Search Results

Search found 10662 results on 427 pages for 'parameter passing'.

Page 274/427 | < Previous Page | 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281  | Next Page >

• Losing URI segments when paginating with CodeIgniter

  - by Danny Herran

  I have a /payments interface where the user should be able to filter via price range, bank, and other stuff. Those filters are standard select boxes. When I submit the filter form, all the post data goes to another method called payments/search. That method performs the validation, saves the post values into a session flashdata and redirects the user back to /payments passing the flashdata name via URL. So my standard pagination links with no filters are exactly like this: payments/index/20/ payments/index/40/ payments/index/60/ And if you submit the filter form, the returning URL is: payments/index/0/b48c7cbd5489129a337b0a24f830fd93 This works just great. If I change the zero for something else, it paginates just fine. The only issue however is that the << 1 2 3 4 page links wont keep the hash after the pagination offset. CodeIgniter is generating the page links ignoring that additional uri segment. My uri_segment config is already set to 3: $config['uri_segment'] = 3; I cannot set the page offset to 4 because that hash may or may not exists. Any ideas of how can I solve this? Is it mandatory for CI to have the offset as the last segment in the uri? Maybe I am trying an incorrect approach, so I am all ears. Thank you folks.

  Read the article

• Dynamically adding controls from an Event after Page_Init

  - by GenericTypeTea

  Might seem like a daft title as you shouldn't add dynamic controls after Page_Init if you want to maintain ViewState, but I couldn't think of a better way of explaining the problem. I have a class similar to the following: public class WebCustomForm : WebControl, IScriptControl { internal CustomRender Content { get { object content = this.Page.Session[this.SESSION_CONTENT_TRACKER]; return content as CustomRender; } private set { this.Page.Session[this.SESSION_CONTENT_TRACKER] = value; } } } CustomRender is an abstract class that implements ITemplate that I use to self-contain a CustomForms module I'm in the middle of writing. On the Page_Init of the page that holds the WebCustomForm, I Initialise the control by passing the relevant Ids to it. Then on the overridden OnInit method of the WebCustomForm I call the Instantiate the CustomRender control that's currently active: if (this.Content != null) { this.Content.InstantiateIn(this); } The problem is that my CustomRender controls need the ability to change the CustomRender control of the WebCustomForm. But when the events that fire on the CustomRender fire, the Page_Init event has obviously already gone off. So, my question is, how can I change the content of the WebCustomForm from a dynamically added control within it? The way I see it, I have two options: I separate the CustomRender controls out into their own stand alone control and basically have an aspx page per control and handle the events myself on the page (although I was hoping to just make a control I drop on the page and forget about) I don't use events and just keep requesting the current page, but with different Request Parameters Or I go back to the drawing board with any better suggetions anyone can give me.

  Read the article

• need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

  - by railsnew

  I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

  Read the article

• nhibernate : Repository Session Management

  - by frosty

  At the moment my repository has 2 constructors. When i call these from my mvc website i am alway calling first constructor and thus opening a new session. Should i been passing in the session. How should i be doing this. public CompanyRepository() { _session = NHibernateHelper.OpenSession(); } public CompanyRepository(ISession session) { _session = session; } public class NHibernateHelper { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if (_sessionFactory == null) { var configuration = new Configuration(); configuration.Configure(); configuration.AddAssembly(typeof(UserProfile).Assembly); configuration.SetProperty(NHibernate.Cfg.Environment.ConnectionStringName, System.Environment.MachineName); _sessionFactory = configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } I'm using the Ninject IOC container ( very new to me ). I have the following container. How would i bind the ISession to the CompanyRepository. private class EStoreDependencies : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<ICompanyRepository>().To<CompanyRepository>(); Bind<IUserProfileRepository>().To<UserProfileRepository>(); Bind<IAddressRepository>().To<AddressRepository>(); Bind<IRolesService>().To<AspNetRoleProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IUserService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<ICurrentUserSerivce>().To<DefaultCurrentUserSerivce>(); Bind<IPasswordService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IStatusResponseRepository>().To<StatusResponseRepository>(); Bind<ICategoryRepository>().To<CategoryRepository>(); Bind<IProductRepository>().To<ProductRepository>(); } }

