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• "Invalid assignment" error from == operator

  - by Tom

  I was trying to write a simple method: boolean validate(MyObject o) { // propertyA && propertyB are not primitive types. return o.getPropertyA() == null && o.getPropertyB() == null; } And got a strange error on the == null part: Syntax error on token ==. Invalid assignment operator. Maybe my Java is rusty after a season in PLSQL. So I tried a simpler example: Integer i = 4; i == null; // compile error: Syntax error on token ==. Invalid assignment operator. Integer i2 = 4; if (i == null); //No problem How can this be? I'm using jdk160_05. To clarify: I'm not trying to assign anything, just do an && operation between two boolean values. I don't want to do this: if (o.propertyA() == null && o.propertyB() == null) { return true; } else { return false; }

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• Troubleshooting multiple GET variables In PHP

  - by V413HAV

  This may be a very simple question but I don't what's the wrong thing am doing here... To explain you clearly, I've set a real simple example below: <ul> <li><a href="test.php?link1=true">Link 1</a></li> <li><a href="test.php?link2=true">Link 2</a></li> <li><a href="test.php?link3=true">Link 3</a></li> </ul> <?php if(isset($_GET['link1'])) { if(($_GET['link1']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 1'; } } if(isset($_GET['link2'])) { if(($_GET['link2']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 2'; } } if(isset($_GET['link3'])) { if(($_GET['link3']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 3'; } } ?> This is a test.php page, here I've set 3 different arguments for $_GET, and show contents accordingly, now everything works perfect, the only thing am not understanding is how to block this kind of url say if user clicks on link 1 the url will be : http://localhost/test.php?link1=true And the Output of this url is This is Link 1 Now if I change this url to : http://localhost/test.php?link3=true&link2=true&link1=true And the Output what I get is This Is Link 1This Is Link 2This Is Link 3 Now this is ok here, but it's very annoying if someone types this and see's forms one below the other, any way I can stop this tampering?

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• jQuery select by two name roots and perform one of two function depending on which root was selected

  - by RetroCoder

  I'm trying to get this code to work in jQuery and I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration of each root element, its alternate root element for that same iteration doesn't contain anything. Otherwise it sets the .val("") property to an empty string. Looking for a simple solution if possible using search, find, or swap. Each matching number is on the same row level and the same iteration count. I have two input types of input text elements with two different root names like so: 1st Root is "rootA" <input type="text" name="rootA1" /> <input type="text" name="rootA2 /> <input type="text" name="rootA3" /> 2nd Root is "rootB" <input type="text" name="rootB1" /> <input type="text" name="rootB2 /> <input type="text" name="rootB3" /> On blur if any of rootA is called call function fnRootA();. On blur if any of rootB is called call function fnRootB();. Again, I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration like 1 that the alternate root doesn't contain anything, else it sets the .val("") property to an empty string of the root being blurred. My current code works for a single element but wanted to use find or search but not sure how to construct it.. $("input[name='rootA1']").blur(function(e) { fnRootA(1); // this code just removes rootA1's value val("") //if rootB1 has something in it value property // the (1) in parenthesis is the iteration number });

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• Memory allocation patterns in C++

  - by Mahatma

  I am confused about the memory allocation in C++ in terms of the memory areas such as Const data area, Stack, Heap, Freestore, Heap and Global/Static area. I would like to understand the memory allocation pattern in the following snippet. Can anyone help me to understand this. If there any thing more apart from the variable types mentioned in the example to help understand the concept better please alter the example. class FooBar { int n; //Stored in stack? public: int pubVar; //stored in stack? void foo(int param) //param stored in stack { int *pp = new int; //int is allocated on heap. n = param; static int nStat; //Stored in static area of memory int nLoc; //stored in stack? string str = "mystring"; //stored in stack? .. if(CONDITION) { static int nSIf; //stored in static area of memory int loopvar; //stored in stack .. } } } int main(int) { Foobar bar; //bar stored in stack? or a part of it? Foobar *pBar; //pBar is stored in stack pBar = new Foobar(); //the object is created in heap? What part of the object is stored on heap } EDIT: What confuses me is, if pBar = new Foobar(); stores the object on the heap, how come int nLoc; and int pubVar;, that are components of the object stored on stack? Sounds contradictory to me. Shouldn't the lifetime of pubvar and pBar be the same?

