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  • How to perform a 301 redirect of all .php URLs to clean URLs?

    - by spacedatdusk
    My htaccess isn't quite working the way I want it to. I've seen some similar threads on here but they aren't quite what I need and I don't know enough yet about htaccess to modify the code to suit my needs. This is what I have working so far: I've got all non-www URLs redirecting to www URLs and I'm doing an internal rewrite of all URLs to the corresponding PHP file on the server. In the files I have relative links that are clean without any file extension on them. This is what I need to do yet: All the pages on my site are still accessible through URLs with .php on the end. For SEO reasons I want the URL's with .php to all do an external 301 redirect to the clean URL without the extension. Here's what I have in my htaccess file that's in the root folder on my server. Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1.php RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.domain.com/$1 [L,R=301] I'd appreciate any help. Thanks in advance!

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  • Problem using Flash Components in multiple SWC files

    - by Ken Dunnington
    [Edit: Short version - how do you properly handle namespace collisions in SWC files if one SWC has fewer classes from that namespace than another?] I have a rather large Flash application which I'm building in Flash Builder (because coding/debugging in the Flash IDE is... not good) and I've got a ton of external SWC files which I'm linking in to my application. This has worked well so far - the file size is on the large side, but it's a lot simpler than loading in SWFs, especially since I am extending most of the classes in each SWC and adding custom code that way (it's a very design-heavy app.) The problem I'm having is when I have Flash Components, like ComboBox or TextInput, in more than one SWC. Whichever SWC was compiled last will work fine, but the others will fail with errors like the following: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert flash.display::MovieClip@1f21adc1 to fl.controls.TextInput. at flash.display::Sprite/constructChildren() at flash.display::Sprite() at flash.display::MovieClip() at com.company.design.login::LoginForm() at com.company.view::Login()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Login.as:22] at com.company.view::Main/showLogin()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Main.as:209] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at com.company.view::Navigation/handleUIClick()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Navigation.as:88] I've been researching components, ComponentShim, etc. but I'm running up against a brick wall. I thought it might be the fact that some of the components had their skins modified in the source FLA, so I tried replacing them with the default skins, but that didn't seem to help. How can I ensure that I have the components imported and available to all my classes, yet still be able to skin them and include them in my various FLAs? (I am never creating new instances of them, they are all laid out by my designer.)

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  • How do you write Valid XHTML 1.0 Strict code when you are using javascript to fill an element that r

    - by Tim Visher
    I'm running my site through the W3C's validator trying to get it to validate as XHTML 1.0 Strict and I've gotten down to a particularly sticky (at least in my experience) validation error. I'm including certain badges from various services in the site that provide their own API and code for inclusion on an external site. These badges use javascript (for the most part) to fill an element that you insert in the markup which requires a child. This means that in the end, perfectly valid markup is generated, but to the validator, all it sees is an incomplete parent-child tag which it then throws an error on. As a caveat, I understand that I could complain to the services that their badges don't validate. Sans this, I assume that someone has validated their code while including badges like this, and that's what I'm interested in. Answers such as, 'Complain to Flickr about their badge' aren't going to help me much. An additional caveat: I would prefer that as much as possible the markup remains semantic. I.E. Adding an empty li tag or tr-td pair to make it validate would be an undesirable solution, even though it may be necessary. If that's the only way it can be made to validate, oh well, but please lean answers towards semantic markup. As an example: <div id="twitter_div"> <h2><a href="http://twitter.com/stopsineman">@Twitter</a></h2> <ul id="twitter_update_list"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/javascripts/blogger.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/stopsineman.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> </ul> </div> Notice the ul tags wrapping the javascript. This eventually gets filled in with lis via the script, but to the validator it only sees the unpopulated ul. Thanks in advance!

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  • Unit Testing.... a data provider ?

