table.Columns) { if (Convert.IsDBNull(row[col]) && !col.AllowDBNull) { if (ColumnIsNumeric(col.DataType)) row[col] = 0; else if (col.DataType == typeof(DateTime)) row[col] = DateTime.Now; else if (col.DataType == typeof(String)) row[col] = string.Empty; else if (col.DataType == typeof(Char)) row[col] = ' '; else throw new Exception(string.Format("Unsupported column type: {0}", col.DataType)); } } } When SOMEID is handled in loop the AllowDBNull = true. I really can't understand. The table is created in DataSet like this: _someLinkAdptr = _dbFactory.CreateDataAdapter(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand = _dbFactory.CreateCommand(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.Connection = _cnctn; _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.CommandText = GetSomeLinkSelectTxtAndParams(_someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand, UndefinedValue.ToString(), UndefinedValue.ToString()); Select command returns no rows. The idea is that I can then use commandbuilder to get InsertCommand without building it myself. The row is added to dataset's table like this: private static void CreateDocLink(int anId, int anotherId) { DataRow row = _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].NewRow(); row["AnId"] = anId; row["AnotherId"] = anotherId; Utility.GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(row); _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].Rows.Add(row); } When DataAdapter is updated to oracle db I get: ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into (SOMESCHEMA.SOMELINK.SOMEID) Cheers & BR -Matti

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  • Text message intent - catch and send

    - by Espen
    Hi! I want to be able to control incoming text messages. My application is still on a "proof of concept" version and I'm trying to learn Android programming as I go. First my application need to catch incomming text messages. And if the message is from a known number then deal with it. If not, then send the message as nothing has happened to the default text message application. I have no doubt it can be done, but I still have some concern and I see some pitfalls at how things are done on Android. So getting the incomming text message could be fairly easy - except when there are other messaging applications installed and maybe the user wants to have normal text messages to pop up on one of them - and it will, after my application has had a look at it first. How to be sure my application get first pick of incomming text messages? And after that I need to send most text messages through to any other text message application the user has chosen so the user can actually read the message my application didn't need. Since Android uses intents that are relative at best, I don't see how I can enforce my application to get a peek at all incomming text messages, and then stop it or send it through to the default text messaging application...

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  • Is there a language with native pass-by-reference/pass-by-name semantics, which could be used in mod

    - by Bubba88
    Hi! This is a reopened question. I look for a language and supporting platform for it, where the language could have pass-by-reference or pass-by-name semantics by default. I know the history a little, that there were Algol, Fortran and there still is C++ which could make it possible; but, basically, what I look for is something more modern and where the mentioned value pass methodology is preferred and by default (implicitly assumed). I ask this question, because, to my mind, some of the advantages of pass-by-ref/name seem kind of obvious. For example when it is used in a standalone agent, where copyiong of values is not necessary (to some extent) and performance wouldn't be downgraded much in that case. So, I could employ it in e.g. rich client app or some game-style or standalone service-kind application. The main advantage to me is the clear separation between identity of a symbol, and its current value. I mean when there is no reduntant copying, you know that you're working with the exact symbol/path you have queried/received. And intristing boxing of values will not interfere with the actual logic of program. I know that there is C# ref keyword, but it's something not so intristic, though acceptable. Equally, I realize that pass-by-reference semantics could be simulated in virtually any language (Java as an instant example) and so on.. not sure about pass by name :) What would you recommend - create a something like DSL for such needs wherever it be appropriate; or use some languages that I already know? Maybe, there is something that I'm missing? Thank you!