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• Events + Adapter Pattern

  - by Stretto

  I have an adapter pattern on a generic class that essentially adapts between types: class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; } } The problem is that A contains an event. I effectively want all event handlers assigned to Adapter to fall through to a. It would be awesome if I could assign the a's event handler to adapter's event handler but this is impossible? The idea here is that A is almost really just A but we need a way to adapt the them. Because of the way event's work I can't how to efficiently do it except manually add two event handlers and when they are called they "relay" the to the other event. This isn't pretty though and it would seem much nicer if I could have something like class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { event *e; A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; e = a.e; } } in a sense we have a pointer to the event that we can assign a2's event to. I doubt there is any simple way but maybe someone has some idea to make it work. (BTW, I realize this is possible with virtual events but I'd like to avoid this if at all possible)

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• Unit test approach for generic classes/methods

  - by Greg

  Hi, What's the recommended way to cover off unit testing of generic classes/methods? For example (referring to my example code below). Would it be a case of have 2 or 3 times the tests to cover testing the methods with a few different types of TKey, TNode classes? Or is just one class enough? public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<RelationshipBase<TKey>> Relationships { get; private set; } // Constructors protected TopologyBase() { Nodes = new Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>>(); Relationships = new List<RelationshipBase<TKey>>(); } // Methods public TNode CreateNode(TKey key) { var node = new TNode {Key = key}; Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); return node; } public void CreateRelationship(NodeBase<TKey> parent, NodeBase<TKey> child) { . . .

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• Javascript Regex: Testing string for intelligent query

  - by Shyam

  Hi, I have a string that holds user input. This string can contain various types of data, like: a six digit id a zipcode that contains out of 4 digits and two alphanumeric characters a name (characters only) As I am using this string to search through a database, the query type is determined on the type of search, which i want to handle serverside using JavaScript (yes, I am using JavaScript serverside). Searching on StackOverflow, brought me some interesting information, like the .test-method, which seems perfect for my needs. The test-method returns either true or false based on the evaluation on the string using a regex object. I am using this page as a reference: http://www.javascriptkit.com/jsref/regexp.shtml So I am trying to determine the zipcode, by using the following very noobish regex. var r = /[A-Za-z]{2,2}/ As far I can understand, this should limit the amount of occurrences of alphanumeric characters to a maximum of two. See beneath the output of my JavaScript console. > var r = /[A-Za-z]{2,2}/ > var x = "2233AL" > r.test(x) true > var x = "2233A" > r.test(x) false > var x = "2233ALL" > r.test(x) true /* i want this to be false */ > A little help would be really appreciated!

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• How to format JSON Date?

  - by Mark Struzinski

  I'm taking my first crack at AJAX with jQuery. I'm getting my data onto my page, but I'm having some trouble with the JSON that is returned for Date data types. Basically, I'm getting a string back that looks like this: /Date(1224043200000)/ From a total newbie at JSON - How do I format this to a short date format? Should this be handled somewhere in the jQuery code? I've tried the jQuery.UI.datepicker plugin using $.datepicker.formatDate() wiuth no success. FYI: Here's the solution I came up with using a combination of the answers here: function getMismatch(id) { $.getJSON("Main.aspx?Callback=GetMismatch", { MismatchId: id }, function(result) { $("#AuthMerchId").text(result.AuthorizationMerchantId); $("#SttlMerchId").text(result.SettlementMerchantId); $("#CreateDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.AppendDts))); $("#ExpireDate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.ExpiresDts))); $("#LastUpdate").text(formatJSONDate(Date(result.LastUpdateDts))); $("#LastUpdatedBy").text(result.LastUpdateNt); $("#ProcessIn").text(result.ProcessIn); } ); return false; } function formatJSONDate(jsonDate){ var newDate = dateFormat(jsonDate, "mm/dd/yyyy"); return newDate; } This solution got my object from the callback method and displayed the dates on the page properly using the date format library.

