Search Results

Search found 10662 results on 427 pages for 'parameter passing'.

Page 277/427 | < Previous Page | 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284  | Next Page >

  • jQuery - Creating a dynamic content loader using $.get()

    - by Kenny Bones
    Hello everybody! (hello dr.Nick) :) So I posted a question yesterday about a content loader plugin for jQuery I thought I'd use, but didn't get it to work. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2469291/jquery-could-use-a-little-help-with-a-content-loader Although it works now, I see some disadvantages to it. It requires heaploads of files where the content is in. Since the code essentially picks up the url in the href link and searches that file for a div called #content What I would really like to do is to collect all of these files into a single file and give each div/container it's unique ID and just pick up the content from those. So i won't need so many separate files laying around. Nick Craver thought I should use $.get()instead since it's got a descent callback. But I'm not that strong in js at all.. And I don't even know what this means. I'm basically used to Visual Basic and passing of arguments, storing in txt files etc. Which is really not suitable for this purpose. So what's the "normal" way of doing things like this? I'm pretty sure I'm not the only one who's thought of this right? I basically want to get content from a single php file that contains alot of divs with unique IDs. And without much hassle, fade out the existing content in my main page, pick up the contents from the other file and fade it into my main page.

    Read the article

  • Dependency injection in constructors

    - by andre
    Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

    - by Kyle
    I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

    Read the article

  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • http authentication fails in cucumber when adding @javascript tag

    - by JESii
    I have a feature in my Rials app that works just fine with the message "Responds to browser_basic_authorize" from the Background Given step. However, if I add a @javascript tag before the scenario, then my Background Given fails with "I don't know how to login". What's going wrong and how do I go about testing javascrpt interactions on my app? Background: Given I perform HTTP authentication as "<id>/<password>" When I go to the homepage Then I should see "Text-that-you-should-see-on-your-home-page" Scenario: Displaying injury causative factors Given I am on the new_incident_report page When I choose "incident_report_employee_following_procedures_true" Then I should see "Equipment failure?" Then I should not see "Lack of training" When /^I perform HTTP authentication as "([^\"]*)\/([^\"]*)"$/ do |username, password| puts "id/pswd: #{username}/#{password}" ### Following works ONLY if performed first before even going to a page!!! if page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_auth) puts 'Responds to basic_auth' page.driver.basic_auth(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to basic_authorize' page.driver.basic_authorize(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:browser) && page.driver.browser.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to browser_basic_authorize' page.driver.browser.basic_authorize(username, password) else raise "I don't know how to log in!" end end Rails 3.0.9, current gems, other tests passing.

    Read the article

  • asp file system object

    - by sushant
    i am using this code to access files and folders. <%@ Language=VBScript %<% option explicit dim sRoot, sDir, sParent, objFSO, objFolder, objFile, objSubFolder, sSize % <% sRoot = "D:Raghu" sDir = Request("Dir") sDir = sDir & "\" Response.Write "" & sDir & "" & vbCRLF Set objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") on error resume next Set objFolder = objFSO.GetFolder(sRoot & sDir) if err.number < 0 then Response.Write "Could not open folder" Response.End end if on error goto 0 sParent = objFSO.GetParentFolderName(objFolder.Path) ' Remove the contents of sRoot from the front. This gives us the parent ' path relative to the root folder ' eg. if parent folder is "c:webfilessubfolder1subfolder2" then we just want "subfolder1subfolder2" sParent = mid(sParent, len(sRoot) + 1) Response.Write "" ' Give a link to the parent folder. This is just a link to this page only pssing in ' the new folder as a parameter Response.Write "Parent folder" & vbCRLF ' Now we want to loop through the subfolders in this folder For Each objSubFolder In objFolder.SubFolders ' And provide a link to them Response.Write "" & objSubFolder.Name & "" & vbCRLF Next ' Now we want to loop through the files in this folder For Each objFile In objFolder.Files if Clng(objFile.Size) < 1024 then sSize = objFile.Size & " bytes" else sSize = Clng(objFile.Size / 1024) & " KB" end if ' And provide a link to view them. This is a link to show.asp passing in the directory and the file ' as parameters Response.Write "" & objFile.Name & "" & sSize & "" & objFile.Type & "" & vbCRLF Next Response.Write "" % it works fine. but when i try to access something on shred path like: "\cvrdd0110:share" it gives error. how to access these files?