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  • copy rows before updating them to preserve archive in Postgres

    - by punkish
    I am experimenting with creating a table that keeps a version of every row. The idea is to be able to query for how the rows were at any point in time even if the query has JOINs. Consider a system where the primary resource is books, that is, books are queried for, and author info comes along for the ride CREATE TABLE authors ( author_id INTEGER NOT NULL, version INTEGER NOT NULL CHECK (version > 0), author_name TEXT, is_active BOOLEAN DEFAULT '1', modified_on TIMESTAMP DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, PRIMARY KEY (author_id, version) ) INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (1, 1, 'John'), (2, 1, 'Jack'), (3, 1, 'Ernest'); I would like to be able to update the above like so UPDATE authors SET author_name = 'Jack K' WHERE author_id = 1; and end up with 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 2, 2, Jack K, t, 2012-03-29 21:37:40 which I can then query with SELECT author_name, modified_on FROM authors WHERE author_id = 2 AND modified_on < '2012-03-29 21:37:00' ORDER BY version DESC LIMIT 1; to get 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 Something like the following doesn't really work CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION archive_authors() RETURNS TRIGGER AS $archive_author$ BEGIN IF (TG_OP = 'UPDATE') THEN -- The following fails because author_id,version PK already exists INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (OLD.author_id, OLD.version, OLD.author_name); UPDATE authors SET version = OLD.version + 1 WHERE author_id = OLD.author_id AND version = OLD.version; RETURN NEW; END IF; RETURN NULL; -- result is ignored since this is an AFTER trigger END; $archive_author$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; CREATE TRIGGER archive_author AFTER UPDATE OR DELETE ON authors FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE archive_authors(); How can I achieve the above? Or, is there a better way to accomplish this? Ideally, I would prefer to not create a shadow table to store the archived rows.

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  • Problem with document.location.href

    - by novellino
    Hello, I am new to Javascript and Web development and I have a question regarding the document.location.href. I am using a cookie for storing the language the user prefers and then load the english or the swedish version depending on the language. The default language in the beginning is the same as the browser's language, and my index.jsp is the swedish one. The first time everything works fine. The problem is when the cookie exists already. The basic code is: if (language!=null && language!=""){ if (language=="en-US" || language=="en-us") document.location.href = "en/index.jsp"; } else{ //Explorer if (navigator.userLanguage) language = navigator.userLanguage; //other browsers else language = (navigator.language) ? navigator.language : navigator.userLanguage; if (language!=null && language!=""){ setCookie('language', language, 365, '/', 'onCheck'); if (language=="en-US" || language=="en-us") document.location.href = "en/index.jsp"; else if(language=="sv") document.location.href="index.jsp"; } } When the cookie exists we enter the first "if", and there, if the language is swedish it opens the default blabla/index.jsp page. When the language is set to engish it should open the blabla/en/index.jsp but instead it opens the blabla/en/en/index.jsp which of course is wrong. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong?? Thanks

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  • Images logging as 404s with Zend Framework

    - by azz0r
    Hello, Due to Zend rewriting URL's to module/controller/action, its reporting that images are coming through as a 404. Here is the error: [_requestUri:protected] => /images/Movie/124/thumb/main.png [_baseUrl:protected] => [_basePath:protected] => [_pathInfo:protected] => /images/Movie/124/thumb/main.png [_params:protected] => Array ( [controller] => images [action] => Movie [124] => thumb [module] => default ) [_rawBody:protected] => [_aliases:protected] => Array ( ) [_dispatched:protected] => 1 [_module:protected] => default [_moduleKey:protected] => module [_controller:protected] => images [_controllerKey:protected] => controller [_action:protected] => Movie [_actionKey:protected] => action Here is my HTACCESS SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ index.php [NC,L] I guess what I need todo is put some sort of image or /design detection so its not routing to index.php Ideas?

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  • Unable to ping server from client B but able to ping from client A. Please help

    - by Soundar Rajan
    This is not really a programming question, but I am at my wit's end ... I am trying to configure a IIS 6.0/Windows Server 2003 web server with a ASP.net application. When I try to ping the server from client computer A I get the following: PING 74.208.192.xxx ==> Ping fails PING 74.208.192.xxx:80 ==> Ping succeeds! From client computer B, BOTH the pings fail. PING 74.208.192.xxx ==> Ping fails PING 74.208.192.xxx:80 ==> Ping fails with a message "Ping request could not find host 74.208.192.xxx:80" Both clients A and B are on the same subnet. The server is outside (a virtual server hosted by an ISP) I have an ASP.NET application in a virtual directory on the server. In IE or firefox, if I enter http://74.208.192.xxx/subdir/subdir/../Default.aspx, it works from both the clients! The server has default firewall settings but web server enabled (Port 80 is open).