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• C# Automatic Properties - Still null after +=?

  - by Sam Schutte

  This seems like a bug to me... I accept that automatic properties, defined as such: public decimal? Total { get; set; } Will be null when they are first accessed. They haven't been initialized, so of course they are null. But, even after setting their value through +=, this decimal? still remains null. So after: Total += 8; Total is still null. How can this be correct? I understand that it's doing a (null + 8), but seems strange that it doesn't pick up that it means it should just be set to 8... Addendums: I made the "null + 8" point in my question - but notice that it works with strings. So, it does null + "hello" just fine, and returns "hello". Therefore, behind the scenes, it is initializing the string to a string object with the value of "hello". The behavior should be the same for the other types, IMO. It might be because a string can accept a null as a value, but still, a null string is not an initialized object, correct? Perhaps it's just because a string isn't a nullable...

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• getting string.substring(N) not to choke when N > string.length

  - by aape

  I'm writing some code that takes a report from the mainframe and converts it to a spreadsheet. They can't edit the code on the MF to give me a delimited file, so I'm stuck dealing with it as fixed width. It's working okay now, but I need to get it more stable before I release it for testing. My problem is that in any given line of data, say it could have three columns of numbers, each five chars wide at positions 10, 16, and 22. If on this one particular row, there's no data for the last two cols, it won't be padded with spaces; rather, the length of the string will be only 14. So, I can't just blindly have dim s as string = someStream.readline a = s.substring(10, 5) b = s.substring(16, 5) c = s.substring(22, 5) because it'll choke when it substrings past the length of the string. I know I could test the length of the string before processing each row, and I have automated the filling of some of the vsariables using a counter and a loop, and using the counter*theWidthOfTheGivenVariable to jump around, but this project was a dog to start with (come on! turning a report into a spreadsheet?), but there are many different types of rows (it's not just a grid), and the code's getting ugly fast. I'd like this to be clean, clear, and maintainable for the poor sucker that gets this after me. If it matters, here's my code so far (it's really crufty at the moment). You can see some of my/its idiocy in the processSection#data subs So, I'm wondering 1) is there a way baked in to .NET to have string.substring not error when reading past the end of a string without wrapping it in a try...catch? and 2) would it be appropriate in this situation to write a new string class that inherits from string that has a more friendly substring function in it? ETA: Thanks for all the advice and knowledge everyone. I'll go with the extension. Hopefully one of these years, I'll get my chops up enough to pay someone back in kind. :)

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• in haskell, why do I need to specify type constraints, why can't the compiler figure them out?

  - by Steve

  Consider the function, add a b = a + b This works: *Main> add 1 2 3 However, if I add a type signature specifying that I want to add things of the same type: add :: a -> a -> a add a b = a + b I get an error: test.hs:3:10: Could not deduce (Num a) from the context () arising from a use of `+' at test.hs:3:10-14 Possible fix: add (Num a) to the context of the type signature for `add' In the expression: a + b In the definition of `add': add a b = a + b So GHC clearly can deduce that I need the Num type constraint, since it just told me: add :: Num a => a -> a -> a add a b = a + b Works. Why does GHC require me to add the type constraint? If I'm doing generic programming, why can't it just work for anything that knows how to use the + operator? In C++ template programming, you can do this easily: #include <string> #include <cstdio> using namespace std; template<typename T> T add(T a, T b) { return a + b; } int main() { printf("%d, %f, %s\n", add(1, 2), add(1.0, 3.4), add(string("foo"), string("bar")).c_str()); return 0; } The compiler figures out the types of the arguments to add and generates a version of the function for that type. There seems to be a fundamental difference in Haskell's approach, can you describe it, and discuss the trade-offs? It seems to me like it would be resolved if GHC simply filled in the type constraint for me, since it obviously decided it was needed. Still, why the type constraint at all? Why not just compile successfully as long as the function is only used in a valid context where the arguments are in Num? Thank you.