    Read the article

  • Algorithm for generating an array of non-equal costs for a transport problem optimization

    - by Carlos
    I have an optimizer that solves a transportation problem, using a cost matrix of all the possible paths. The optimiser works fine, but if two of the costs are equal, the solution contains one more path that the minimum number of paths. (Think of it as load balancing routers; if two routes are same cost, you'll use them both.) I would like the minimum number of routes, and to do that I need a cost matrix that doesn't have two costs that are equal within a certain tolerance. At the moment, I'm passing the cost matrix through a baking function which tests every entry for equality to each of the other entries, and moves it a fixed percentage if it matches. However, this approach seems to require N^2 comparisons, and if the starting values are all the same, the last cost will be r^N bigger. (r is the arbitrary fixed percentage). Also there is the problem that by multiplying by the percentage, you end up on top of another value. So the problem seems to have an element of recursion, or at least repeated checking, which bloats the code. The current implementation is basically not very good (I won't paste my GOTO-using code here for you all to mock), and I'd like to improve it. Is there a name for what I'm after, and is there a standard implementation? Example: {1,1,2,3,4,5} (tol = 0.05) becomes {1,1.05,2,3,4,5}

    Read the article

  • How could I cache images that I'm pulling from a magento database through ajax?

    - by wes
    Here's script being called through ajax: <?php require_once '../app/Mage.php'; umask(0); /* not Mage::run(); */ Mage::app('default'); $cat_id = ($_POST['cat_id']) ? $_POST['cat_id'] : NULL; try { $category = new Mage_Catalog_Model_Category(); $category->load($cat_id); $collection = $category->getProductCollection(); $output = '<ul>'; foreach ($collection as $product) { $cProduct = Mage::getModel('catalog/product'); $cProduct->load($product->getId()); $output .= '<li><img id="'.$product->getId().'" src="' . (string)Mage::helper('catalog/image')->init($cProduct, 'small_image')->resize(75) . '" class="thumb" /></li>'; } $output .= '</ul>'; echo $output; } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } I'm just passing in the Category ID, which I've tacked onto the navigation links, then doing some work to eventually just pass back all product images in that category. I'm using this on a drag and drop build-a-bracelet type of application, and the amount of images returned is sometimes in the 500s. So it get's pretty held up during transmission, sometimes 10 seconds or so. I know I'd do good by caching them some way, just not sure how to go about it. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. -Wes

    Read the article

  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

    Read the article

  • Decompress a GZipped response from the server (Socket)

    - by Lith
    Umm, ok, after sending some data to the server, noting this particular part: "Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate\r\n" I am getting the following response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: nginx Date: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.8 Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT Last-Modified: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0 Pragma: no-cache Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding 7aa ??U-?Rh?%?2?w??PM]??7?qZ?K?)???2?&??m???"q??/p9w?????x?[`tA!G???G?5z??????a>k????????Q ???N?? ('??f?,(??Y:5B???-?)?3x^0e:j?`,???**???F>G)?2????@???b??????A?k???Ar?n? But how do I decompress it? Note that I am using the Socket Class to do all the work. I know how to decompress it, but the problem here lies in the fact that I cannot separate the Packet from the GZipped data, psuedo-psuedocode (or whatever) on how I do it: Socket sends packet; Socket reads response from server, stores into a ByteArray; Create MemoryStream, use ByteArray; Create GZipStream, use Memorystream; now the problem occurs; I am getting the following Error: System.IO.InvalidDataException The magic number in GZip header is not correct. Make sure you are passing in a GZip stream. I hope the explanation is clear enough __.

    Read the article

  • What is the correct high level schema.org microdata itemtype for a retail brand/company homepage?