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  • Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

    - by kevinjansz
    In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

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  • How can I properly handle 404s in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Brian
    I am just getting started on ASP.NET MVC so bear with me. I've searched around this site and various others and have seen a few implementations of this. EDIT: I forgot to mention I am using RC2 Using URL Routing: routes.MapRoute( "Error", "{*url}", new { controller = "Errors", action = "NotFound" } //404s ); The above seems to take care of requests like this (assuming default route tables setup by initial MVC project): "/blah/blah/blah/blah" Overriding HandleUnknownAction() in the controller itself: //404s - handle here (bad action requested protected override void HandleUnknownAction(string actionName) { ViewData["actionName"] = actionName; View("NotFound").ExecuteResult(this.ControllerContext); } However the previous strategies do not handle a request to a Bad/Unknown controller. For example, I do not have a "/IDoNotExist", if I request this I get the generic 404 page from the web server and not my 404 if I use routing + override. So finally, my question is: Is there any way to catch this type of request using a route or something else in the MVC framework itself? OR should I just default to using Web.Config customErrors as my 404 handler and forget all this? I assume if I go with customErrors I'll have to store the generic 404 page outside of /Views due to the Web.Config restrictions on direct access. Anyway any best practices or guidance is appreciated.

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  • UITouch Events and Table Views

    - by Andy
    I'm working on a navigation-based iPhone-only app that serves two main purposes: One, to present data in a hierarchical view, allowing users to drill down and eventually edit said data, and, two, to all users to perform a default action when the table view cell is tapped. I now need to offer a small set of options tied to the same data; however, both the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: and accessoryButtonTappedForRowAtIndexPath: methods are obviously taken. So, my options seem to be to implement a double-tap method, wherein the small list of additional options would be presented after (you guessed it) a double-tap on said table row; or, preferably, a tap-and-hold method. From what I can tell, tap-and-hold seems like the way to go in SDK 4.0 - which does me no good right this red-hot minute. I decided to go with the double-tap option, but I'm having a little trouble. First and foremost, the touchesBegan:withEvent: method does not seem to be getting called at all; a breakpoint placed within the method is never called while the application runs, and the table view responds exactly as it did before I inserted the method (which is to say, it performs the default action): - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *aTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (aTouch.tapCount == 2) { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } } Second, I don't really need to handle a single-tap - the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: method can handle the single-tap just fine. The double-tap is the funky one I want to handle. I suspect the answer is going to contain the phrase, "You can't have the table view handle the single-tap and the touchesBegan: method handle the double-tap. The touch handling methods have to handle all of them." I would really appreciate some guidance from some of you who've dealt with this issue. Thanks in advance.

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  • SIGABRT on iPhone when changing xib

    - by Boz
    I've just finished off an app for the iPhone which, until today, ran fine on the iPhone simulator and actual devices. I tried changing the xib which is loaded in the applicationDidFinishLaunching method in my application delegate class - all I did was change the string in initWithNibName. When I launch the app on the simulator, the Default.png image is shown, then the app crashes with an uncaught exception. When running on a device, the Default.png image is shown for about 10 seconds, the UI is never loaded and I get 'GDB: Program received signal: "SIGABRT".' on the Xcode status bar. Debugging shows that applicationDidFinishLaunching is never actually reached before the app crashes. Setting the starting xib back to the original solves the issue, but now I've made a change and saved it in the Interface Builder and the app shows the same issues as above - I've made no code changes at all. Is this a memory issue, or a known issue of a common mistake? NOTE: I've made no code changes whatsoever, and the only changes I've made to the xib are cosmetic, the IBOutlets are all intact.

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  • How do I set up routes to enable me to call different actions on the same controller?