    - by TomTom
    Given problem: I like unit tests. I develop connectivity software to external systems that pretty much and often use a C++ library The return of this systems is nonndeterministic. Data is received while running, but making sure it is all correctly interpreted is hard. How can I test this properly? I can run a unit test that does a connect. Sadly, it will then process a life data stream. I can say I run the test for 30 or 60 seconds before disconnecting, but getting code ccoverage is impossible - I simply dont even comeclose to get all code paths EVERY ONCE PER DAY (error code paths are rarely run). I also can not really assert every result. Depending on the time of the day we talk of 20.000 data callbacks per second - all of which are not relly determined good enough to validate each of them for consistency. Mocking? Well, that would leave me testing an empty shell of myself because the code handling the events basically is the to be tested case, and in many cases we talk here of a COMPLEX c level structure - hard to have mocking frameworks that integrate from Csharp to C++ Anyone any idea? I am short on giving up using unit tests for this part of the application.

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  • Vim script to compile TeX source and launch PDF only if no errors

    - by Jeet
    Hi, I am switching to using Vim for for my LaTeX editing environment. I would like to be able to tex the source file from within Vim, and launch an external viewing if the compile was successful. I know about the Vim-Latex suite, but, if possible, would prefer to avoid using it: it is pretty heavy-weight, hijacks a lot of my keys, and clutters up my vimruntime with a lot of files. Here is what I have now: if exists('b:tex_build_mapped') finish endif " use maparg or mapcheck to see if key is free command! -buffer -nargs=* BuildTex call BuildTex(0, <f-args>) command! -buffer -nargs=* BuildAndViewTex call BuildTex(1, <f-args>) noremap <buffer> <silent> <F9> <Esc>:call BuildTex(0)<CR> noremap <buffer> <silent> <S-F9> <Esc>:call BuildTex(1)<CR> let b:tex_build_mapped = 1 if exists('g:tex_build_loaded') finish endif let g:tex_build_loaded = 1 function! BuildTex(view_results, ...) write if filereadable("Makefile") " If Makefile is available in current working directory, run 'make' with arguments echo "(using Makefile)" let l:cmd = "!make ".join(a:000, ' ') echo l:cmd execute l:cmd if a:view_results && v:shell_error == 0 call ViewTexResults() endif else let b:tex_flavor = 'pdflatex' compiler tex make % if a:view_results && v:shell_error == 0 call ViewTexResults() endif endif endfunction function! ViewTexResults(...) if a:0 == 0 let l:target = expand("%:p:r") . ".pdf" else let l:target = a:1 endif if has('mac') execute "! open -a Preview ".l:target endif endfunction The problem is that v:shell_error is not set, even if there are compile errors. Any suggestions or insight on how to detect whether a compile was successful or not would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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  • Can I autogenerate/compile code on-the-fly, at runtime, based upon values (like key/value pairs) parsed out of a configuration file?

    - by Kumba
    This might be a doozy for some. I'm not sure if it's even 100% implementable, but I wanted to throw the idea out there to see if I'm really off of my rocker yet. I have a set of classes that mimics enums (see my other questions for specific details/examples). For 90% of my project, I can compile everything in at design time. But the remaining 10% is going to need to be editable w/o re-compiling the project in VS 2010. This remaining 10% will be based on a templated version of my Enums class, but will generate code at runtime, based upon data values sourced in from external configuration files. To keep this question small, see this SO question for an idea of what my Enums class looks like. The templated fields, per that question, will be the MaxEnums Int32, Names String() array, and Values array, plus each shared implementation of the Enums sub-class (which themselves, represent the Enums that I use elsewhere in my code). I'd ideally like to parse values from a simple text file (INI-style) of key/value pairs: [Section1] Enum1=enum_one Enum2=enum_two Enum3=enum_three So that the following code would be generated (and compiled) at runtime (comments/supporting code stripped to reduce question size): Friend Shared ReadOnly MaxEnums As Int32 = 3 Private Shared ReadOnly _Names As String() = New String() _ {"enum_one", "enum_two", "enum_three"} Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum1 As New Enums(_Names(0), 1) Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum2 As New Enums(_Names(1), 2) Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum3 As New Enums(_Names(2), 4) Friend Shared ReadOnly Values As Enums() = New Enums() _ {Enum1, Enum2, Enum3} I'm certain this would need to be generated in MSIL code, and I know from reading that the two components to look at are CodeDom and Reflection.Emit, but I was wondering if anyone had working examples (or pointers to working examples) versus really long articles. I'm a hands-on learner, so I have to have example code to play with. Thanks!