    - by kpowz
    I'd like to hear which schema.org itemtype others would recommend using or have used in the case of completing a retail brand's company homepage microdata. Take for example TOMS's shoes: Example #1 - Using /Corporation as the high-level itemtype one can include a lot of great /Organization microdata, but nothing about the retail store. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Website> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Corporation> various microdata here probably including Product microdata </body> </html> NOTE: the only schema.org property specific to /Corporation is tickerSymbol & TOMS doesn't have one. Example #2 - This code would work if TOMS started their own channel of physical retail stores & each location had it's own homepage. However, for TOMS's.com, although accurate schematically & more descriptive at the face, this is incorrect microdata markup for TOMS.com, because /ShoeStore derives from /LocalBusiness - which must represent a physical place. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/Website'> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/ShoeStore'> a whole bunch of jabber here </body> </html> NOTE: Since TOMS is virtual & thus can't be a /Store this means you lose really cool properties like 'currenciesAccepted', 'paymentAccepted' & 'priceRange'. Is this just a 'sit and wait' situation until more schemas are approved for 'virtual places' or is there a validation-passing way to get the best of both worlds?

    Read the article

  • Resources and techniques/methods for SCJP preparation ?

    - by BenoitParis
    I am passing the SCJP 6 exam in a month. I have the "SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065" book. It seems great for the exam. But I want your advice on this. Getting the closest possible to 100% would be great. I have found a site that answered some of the questions you ask yourself when you go trough the book. Here is it : http://www.janeg.ca/java2.html As you can see it was written for Java 2 :/ I have written another specific question here on StackOverflow about the usefulness of JVM specification and Java compiler code for the SCJP. Will Update the results here. Here it is. Please share the resources you used in preparing the exam. Please also specify any resources that you think might help. Any type of resource is welcome: books, code, specs, sites, wikies, papers, online tests, grandmas... Please also share on any method/technique that helped you prepare the exam. Please also comment on the return you got from the resource and the method (for the learning process and for points in the exam) I'll begin: Book : "SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065". Seems like the official book for the preparation. Technique : Writing code in a text editor and compiling it with javac to test a question. NO IDEs! It helps you get a a straight answer to a question you have. It helps you pay attention to every word in the code (and this is very important in the SCJP) EDIT: Added dimension: Are there good, up-to-date online tests?

    Read the article

  • Python : How to close a UDP socket while is waiting for data in recv ?

    - by alexroat
    Hello, let's consider this code in python: import socket import threading import sys import select class UDPServer: def __init__(self): self.s=None self.t=None def start(self,port=8888): if not self.s: self.s=socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM) self.s.bind(("",port)) self.t=threading.Thread(target=self.run) self.t.start() def stop(self): if self.s: self.s.close() self.t.join() self.t=None def run(self): while True: try: #receive data data,addr=self.s.recvfrom(1024) self.onPacket(addr,data) except: break self.s=None def onPacket(self,addr,data): print addr,data us=UDPServer() while True: sys.stdout.write("UDP server> ") cmd=sys.stdin.readline() if cmd=="start\n": print "starting server..." us.start(8888) print "done" elif cmd=="stop\n": print "stopping server..." us.stop() print "done" elif cmd=="quit\n": print "Quitting ..." us.stop() break; print "bye bye" It runs an interactive shell with which I can start and stop an UDP server. The server is implemented through a class which launches a thread in which there's a infinite loop of recv/*onPacket* callback inside a try/except block which should detect the error and the exits from the loop. What I expect is that when I type "stop" on the shell the socket is closed and an exception is raised by the recvfrom function because of the invalidation of the file descriptor. Instead, it seems that recvfrom still to block the thread waiting for data even after the close call. Why this strange behavior ? I've always used this patter to implements an UDP server in C++ and JAVA and it always worked. I've tried also with a "select" passing a list with the socket to the xread argument, in order to get an event of file descriptor disruption from select instead that from recvfrom, but select seems to be "insensible" to the close too. I need to have a unique code which maintain the same behavior on Linux and Windows with python 2.5 - 2.6. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