    - by Remnant
    I am building my first asp.net mvc application for learning and development purposes and have come across an issue that I'd like some guidance with. Suppose I have a controller with two actions as follows: public class MyController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { dbData = GetData("DefaultParameter") return View(dbData); } public ActionResult UpdateView(string dbParameter) { dbData = GetData("dbParameter"); return View(dbData); } } On my webpage I have the following: <% using (Html.BeginForm("UpdateView", "MyController")) %> <% { %> <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("Selection", Model.List, new { onchange="this.form.submit();" })%></div> <% } %> I have the following route in Global.asax: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}", new { controller = "MyController", action = "Index"}); } The issue I am having is as follows: When I use the dropdownlist I get an error saying that /MyController/UpdateView could not be found. It therefore seems that I need to add an additional route as follows: routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}", new { controller = "MyController", action = "UpdateView"}); However, this causes two new issues for me: Due to the hierachy within the routing list, the similarity of the routes means that the one that appears first in the list is always executed. I don't see why I need to create another route for UpdateView. All I want to do is to retrieve new data from the database and update the view. I don't see what this has to do with the URL schema. It feels like I have gone down the wrong track here and I have missed something quite fundamental?

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  • Precision of Interval for PL/SQL Function value

    - by Gary
    Generally, when you specify a function the scale/precision/size of the return datatype is undefined. For example, you say FUNCTION show_price RETURN NUMBER or FUNCTION show_name RETURN VARCHAR2. You are not allowed to have FUNCTION show_price RETURN NUMBER(10,2) or FUNCTION show_name RETURN VARCHAR2(20), and the function return value is unrestricted. This is documented functionality. Now, I get an precision error (ORA-01873) if I push 9999 hours (about 400 days) into the following. The limit is because the default days precision is 2 DECLARE v_int INTERVAL DAY (4) TO SECOND(0); FUNCTION hhmm_to_interval return INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND IS v_hhmm INTERVAL DAY (4) TO SECOND(0); BEGIN v_hhmm := to_dsinterval('PT9999H'); RETURN v_hhmm; -- END hhmm_to_interval; BEGIN v_int := hhmm_to_interval; end; / and it won't allow the precision to be specified directly as part of the datatype returned by the function. DECLARE v_int INTERVAL DAY (4) TO SECOND(0); FUNCTION hhmm_to_interval return INTERVAL DAY (4) TO SECOND IS v_hhmm INTERVAL DAY (4) TO SECOND(0); BEGIN v_hhmm := to_dsinterval('PT9999H'); RETURN v_hhmm; -- END hhmm_to_interval; BEGIN v_int := hhmm_to_interval; end; / I can use a SUBTYPE DECLARE subtype t_int is INTERVAL DAY (4) TO SECOND(0); v_int INTERVAL DAY (4) TO SECOND(0); FUNCTION hhmm_to_interval return t_int IS v_hhmm INTERVAL DAY (4) TO SECOND(0); BEGIN v_hhmm := to_dsinterval('PT9999H'); RETURN v_hhmm; -- END hhmm_to_interval; BEGIN v_int := hhmm_to_interval; end; / Any drawbacks to the subtype approach ? Any alternatives (eg some place to change a default precision) ? Working with 10gR2.

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  • Fetch the most viewed data in databases