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• Passing $_GET or $_POST data to PHP script that is run with wget

  - by Matt

  Hello, I have the following line of PHP code which works great: exec( 'wget http://www.mydomain.com/u1.php /dev/null &' ); u1.php acts to do various types of maintenance on my server and the above command makes it happen in the background. No problems there. But I need to pass variable data to u1.php before it's executed. I'd like to pass POST data preferably, but could accommodate GET or SESSION data if POST isn't an option. Basically the type of data being passed is user-specific and will vary depending on who is logged in to the site and triggering the above code. I've tried adding the GET data to the end of the URL and that didn't work. So how else might I be able to send the data to u1.php? POST data preferred, SESSION data would work as well (but I tried this and it didn't pick up the logged in user's session data). GET would be a last resort. Thanks!

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• Post JSON array to mvc controller

  - by Yustme

  I'm trying to post a JSON array to a mvc controller. But no matter what i try, everything is 0 or null. I have this table that contains textboxes. I need from all those textboxes it's ID and value as an object. This is my java code: $(document).ready(function () { $('#submitTest').click(function (e) { var $form = $('form'); var trans = new Array(); var parameters = { TransIDs: $("#TransID").val(), ItemIDs: $("#ItemID").val(), TypeIDs: $("#TypeID").val(), }; trans.push(parameters); if ($form.valid()) { $.ajax( { url: $form.attr('action'), type: $form.attr('method'), data: JSON.stringify(parameters), dataType: "json", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (result) { $('#result').text(result.redirectTo) if (result.Success == true) { return fase; } else { $('#Error').html(result.Html); } }, error: function (request) { alert(request.statusText) } }); } e.preventDefault(); return false; }); }); This is my view code: <table> <tr> <th>trans</th> <th>Item</th> <th>Type</th> </tr> @foreach (var t in Model.Types.ToList()) { { <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" value="@t.TransID" id="TransID" /> <input type="hidden" value="@t.ItemID" id="ItemID" /> <input type="hidden" value="@t.TypeID" id="TypeID" /> </td> </tr> } } </table> This is the controller im trying to receive the data to: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Update(CustomTypeModel ctm) { return RedirectToAction("Index"); } What am i doing wrong?

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• refactoring my code. My headers (Header Guard Issues)

  - by numerical25

  I had a post similar to this awhile ago based on a error I was getting. I was able to fix it but since then I been having trouble doing things because headers keep blocking other headers from using code. Honestly, these headers are confusing me and if anyone has any resources that will address these types of issues, that will be helpful. What I essentially want to do is be able to have rModel.h be included inside RenderEngine.h. every time I add rModel.h to RenderEngine.h, rModel.h is no longer able to use RenderEngine.h. (rModel.h has a #include of RenderEngine.h as well). So in a nutshell, RenderEngine and rModel need to use each others functionalities. On top of all this confusion, the Main.cpp needs to use RenderEngine. stdafx.h #include "targetver.h" #define WIN32_LEAN_AND_MEAN // Exclude rarely-used stuff from Windows headers // Windows Header Files: #include <windows.h> // C RunTime Header Files #include <stdlib.h> #include <malloc.h> #include <memory.h> #include <tchar.h> #include "resource.h" main.cpp #include "stdafx.h" #include "RenderEngine.h" #include "rModel.h" // Global Variables: RenderEngine go; rModel *g_pModel; ...code........... rModel.h #ifndef _MODEL_H #define _MODEL_H #include "stdafx.h" #include <vector> #include <string> #include "rTri.h" #include "RenderEngine.h" ........Code RenderEngine.h #pragma once #include "stdafx.h" #include "d3d10.h" #include "d3dx10.h" #include "dinput.h" #include "rModel.h" .......Code......

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• Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

  - by Dan Tao

  I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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• short-cutting equality checking in F#?