    Read the article

  • static variable lose its value

    - by user542719
    I have helper class with this static variable that is used for passing data between two classes. public class Helper{ public static String paramDriveMod;//this is the static variable in first calss } this variable is used in following second class mathod public void USB_HandleMessage(char []USB_RXBuffer){ int type=USB_RXBuffer[2]; MESSAGES ms=MESSAGES.values()[type]; switch(ms) { case READ_PARAMETER_VALUE: // read parameter values switch(prm){ case PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE: // paramet drive mode Helper.paramDriveMod =(Integer.toString(((USB_RXBuffer[4]<< 8)&0xff00))); System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+"drive mode is selectd ");//here it shows the value that I need. ..........}}//let say end switch and method and the following is an third class method use the above class method public void buttonSwitch(int value) throws InterruptedException{ boolean bool=true; int c=0; int delay=(int) Math.random(); while(bool){ int param=3; PARAMETERS prm=PARAMETERS.values()[param]; switch(value){ case 0: value=1; while(c<5){ Thread.sleep(delay); protocol.onSending(3,prm.PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE.ordinal(),dataToRead,dataToRead.length);//read drive mode System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+" drive mode is ..........in wile loop");//here it shows null value }}//let say end switch and method what is the reason that this variable lose its value?

    Read the article

  • How to implement a single instance app manager in java (CVM PhoneME)?

    - by Marcus
    Hi, I'm working on a application manager for embeded platform based on the CVM PhoneME VM. The VM is started by a C++ app which configures the CVM and then triggers the VM itself. This C++ app is called form the command line passing the main class name and the classpath of a java application. There is a main java app (lets call it Manager) which loads the app using classloaders. I want this manager to be a single instance application so it could track all running apps. In other words: The first time I start an app (app1 for instance), the VM will launch and the Manager will load the app1. In further calls to load other apps (app2, app3 and so on), the same instance of the Manager would load those apps. The manager is working fine, except for the fact that this is not a single instance. Is it possible to do what I want? I found this: http://www.knowledgesutra.com/forums/topic/59760-how-to-implement-single-instance-application-on-java/ This is almost the same I want, except for the app loading part. However, the necessary packages are not available in the CVM implementation. Thanks very much.

    Read the article

  • SugarmCRM REST API always returns "null"

    - by TuomasR
    I'm trying to test out the SugarCRM REST API, running latest version of CE (6.0.1). It seems that whenever I do a query, the API returns "null", nothing else. If I omit the parameters, then the API returns the API description (which the documentation says it should). I'm trying to perform a login, passing as parameter the method (login), input_type and response_type (json) and rest_data (JSON encoded parameters). The following code does the query: $api_target = "http://example.com/sugarcrm/service/v2/rest.php"; $parameters = json_encode(array( "user_auth" => array( "user_name" => "admin", "password" => md5("adminpassword"), ), "application_name" => "Test", "name_value_list" => array(), )); $postData = http_build_query(array( "method" => "login", "input_type" => "json", "response_type" => "json", "rest_data" => $parameters )); echo $parameters . "\n"; echo $postData . "\n"; echo file_get_contents($api_target, false, stream_context_create(array( "http" => array( "method" => "POST", "header" => "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n", "content" => $postData ) ))) . "\n"; I've tried different variations of parameters and using username instead of user_name, and all provide the same result, just a response "null" and that's it.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

    Read the article

  • Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

    - by Harry Pham
    This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

    Read the article

  • What to pass parameters to start an workflow through WCF

    - by Rubens Farias
    It's possible to define some start values to an workflow using WorkflowInstance.CreateWorkflow, like this: using(WorkflowRuntime runtime = new WorkflowRuntime()) { Dictionary<string, object> parameters = new Dictionary<string, object>(); parameters.Add("First", "something"); parameters.Add("Second", 42); WorkflowInstance instance = runtime.CreateWorkflow(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow), parameters); instance.Start(); waitHandle.WaitOne(); } This way, a MyStateMachineWorkflow instance is created and First and Second public properties gets that dictionary values. But I'm using WCF; so far, I managed to create a Start method which accepts that two arguments and I set that required fields by using bind on my ReceiveActivity: using (WorkflowServiceHost host = new WorkflowServiceHost(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow))) { host.Open(); ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow> factory = new ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow>("MyStateMachineWorkflow"); IMyStateMachineWorkflow proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); // set this values through binding on my ReceiveActivity proxy.Start("something", 42); } While this works, that create an anomaly: that method should be called only and exactly once. How can I start an workflow instance through WCF passing those arguments? On my tests, I just actually interact with my workflow through wire after I call that proxy method. Is there other way?