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  • How can I update the album art path using contentResolver?

    - by Ungureanu Liviu
    Hi! I want to update/insert a new image for an album in MediaStore but i can't get it work.. This is my code: public void updateAlbumImage(String path, int albumID) { ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); values.put(MediaStore.Audio.Albums.ALBUM_ART, path); int n = contentResolver.update(MediaStore.Audio.Albums.EXTERNAL_CONTENT_URI, values, MediaStore.Audio.Albums.ALBUM_ID + "=" + albumID, null); Log.e(TAG, "updateAlbumImage(" + path + ", " + albumID + "): " + n); } The error is: 03-24 03:09:46.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(5319): java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: Unknown or unsupported URL: content://media/external/audio/albums 03-24 03:09:46.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(5319): at android.database.DatabaseUtils.readExceptionFromParcel(DatabaseUtils.java:131) 03-24 03:09:46.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(5319): at android.database.DatabaseUtils.readExceptionFromParcel(DatabaseUtils.java:111) 03-24 03:09:46.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(5319): at android.content.ContentProviderProxy.update(ContentProviderNative.java:405) 03-24 03:09:46.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(5319): at android.content.ContentResolver.update(ContentResolver.java:554) 03-24 03:09:46.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(5319): at com.liviu.app.smpp.managers.AudioManager.updateAlbumImage(AudioManager.java:563) 03-24 03:09:46.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(5319): at com.liviu.app.smpp.ShowAlbumsActivity.saveImageFile(ShowAlbumsActivity.java:375) 03-24 03:09:46.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(5319): at com.liviu.app.smpp.ShowAlbumsActivity.onClick(ShowAlbumsActivity.java:350) Thank you!

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  • C# average function without overflow exception

    - by Ron Klein
    .NET Framework 3.5. I'm trying to calculate the average of some pretty large numbers. For instance: using System; using System.Linq; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var items = new long[] { long.MaxValue - 100, long.MaxValue - 200, long.MaxValue - 300 }; try { var avg = items.Average(); Console.WriteLine(avg); } catch (OverflowException ex) { Console.WriteLine("can't calculate that!"); } Console.ReadLine(); } } Obviously, the mathematical result is 9223372036854775607 (long.MaxValue - 200), but I get an exception there. This is because the implementation (on my machine) to the Average extension method, as inspected by .NET Reflector is: public static double Average(this IEnumerable<long> source) { if (source == null) { throw Error.ArgumentNull("source"); } long num = 0L; long num2 = 0L; foreach (long num3 in source) { num += num3; num2 += 1L; } if (num2 <= 0L) { throw Error.NoElements(); } return (((double) num) / ((double) num2)); } I know I can use a BigInt library (yes, I know that it is included in .NET Framework 4.0, but I'm tied to 3.5). But I still wonder if there's a pretty straight forward implementation of calculating the average of integers without an external library. Do you happen to know about such implementation? Thanks!! UPDATE: The previous example, of three large integers, was just an example to illustrate the overflow issue. The question is about calculating an average of any set of numbers which might sum to a large number that exceeds the type's max value. Sorry about this confusion. I also changed the question's title to avoid additional confusion. Thanks all!!