  Read the article

• Boost Unit testing memory reuse causing tests that should fail to pass

  - by Knyphe

  We have started using the boost unit testing library for a large existing code base, and I have run into some trouble with unit tests incorrectly passing, seemingly due to the reuse of memory on the stack. Here is my situation: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } The first test passed correctly, initializing all the variables. The constructor in the second unit test did not correctly set EntityType or DataPosition, but the unit test passed. I was able to get it to fail by placing some variables on the stack in the second test, like so: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { int a, b; SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } If there is only one int, only the dataPos CHECK_EQUAL fails, but if there are two, both EntityType and DataPos fail, so it seems pretty clear that this is an issue with the variables being created on the same stack memory or some such. Is there a good way to clear the memory between each unit test, or am I potentially using the library incorrectly or writing bad tests? Any help would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• Auto-implemented getters and setters vs. public fields

  - by tclem

  I see a lot of example code for C# classes that does this: public class Point { public int x { get; set; } public int y { get; set; } } Or, in older code, the same with an explicit private backing value and without the new auto-implemented properties: public class Point { private int _x; private int _y; public int x { get { return _x; } set { _x = value; } } public int y { get { return _y; } set { _y = value; } } } My question is why. Is there any functional difference between doing the above and just making these members public fields, like below? public class Point { public int x; public int y; } To be clear, I understand the value of getters and setters when you need to do some translation of the underlying data. But in cases where you're just passing the values through, it seems needlessly verbose.

  Read the article

• Concatenating a string and byte array in to unmanaged memory.

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  This is a followup to my last question. I now have a byte[] of values for my bitmap image. Eventually I will be passing a string to the print spooler of the format String.Format("GW{0},{1},{2},{3},", X, Y, stride, _Bitmap.Height) + my binary data; I am using the SendBytesToPrinter command from here. Here is my code so far to send it to the printer public static bool SendStringPlusByteBlockToPrinter(string szPrinterName, string szString, byte[] bytes) { IntPtr pBytes; Int32 dwCount; // How many characters are in the string? dwCount = szString.Length; // Assume that the printer is expecting ANSI text, and then convert // the string to ANSI text. pBytes = Marshal.StringToCoTaskMemAnsi(szString); pBytes = Marshal.ReAllocCoTaskMem(pBytes, szString.Length + bytes.Length); Marshal.Copy(bytes,0, SOMTHING GOES HERE,bytes.Length); // this is the problem line // Send the converted ANSI string + the concatenated bytes to the printer. SendBytesToPrinter(szPrinterName, pBytes, dwCount); Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(pBytes); return true; } My issue is I do not know how to make my data appended on to the end of the string. Any help would be greatly appreciated, and if I am doing this totally wrong I am fine in going a entirely different way (for example somehow getting the binary data concatenated on to the string before the move to unmanaged space. P.S. As a second question, will ReAllocCoTaskMem move the data that is sitting in it before the call to the new location?

  Read the article

• How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

  - by marue

  I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

  Read the article

• How to receive Email in JEE application

  - by Hank

  Obviously it's not so difficult to send out emails from a JEE application via JavaMail. What I am interested in is the best pattern to receive emails (notification bounces, mostly)? I am not interested in IMAP/POP3-based approaches (polling the inbox) - my application shall react to inbound emails. One approach I could think of would be Keep existing MTA (postfix on linux in my case) - ops team already knows how to configure / operate it For every mail that arrives, spawn a Java app that receives the data and sends it off via JMS. I could do this via an entry in /etc/aliases like myuser: "|/path/to/javahelper" with javahelper calling the Java app, passing STDIN along. MDB (part of JEE application) receives JMS message, parses it, detects bounce message and acts accordingly. Another approach could be Open a listening network socket on port 25 on the JEE application container. Associate a SessionBean with the socket. Bean is part of JEE application and can parse/detect bounces/handle the messages directly. Keep existing MTA as inbound relay, do all its security/spam filtering, but forward emails to myuser (that pass the filter) to the JEE application container, port 25. The first approach I have done before (albeit in a different language/setup). From a performance and (perceived) cleanliness point of view, I think the second approach is better, but it would require me to provide a proper SMTP transport implementation. Also, I don't know if it's at all possible to connect a network socket with a bean... What is your recommendation? Do you have details about the second approach?