  - by John Clements

  In F#, the equality operator (=) is generally extensional, rather than intensional. That's great! Unfortunately, it appears to me that F# does not use pointer equality to short-cut these extensional comparisons. For instance, this code: type Z = MT | NMT of Z ref // create a Z: let a = ref MT // make it point to itself: a := NMT a // check to see whether it's equal to itself: printf "a = a: %A\n" (a = a) ... gives me a big fat segmentation fault[*], despite the fact that 'a' and 'a' both evaluate to the same reference. That's not so great. Other functional languages (e.g. PLT Scheme) get this right, using pointer comparisons conservatively, to return 'true' when it can be determined using a pointer comparison. So: I'll accept the fact that F#'s equality operator doesn't use short-cutting; is there some way to perform an intensional (pointer-based) equality check? The (==) operator is not defined on my types, and I'd love it if someone could tell me that it's available somehow. Or tell me that I'm wrong in my analysis of the situation: I'd love that, too... [*] That would probably be a stack overflow on Windows; there are things about Mono that I'm not that fond of...

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• Why do we need serialization in web service

  - by Cloud2010

  I have one webservice: public class Product { public int ProductId { get; set; } public string ProductName { get; set; } } public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public List<Product> GetItems() { List<Product> productList = new List<Product>() { new Product{ProductId=1,ProductName="Pencil"}, new Product{ProductId=2,ProductName="Pen"} }; return productList; } and in a asp.net application I am consuming it like: localhost.Service s = new localhost.Service(); List<localhost.Product> k = new List<localhost.Product>(); k = s.GetItems().ToList(); // i am getting the values here. now my question is do I need to serialize my webmethod as i am returning custom types? when should we serialize ? is it necessary at all, if yes , then what are the conditions?

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• Writing a generic function that can take a Writer as well as an OutputStream

  - by ebruchez

  I wrote a couple of functions that look like this: def myWrite(os: OutputStream) = {} def myWrite(w: Writer) = {} Now both are very similar and I thought I would try to write a single parametrized version of the function. I started with a type with the two methods that are common in the Java OutputStream and Writer: type Writable[T] = { def close() : Unit def write(cbuf: Array[T], off: Int, len: Int): Unit } One issue is that OutputStream writes Byte and Writer writes Char, so I parametrized the type with T. Then I write my function: def myWrite[T, A[T] <: Writable[T]](out: A[T]) = {} and try to use it: val w = new java.io.StringWriter() myWrite(w) Result: <console>:9: error: type mismatch; found : java.io.StringWriter required: ?A[ ?T ] Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from java.io.StringWriter to ?A[ ?T ] myWrite(w) I tried a few other combinations of types and parameters, to no avail so far. My question is whether there is a way of achieving this at all, and if so how. (Note that the implementation of myWrite will need, internally, to know the type T that parametrizes the write() method, because it needs to create a buffer as in new ArrayT.)

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• Nginx Rails app can't deploy

  - by user3596718

  I have an issue with my rails application running with passenger and nginx hosted in Ubuntu 12.04. In the nginx.conf file below, my "example.com" (Regular HTML) and "redmine.example.com" (Rails app) are working perfectly, but my "crete.example.com" (Another Rails app) is showing "502 bad gateway". I have them both hosted in /var/data with the same permissions and ownerships, also tried different ports, I can't think of something else to try. worker_processes 1; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /usr/lib/ruby/vendor_ruby/phusion_passenger/locations.ini; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; sendfile on; keepalive_timeout 65; server{ listen 80; server_name example.com; root /opt/nginx/html; } server{ server_name redmine.example.com; root /var/data/redmine/public; passenger_enabled on; location ~ ^/<SUBURI>(/.*|$){ alias /var/data/redmine/public$1; passenger_base_uri /redmine; passenger_app_root /var/data/redmine; passenger_document_root /var/data/redmine/public; passenger_enabled on;} } server{ server_name crete.example.com; root /var/data/crete/public; passenger_enabled on; location ~ ^/<SUBURI>(/.*|$){ alias /var/data/crete/public$1; passenger_base_uri /crete; passenger_app_root /var/data/crete; passenger_document_root /var/data/crete/public; passenger_enabled on;} } } This are my Ruby and Rails versions: ruby 2.0.0p451 (2014-02-24 revision 45167) [x86_64-linux] Rails 4.1.0 My nginx error.log 2014/05/02 12:29:50 [error] 3343#0: *4 upstream prematurely closed connection while reading response header from upstream, client: xxx.xx.xx.xx, server: crete.example.com, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", upstream: "passenger:/tmp/passenger.1.0.3 323/generation-0/request:", host: "crete.example.com" Any other conf file you might need to solve this don't hesitate to ask.