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  • jQuery UI ThemeRoller - Installing themes

    - by CJM
    I'm trying to install jQuery UI with a ThemeRoller theme for the first time. I've downloaded jquery 1.4.2... I've downloaded jQuery UI with a couple of themes. I've tried to follow the instructions but they seem contradictory and don't seem to related to the downloaded files. When I try to use a datepicker... the datepicker functionality works, but it has the default (grey) style. This page refers to a folder/sub-folder/css files that don't exist. This page refers to a ui.theme.css file that doesn't exist. The downloads I received included the following: --demos --docs --external --themes ----base ----[theme name] --ui ----i8n ----minified --js So what do you put where? I've copied the js to the appropriate directory and linked it into my page. And I copied the themes/base folder as well, and linked into the jquery.ui.all.css file. Even the included demos only display the default (grey) styling. Where am I going wrong? The head section: <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.custom.min.js"></script> <link rel="Stylesheet" href="/css/smoothness/jquery.ui.all.css" /> The body section: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); </script> <div> <p>Date: <input type="text" id="datepicker" /></p> </div>

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  • Ubuntu 10.04 (Lucid) OpenLDAP invalid credentials issue

    - by gmuller
    This won't be a question, but a solution to an infuriating problem on Ubuntu 10.04. If you tried to deploy an LDAP server using this distro following the tutorials below, you'll be on serious trouble. Tutorials: https://help.ubuntu.com/9.10/serverguide/C/openldap-server.html https://help.ubuntu.com/9.10/serverguide/C/samba-ldap.html The error first appear, on the line: "ldapsearch -xLLL -b cn=config -D cn=admin,cn=config -W olcDatabase=hdb olcAccess" It simply won't allow admin to access the "cn=config", thus you won't be able to deploy the LDAP server correctly. After almost a week searching for a solution, I've found this page: https://bugs.launchpad.net/ubuntu-docs/+bug/333733 On comment #5, the solution is presented. Quoting the author: when you get to the setting up ACL part you all of a sudden need to use a cn=admin,cn=config, that doesn't exist creating a config.ldif with dn: olcDatabase={0}config,cn=config changetype: modify add: olcRootDN olcRootDN: cn=admin,cn=config dn: olcDatabase={0}config,cn=config changetype: modify add: olcRootPW olcRootPW: secret dn: olcDatabase={0}config,cn=config changetype: modify delete: olcAccess and adding it with ldapadd -Y EXTERNAL -H ldapi:/// -f config.ldif It's unacceptable that a Linux distribution, popular like Ubuntu, have such ridiculous bug. Hope it helps everyone!

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  • I can't compile android projetc wiht JNI code

    - by lobi
    I'm trying to build simple android app with some JNI code. When I press build project in eclipse I get this error: Description Resource Path Location Type fatal error: algorithm: No such file or directory Tracker line 56, external location: /home/slani/code/OpenCV-2.4.6-android-sdk/sdk/native/jni/include/opencv2/core/core.hpp C/C++ Problem make: *** [obj/local/armeabi/objs/detect_jni/detect_jni.o] Error 1 Tracker C/C++ Problem Line 56 in core.hpp contains the relevant include. This is my Android.mk file jni folder: LOCAL_PATH := $(call my-dir) include $(CLEAR_VARS) include /home/slani/code/OpenCV-2.4.6-android-sdk/sdk/native/jni/OpenCV.mk LOCAL_MODULE := detect_jni LOCAL_SRC_FILES := detect_jni.cpp include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) This is my Aplication.mk file in jni folder: APP_STL := gnustl_static APP_CPPFLAGS := -frtti -fexceptions APP_ABI := armeabi-v7a APP_PLATFORM := all This is my .cpp file: #include <jni.h> #include <opencv/cv.h> #include <opencv2/imgproc/imgproc.hpp> #include <opencv2/features2d/features2d.hpp> using namespace cv; extern "C"{ JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_com_slani_tracker_OpenCamera_findObject((JNIEnv *env, jlong addRgba, jlong addHsv); JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_com_slani_tracker_OpenCamera_findObject((JNIEnv *env, jlong addRgba, jlong addHsv) { Mat& rgba = *(Mat*)addRgba; Mat& hsv = *(Mat*)addHsv; cvtColor(rgba, hsv,CV_RGBA2HSV); } } Can someone please help me? What could be causing this problem? Thanks