  Read the article

• Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

  - by Dean P

  Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

  Read the article

• How to append a row to a TableViewSection in Titanium?

  - by Mike Trpcic

  I'm developing an iPhone application in Titanium, and need to append a row to a particular TableViewSection. I can't do this on page load, as it's done dynamically by the user throughout the lifecycle of the application. The documentation says that the TableViewSection has an add method which takes two arguments, but I can't make it work. Here's my existing code: for(var i = 0; i <= product_count; i++){ productsTableViewSection.add( Ti.UI.createTableViewRow({ title:'Testing...' }) ); } That is just passing one argument in, and that causes Titanium to die with an uncaught exception: 2010-04-26 16:57:18.056 MyApplication[72765:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 2. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (2) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 0 deleted).' 2010-04-26 16:57:18.056 MyApplication[72765:207] Stack: ( The exception looks like it did add the row, but it's not allowed to for some reason. Since the documentation says that TableViewSection takes in "view" and "row", I tried the following: for(var i = 0; i <= product_count; i++){ productsTableViewSection.add( Ti.UI.createView({}), Ti.UI.createTableViewRow({ title:'Testing...' }) ); } The above code doesn't throw the exception, but it gives a [WARN]: [WARN] Invalid type passed to function. expected: TiUIViewProxy, was: TiUITableViewRowProxy in -[TiUITableViewSectionProxy add:] (TiUITableViewSectionProxy.m:62) TableViewSections don't seem to support any methods like appendRow, or insertRow, so I don't know where else to go with this. I've looked through the KitchenSink app, but there are no examples that I could find of adding a row to a TableViewSection. Any help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• .NET: How to pass value when subscribing to event and obtain it when the event is triggered (Dynamic

  - by Entrase

  The task is to create event handlers in runtime. I need the one method to be called with different parameter value for different events. The events and their number are only known in runtime. So I'm trying to generate dynamic methods, each of which will be assigned to some event, but in general they all just pass some value to an instance method and call it. It would be great if something similar could be done the easier way. I mean passing some value at subscribing stage and then obtaining it when the event is triggered. This is what I'm trying to do now: public class EventSource { public event EventHandler eventOne; public event EventHandler eventTwO; public event EventHandler eventThree; } public class EventListener { SubscribeForEvents() { BindingFlags flags = BindingFlags.IgnoreCase | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance; // Suppose we've already got EventInfo // and target source somewhere // so we can do eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate) // Now we need a delegate. int value = 42; Type tDelegate = eventInfo.EventHandlerType; // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228976(VS.95).aspx Type returnType = GetDelegateReturnType(tDelegate); DynamicMethod listener = new DynamicMethod("", null, GetDelegateParameterTypes(tDelegate), this.GetType()); ///////// Type[] callParameters = { typeof(int) }; MethodInfo method = this.GetType().GetMethod("ToCallFromDelegate", flags); ILGenerator generator = listener.GetILGenerator(); // No success in this mess. What's wrong? generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldc_I4, value); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, method); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Pop); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); ///////////// Delegate delegate = listener.CreateDelegate(tDelegate); eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate); // When triggered, there is InvalidProgramException } void ToCallFromDelegate(int value) { doSomething(); } }

  Read the article

• Calling SDL/OpenGL from Assembly code on Linux

  - by Lie Ryan

  I'm write a simple graphic-based program in Assembly for learning purpose; for this, I intended to use either OpenGL or SDL. I'm trying to call OpenGL/SDL's function from assembly. The problem is, unlike many assembly and OpenGL/SDL tutorials I found in the internet, the OpenGL/SDL in my machine apparently doesn't use C calling convention. I wrote a simple program in C, compile it to assembly (using -S switch), and apparently the assembly code that is generated by GCC calls the OpenGL/SDL functions by passing parameters in the registers instead of being pushed to the stack. Now, the question is, how do I determine how to pass arguments to these OpenGL/SDL functions? That is, how do I figure out which argument corresponds to which registers? Obviously since GCC can compile C code to call OpenGL/SDL, so therefore there must be a way to figure out the correspondence between function arguments and registers. In C calling conventions, the rule is easy, push parameters backwards and return value in eax/rax, I can simply read their C documentation and I can easily figure out how to pass the parameters. But how about these? Is there a way to call OpenGL/SDL using C calling convention? btw, I'm using yasm, with gcc/ld as the linker on Gentoo Linux amd64.