    Read the article

  • Stuck trying to get Log4Net to work with Dependency Injection

    - by Pure.Krome
    I've got a simple winform test app i'm using to try some Log4Net Dependency Injection stuff. I've made a simple interface in my Services project :- public interface ILogging { void Debug(string message); // snip the other's. } Then my concrete type will be using Log4Net... public class Log4NetLogging : ILogging { private static ILog Log4Net { get { return LogManager.GetLogger( MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); } } public void Debug(string message) { if (Log4Net.IsDebugEnabled) { Log4Net.Debug(message); } } } So far so good. Nothing too hard there. Now, in a different project (and therefore namesapce), I try and use this ... public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { FileInfo fileInfo = new FileInfo("Log4Net.config"); log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(fileInfo); } private void Foo() { // This would be handled with DI, but i've not set it up // (on the constructor, in this code example). ILogging logging = new Log4NetLogging(); logging.Debug("Test message"); } } Ok .. also pretty simple. I've hardcoded the ILogging instance but that is usually dependency injected via the constructor. Anyways, when i check this line of code... return LogManager.GetLogger(MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); the DeclaringType type value is of the Service namespace, not the type of the Form (ie. X.Y.Z.Form1) which actually called the method. Without passing the type INTO method as another argument, is there anyway using reflection to figure out the real method that called it?

    Read the article

  • Is MarshalByRefObject special?

    - by Vilx-
    .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

    Read the article

  • Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

    - by worlds-apart89
    I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

    Read the article

  • android httpurlconnection [closed]

    - by user620451
    hi im new android developer i am trying to login to my asterisk server passing my username and password it works good but when i am trying to request anther url to the server after login i get access denied and i now the problem because the login connection has disconnected so i want a way to request to urls the first one is login to the server and the second is to do something else after login please help and thx anyway this is a part of my code i want to request this 2 url url1="http://192.168.1.7:8088/rawman?action=login&username=admin&secret=admin" url2="http://192.168.1.5:8088/rawman?action=updateconfig&reload=yes&srcfilename=users.conf&dstfilename=users.conf&Action-000000=newcat&Cat-000000=6001&Var-000000=&Value-000000=" public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); tv1 = (TextView) this.findViewById(R.id.display); ed1 = (EditText) this.findViewById(R.id.editText); bt1 = (Button) this.findViewById(R.id.submit); bt1.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { { try{ ServerRequest(url1); ServerRequest(url2); } catch(Exception e) { Log.v("Exception", "Exception:"+e.getMessage()); } } } }); } public String ServerRequest(String serverString) throws MalformedURLException, IOException { String newFeed=serverString; StringBuilder response = new StringBuilder(); Log.v("server","server url:"+newFeed); URL url = new URL(newFeed); HttpURLConnection httpconn = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); if(httpconn.getResponseCode()==HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK) { BufferedReader input = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(httpconn.getInputStream()), 8192); String strLine = null; while ((strLine = input.readLine()) != null) { response.append(strLine); } input.close(); } tv1.settext(response); return response.toString(); }

    Read the article

  • Is this overly clever or unsafe?

    - by Liberalkid
    I was working on some code recently and decided to work on my operator overloading in c++, because I've never really implemented it before. So I overloaded the comparison operators for my matrix class using a compare function that returned 0 if LHS was less than RHS, 1 if LHS was greater than RHS and 2 if they were equal. Then I exploited the properties of logical not in c++ on integers, to get all of my compares in one line: inline bool Matrix::operator<(Matrix &RHS){ return ! (compare(*this,RHS)); } inline bool Matrix::operator>(Matrix &RHS){ return ! (compare((*this),RHS)-1); } inline bool Matrix::operator>=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS); } inline bool Matrix::operator<=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS)-1; } inline bool Matrix::operator!=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS)-2; } inline bool Matrix::operator==(Matrix &RHS){ return !(compare((*this),RHS)-2); } Obviously I should be passing RHS as a const, I'm just probably not going to use this matrix class again and I didn't feel like writing another function that wasn't a reference to get the array index values solely for the comparator operation.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284  | Next Page >