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  • Command /Developer/usr/bin/dsymutil failed with exit code 10

    - by Evan Robinson
    I am getting the above error message randomly (so far as I can tell) on iPhone projects. Occasionally it will go away upon either: Clean Restart XCode Reboot Reinstall XCode But sometimes it won't. When it won't the only solution I have found is to take all the source material, import it into a new project, and then redo all the connections in IB. Then I'm good until it strikes again. Anybody have any suggestions? [update 20091030] I have tried building both debug and release versions, both full and lite versions. I've also tried switching the debug symbols from DWARF with external dSYM file to DWARF and to stabs. Clean builds in all formats make no differences. Permission repairs change nothing. Setting up a new user has no effect. Same error on the builds. Thanks for the suggestions! [Update 20091031] Here's an easier and (apparently) reliable workaround. It hinges upon the discovery that the problem is linked to a target not a project In the same project file, create a new target Option-Drag (copy) all the files from the BAD target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder to the NEW target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder Repeat (2) with 'Compile Sources' and 'Link Binary With Libraries' Duplicate the Info.plist file for the BAD target and name it correctly for the NEW target. Build the NEW target! [Update 20100222] Apparently an IDE bug, now apparently fixed, although Apple does not allow direct access to the original bug of a duplicate. I can no longer reproduce this behaviour, so hopefully it is dead, dead, dead.

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  • Display HTML page in Office 2003 or 2007 task pane via VBA

    - by Malcolm
    Is it possible to display an HTML page in an Office 2003 and/or 2007 task pane via VBA? Background: We have a complicated configuration file that our users maintain in Word (using a real editor is not an option for our audience). We would like to create several toolbar buttons that display a basic HTML page in a task pane as a form of online help for our users. The reason we want to use a task pane to display help (vs. an external browser or traditional help engine) is so that the help content is "embedded" in Word vs. displayed via a seperate application. The problem with using a regular browser or help engine to display help is that users have to manually size and position both applications so that they can see them simultaneously and its very easy to "lose" one application when togging between many applications. We don't want to go down the route of writing a VisualStudio based task pane component - we want to keep things simple (KISS) and encapsulate everything in an easy to distribute Word template file (.dot or dotx.). Suggestions?

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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  • Deploy to remote server using scp in NANT script

    - by Mini
    I am trying to copy a file to a remote server using scp task in Nant.Contrib . I have used the following code to do that: <target name= "QADeploy"description="gthtyb" > <loadtasks assembly="C:\nantcontrib-0.85\bin\NAnt.Contrib.Tasks.dll" /> <echo message="htyh"/> <scp file="D:\SourceTest\redist.txt" server="\\10.4.30.19" user="xxx:uuuu"> </scp> </target> But I am getting an error: scp failed to start. The system cannot find the file specified. The code is as follows: Then I have downloaded pscp.exe and modified the code as below: <target name= "QADeploy" description="gthtyb" > <loadtasks assembly="C:\nantcontrib-0.85\bin\NAnt.Contrib.Tasks.dll" /> <echo message="htyh"/> <scp file="D:\SourceTest\redist.txt" server="\\10.4.30.19" user="xxx:uuuu" program="C:\pscp\pscp.exe"> </scp> Now I am getting the following error: [scp] ssh_init:host does not exist External Program Failed:C:\pscp\pscp.exe can u please help whats the best way to copy a file to a remote server using Nant. I am using this code to deploy files to a remote server. Thanks

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  • HtmlForm.Action and .Net Framework 2.0/3.5 Query

    - by Brian
    Disappointingly, the members page for HtmlForm 2.0 is missing... My research seems to indicate that HtmlForm.Action is a property that was added in .Net Framework 3.5. However, I'm using VS2005 and my reference to System.Web (the namespace HtmlForm is under) is to a .Net Framework 2.0 runtime version. Further, my IIS status information also indicates I am using .Net Framework 2.0, when I force an error on my local IIS and read it. Despite this, I am able to use form1.Action successfully...but only on my local IIS. When I try it on vms and external servers, I get [MissingMethodException: Method not found: 'System.String System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.get_Action()'.] errors. So, my question: 1) Why does it work on my local IIS? Does the fact that I have the 3.5 framework installed make a difference, here? 2) Why does it not work on other IIS? (I think this is because it's not part of .Net 2.0). I guess I just figure that if something is running on .Net Framework 2.0, the presence of 3.5 should not make a difference. Or maybe there's some other cause for these results.