  Read the article

• Grep expression with special file names

  - by user2919185

  i am a real beginner in csh/tcsh scripting and that's why i need your help. The problem is I have to go through some regular files in directories and find those files, that have their own name in its content. In the following piece of script is cycle in which I am going through paths and using grep to find the file's name in its content. What is surely correct is $something:q - is array of paths where i have to find files. The next variable is name in which is only name of current file. for example: /home/computer/text.txt (paths) and: text.txt (name) And my biggest problem is to find names of files in their content. It's quite difficult for me to write correct grep for this, cause the names of files and directories that i am passing through are mad. Here are some of them: /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/!_1 /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/dam/$user/:e/'/-r /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test3/skusime/ taketo/ taketo /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/.a=b /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/@ /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/: /home/OS/pocitacove/testovaci_adresar/z/test4.pre_expertov/.-bla/.-bla/'ano' foreach paths ($something:q) set name = "$paths:t" @ number = (`grep -Ec "$name" "$paths"`) if ($number != 0) then echo -n "$paths " echo $number endif @ number = 0 end

  Read the article

• How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

  - by Randy

  So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• What's the boost way to create a functor that binds out an argument

  - by Mordachai

  I have need for a function pointer that takes two arguments and returns a string. I would like to pass an adapter that wraps a function that takes one argument, and returns the string (i.e. discard one of the arguments). I can trivially build my own adapter, that takes the 2 arguments, calls the wrapped function passing just the one argument through. But I'd much rather have a simple way to create an adapter on the fly, if there is an easy way to do so in C++/boost? Here's some details to make this a bit more concrete: typedef boost::function<CString (int,int)> TooltipTextFn; class MyCtrl { public: MyCtrl(TooltipTextFn callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetCellText, this, _1, _2)) : m_callback(callback) { } // QUESTION: how to trivially wrapper GetRowText to conform to TooltipTextFn by just discarding _2 ?! void UseRowText() { m_callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetRowText, this, _1, ??); } private: CString GetCellText(int row, int column); CString GetRowText(int row); TooltipTextFn m_callback; } Obviously, I can supply a member that adapts GetRowText to take two arguments and only passes the first to GetRowText() itself. But is there already a boost binder / adapter that lets me do that?

  Read the article

• pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

  - by VideoDnd

  I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

  Read the article

• rails 4 -- working with js format from ajax

  - by user101289

  I'm still working on learning Rails, and I have a page with team information that will get updated based on a team's icon click, which fires an ajax call to the controller to populate some tabs. I've read some good info about how to use format.js in the controller to render a partial from a js.coffee or js.erb file. The problem I'm running into is in the coffeescript I think. Right now, I'm getting some data called @schedules from the controller, and passing it to a schedule.js.coffee file that should populate a partial for each record returned and attach it to a table. // schedule.js.coffee $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> ($ '#schedule_data').append("<%= j render(partial: 'schedules/schedule', locals: { s: schedule }) %>") This throws an error `> undefined local variable or method `schedule' for #<#<Class:0x007fe535cd2900>:0x007fe535d32a30>` I tried simplifying the coffeescript to just log the output: $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> console.log(schedule) but this prints nothing. Am I missing something? I am very inexperienced with coffeescript, but it seems like I should be getting some data-- I verified that the schedule items do exist for this team item.

  Read the article

• C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

  - by Doug

  (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

  Read the article

• Redirecting users after destroy

  - by mathee

  I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

  Read the article

• Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

  - by victorhooi

  heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

  Read the article

• mod_rewrite if file exists

  - by Mathieu Parent

  Hi everyone, I already have two rewrite rules that work correctly for now but some more code has to be added to work perfectly. I have a website hosted at mydomain.com and all subdom.mydomain.com are rewrited to mydomain.com/subs/subdom . My CMS has to handle the request if the file being reached does not exist, the rewrite is done like so: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/index.php?page=$1 [L] My CMS handles the next part of the parsing as usual. The problem is if a file really exists, I need to link to it without passing through my CMS, I managed to do it like this: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/$1 [L] So far it seems to work like a charm. Now I am being picky and I need to have default files that are stored in subs/default/. If the file exists in the subdomain folder, we should grab this one but if not, we need to get the file from the default subdomain. And if the file does not exist anywhere, we should be using the 404 page from the current subdomain unless there is none. I hope it describes well enough. Thank you for your time!