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• C++ universal data type

  - by Gokul

  I have a universal data type, which is passed by value, but does not maintain the type information. We store only pointers and basic data types(like int, float etc) inside this. Now for the first time, we need to store std::string inside this. So we decided to convert it into std::string* and store it. Then comes the problem of destruction. We don't like to copy the std::string every time. So i am thinking of an approach like this. Say the data type looks like this class Atom { public : enum flags { IS_STRING, IS_EMPTY, HAS_GOT_COPIED, MARKER }; private: void* m_value; std::bitset<MARKER> m_flags; public: ..... Atom( Atom& atm ) { atm.m_flags.set( HAS_GOT_COPIED ); ..... } ..... ~Atom() { if( m_flags.test(IS_STRING) && !m_flags.test(HAS_GOT_COPIED) ) { std::string* val = static_cast<std::string*>(m_value); delete val; } } }; Is this a good approach to find out whether there is no more reference to std::string*? Any comments.. Thanks, Gokul.

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• How should I map an abstract class with simple xml in Java?

  - by spderosso

  Hi, I want to achieve the following xml using simple xml framework (http://simple.sourceforge.net/): <events> <course-added date="01/01/2010"> ... </course-added> <course-removed date="01/02/2010"> .... </course-removed> <student-enrolled date="01/02/2010"> ... </student-enrolled> </events> I have the following (but it doesn't achieve the desired xml): @Root(name="events") class XMLEvents { @ElementList(inline=true) ArrayList<XMLEvent> events = Lists.newArrayList(); ... } abstract class XMLEvent { @Attribute(name="date") String dateOfEventFormatted; ... } And different type of XMLNodes that have different information (but are all different types of events) @Root(name="course-added") class XMLCourseAdded extends XMLEvent{ @Element(name="course") XMLCourseLongFormat course; .... } @Root(name="course-removed") class XMLCourseRemoved extends XMLEvent { @Element(name="course-id") String courseId; ... } How should I do the mapping or what should I change in order to be able to achieve de desired xml? Thanks!

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• Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

  - by David_001

  Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

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• Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

  - by chryss

  It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

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• "Address of" (&) an array / address of being ignored be gcc?

  - by dbarbosa

  Hi, I am a teaching assistant of a introductory programming course, and some students made this type of error: char name[20]; scanf("%s",&name); which is not surprising as they are learning... What is surprising is that, besides gcc warning, the code works (at least this part). I have been trying to understand and I wrote the following code: void foo(int *str1, int *str2) { if (str1 == str2) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } int main() { int test[50]; foo(&test, test); if (&test == test) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } Compiling and executing: $ gcc test.c -g test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:12: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘foo’ from incompatible pointer type test.c:13: warning: comparison of distinct pointer types lacks a cast $ ./a.out Both pointers are the same Both pointers are the same Can anyone explain why they are not different? I suspect it is because I cannot get the address of an array (as I cannot have & &x), but in this case the code should not compile.

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• How do I populate an NSMutableArray in one class with another object?

  - by AngeloS

  Hello, I know this is a simple answer, but I can't seem to find the solution. I created an object in its own class and I am trying to populate it with data from another class. For simple data types like NSString, I have no problem, but when trying make an NSMutableArray equal to another NSMutableArray or when I try to populate a NSMutableArray with another objects (like strings), I keep getting exception errors... Here is the object I am trying to populate: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface RSSFeedList : NSObject { NSString *subject; NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subject; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; @end This is how I was able to populate the NSString 'subject' in another class: rssFeedList.subject = @"test"; However, if I follow similar convention within that same class with respect to an Array, it throws an exception: rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail = rssItemDetailArray; Where rssItemDetailArray is a NSMutableArray that I have built in the same class. I have also tried to add items (i tried strings for testing) to the NSMutableArray directly like so to no avail: [rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail addObject:@"test"]; Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!!

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