    - by Erik Edgren
    I want to get the most viewed photo from the database but I don't know how I shall accomplish this. Here's my SQL at the moment: SELECT * FROM photos AS p, viewers AS v WHERE p.id = v.id_photo GROUP BY v.id_photo The databases: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `photos` ( `id` int(10) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `photo_filename` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `photo_camera` varchar(150) NOT NULL, `photo_taken` datetime NOT NULL, `photo_resolution` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_exposure` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_iso` varchar(3) NOT NULL, `photo_fnumber` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_focallength` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `post_coordinates` text NOT NULL, `post_description` text NOT NULL, `post_uploaded` datetime NOT NULL, `post_edited` datetime NOT NULL, `checkbox_approxcoor` enum('0','1') NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`id`) ) CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `viewers` ( `id` int(10) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `id_photo` int(10) DEFAULT '0', `ipaddress` text NOT NULL, `date_viewed` datetime NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`id`) ) The data in viewers looks like this: (1, 85, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'), (2, 84, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'), (3, 85, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'); One single row from the database for photos to understand how the rows looks like in this database: (85, 'P1170986.JPG', 'Panasonic DMC-LX3', '2012-06-19 18:00:40', '3968x2232', '10/8000', '80', '50/10', '51/10', '', '', '2012-06-19 18:45:17', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '0') At the moment the SQL only prints the photo with ID 84. In this case it's wrong - it should print out the photo with ID 85. How can I fix this problem? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to query MySQL for exact length and exact UTF-8 characters

    - by oskarae
    I have table with words dictionary in my language (latvian). CREATE TABLE words ( value varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; And let's say it has 3 words inside: INSERT INTO words (value) VALUES ('teja'); INSERT INTO words (value) VALUES ('vejš'); INSERT INTO words (value) VALUES ('feja'); What I want to do is I want to find all words that is exactly 4 characters long and where second character is 'e' and third character is 'j' For me it feels that correct query would be: SELECT * FROM words WHERE value LIKE '_ej_'; But problem with this query is that it returs not 2 entries ('teja','vejš') but all three. As I understand it is because internally MySQL converts strings to some ASCII representation? Then there is BINARY addition possible for LIKE SELECT * FROM words WHERE value LIKE BINARY '_ej_'; But this also does not return 2 entries ('teja','vejš') but only one ('teja'). I believe this has something to do with UTF-8 2 bytes for non ASCII chars? So question: What MySQL query would return my exact two words ('teja','vejš')? Thank you in advance

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  • Flex 4 / Flash 4 Add to Current State

    - by user163757
    I am having a little difficulty working with states in Flex (or Flash) 4. Lets say that my application has three states; the default (base) state, state 1, and state 2. State 1 should always be based on the base state, that's easy enough to accomplish. However, I would like state 2 to be based on the current state (either base or state 1). I can't for the life of me figure it out. I tried setting the basedOn property of state 1 to "this.currentState", but that just crashes my browser. <s:states> <s:State name="default"/> <s:State name="state1"/> <s:State name="state2" basedOn="{this.currentState}"/> </s:states> <s:TitleWindow id="configWindow" includeIn="state1" width="250" height="100%" close="configWindow_closeHandler(event)"/> <s:Panel id="settings" includeIn="state2" width="200" height="200"/>

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  • Mysql return value as 0 in the fetch result.

    - by Karthik
    I have this two tables, -- -- Table structure for table `t1` -- CREATE TABLE `t1` ( `pid` varchar(20) collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL, `pname` varchar(20) collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 COLLATE=latin1_general_ci; -- -- Dumping data for table `t1` -- INSERT INTO `t1` VALUES ('p1', 'pro1'); INSERT INTO `t1` VALUES ('p2', 'pro2'); -- -------------------------------------------------------- -- -- Table structure for table `t2` -- CREATE TABLE `t2` ( `pid` varchar(20) collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL, `year` int(6) NOT NULL, `price` int(3) NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 COLLATE=latin1_general_ci; -- -- Dumping data for table `t2` -- INSERT INTO `t2` VALUES ('p1', 2009, 50); INSERT INTO `t2` VALUES ('p1', 2010, 60); INSERT INTO `t2` VALUES ('p3', 2007, 200); INSERT INTO `t2` VALUES ('p4', 2008, 501); my query is, SELECT * FROM `t1` LEFT JOIN `t2` ON t1.pid = t2.pid Getting the result, pid pname pid year price p1 pro1 p1 2009 50 p1 pro1 p1 2010 60 p2 pro2 NULL NULL NULL My question is, i want to get the price value is 0 instead of NULL. How can i write the query to getting the price value is 0. Thanks in advance for help.

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