  Read the article

• Problems using (building?) native gem extensions on OS X

  - by goodmike

  I am having trouble with some of my rubygems, in particular those that use native extensions. I am on a MacBookPro, with Snow Leopard. I have XCode 3.2.1 installed, with gcc 4.2.1. Ruby 1.8.6, because I'm lazy and a scaredy cat and don't want to upgrade yet. Ruby is running in 32-bit mode. I built this ruby from scratch when my MBP ran OSX 10.4. When I require one of the affected gems in irb, I get a Load Error for the gem extension's bundle file. For example, here's nokogigi dissing me: > require 'rubygems' = true > require 'nokogiri' LoadError: Failed to load /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/nokogiri-1.4.1/lib/nokogiri/nokogiri.bundle This is also happening with the Postgres pg and MongoDB mongo gems. My first thought was that the extensions must not be building right. But gem install wasn't throwing any errors. So I reinstalled with the verbose flag, hoping to see some helpful warnings. I've put the output in a Pastie, and the only warning I see is a consistent one about "passing argument n of ‘foo’ with different width due to prototype." I suspect that this might be an issue from upgrading to Snow Leopard, but I'm a little surprised to experience it now, since I've updated my XCode. Could it stem from running Ruby in 1.8.6? I'm embarrassed that I don't know quite enough about my Mac and OSX to know where to look next, so any guidance, even just a pointer to some document I couldn't find via Google, would be most welcome. Michael

  Read the article

• How to return a value from facebook javascript connect api fucntions

  - by dezwald

  I am trying to create wrapper functions on facebook javascript connect api methods. My problem is that i can not return a value within the facebook api FB_RequireFeatures method. i want my isFBConnected() function to return true or false based on if i'm logged into facebook or not. What is happening is that when i return true it returns it to the child function, which makes sense however, my global "login" variable does not get set to true. I've tried setting a timeout to wait until the facebook connect finishes executing and still no luck. any help or other solutions are welcome! my isFBConnected wrapper function is stated below: function isFBConnected(){ var api_key = '<?=$this->apiKey?>'; var channel_path = '<?=$this->xdReceiver?>'; var host_url = '<?=$this->hostUrl?>'; var servicePathShort = '<?=$this->servicePathShort?>'; var login = false; FB_RequireFeatures(["Api"], function(){ // Create an ApiClient object, passing app's API key and // a site relative URL to xd_receiver.htm FB.Facebook.init(api_key, channel_path); var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // If FB user session exists - load stats data if(api.get_session()!=null){ if(api.get_session().uid!='' && api.get_session().uid!=undefined){ login = true; alert(api.get_session().uid); return true; } } login = false; return false; }); return false; }

  Read the article

• curl cookie not creating on success

  - by Bin

  Hi I'm using cUrl(PHP) to post a login request and store response in cookie file. In my second request I'm passing cookie in header and post data to verify it. Issue is that cookie file is not created in first succesful request results in failure for second request. Please suggest me where I'm doing wrong. $cookiefile="/var/www/html/dimdim/cook.txt"; $url_log="http://my.dimdim.com/api/auth/login"; $p_log='request={"account":"bin6k","password":"password","group":"all"}'; $url_ver="http://my.dimdim.com/api/auth/verify"; $p_ver='request={"account":"bin6k","password":"password","group":"all"}'; $ch = curl_init(); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookiefile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url_log); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $p_log); ob_start(); // prevent any output $retval=curl_exec ($ch); // execute the curl command ob_end_clean(); // stop preventing output curl_close ($ch); //print_r($retval); unset($ch); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookiefile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url_ver); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $p_log); $buf2 = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo "".htmlentities($buf2);

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281  | Next Page >