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  • Java Swingworker: Not as encapsulated class

    - by Thomas Matthews
    I'm having problems passing information, updating progress and indicating "done" with a SwingWorker class that is not an encapsulated class. I have a simple class that processes files and directories on a hard drive. The user clicks on the Start button and that launches an instance of the SwingWorker. I would like to print the names of the files that are processed on the JTextArea in the Event Driven Thread from the SwingWorker as update a progress bar. All the examples on the web are for an nested class, and the nested class accesses variables in the outer class (such as the done method). I would also like to signal the Event Driven Thread that the SwingWorker is finished so the EDT can perform actions such as enabling the Start button (and clearing fields). Here are my questions: 1. How does the SwingWorker class put text into the JTextArea of the Event Driven Thread and update a progress bar? How does the EDT determine when the {external} SwingWorker thread is finished? {I don't want the SwingWorker as a nested class because there is a lot of code (and processing) done.}

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  • Best way for a remote web app to authenticate users in my current web app?

    - by jklp
    So a bit of background, I'm working on an existing web application which has a set of users, who are able to log in via a traditional login screen with a user name and password, etc. Recently we've managed to score a client (who have their own Intranet site), who are wanting to be able to have their users log into their Intranet site, and then have their users click a link on their Intranet which redirects to our application and logs them into it automatically. I've had two suggestions on how to implement this so far: Create a URL which takes 2 parameters (which are "username" and "password") and have the Intranet site pass those parameters to us (our connection is via TLS so it's all encrypted). This would work fine, but it seems a little "hacky", and also means that the logins and passwords have to be the same on both systems (and having to write some kind of web service which can update the passwords for users - which also seems a bit insecure) Provide a token to the Intranet, so when the client clicks on a link on the Intranet, it sends the token to us, along with the user name (and no password) which means they're authenticated. Again, this sounds a bit hacky as isn't that essentially the same as providing everyone with the same password to log in? So to summarise, I'm after the following things: A way for the users who are already authenticated on the Intranet to log into our system without too much messing around, and without using an external system to authenticate, i.e. LDAP / Kerberos Something which isn't too specific to this client, and can easily be implemented by other Intranets to log in

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  • ClassCastException When Calling an EJB that Exists on Same Server

    - by aaronvargas
    I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 NOTE (not normal use case but may help): When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and this server is NOT listed in the provider URLs for Ejb-B, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get the same Exception as above. I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines.

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  • Understanding LinkDemand Security on a webserver

    - by robertpnl
    Hi, After deployment an ASP.Net application on a webserver, I get this error message by using code from a external assembly: "LinkDemand The type of the first permission that failed was: System.Security.PermissionSet The Zone of the assembly that failed was: MyComputer the error ". The assembly is include in the \bin folder and not in the GAC. I try to know what linkdemand exactly is and why this message will raised. But looking for more information, I don't get exactly the problem. I try also to add the PermissionSetAttribute on the class where the exception message happens: [System.Security.Permissions.PermissionSetAttribute(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Name = "FullTrust")] Then the exception will be raised on another class of the assembly. And so on.. My questions ares: - what exactly is going wrong here? Is it true that I understand that .Net cannot check the code during Jit? - Is there maybe a security policy that block this (machine.config)? - Can I set the PermissionAttribute for all classes between a assembly? Thanks.

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  • How to debug a web service written in PHP?

    - by nightcoder
    Hello, I've got a nice question here :) I need to debug my web service written in PHP. Its client is written in C#. After a couple of days of searching I realized this is not an easy task. At least it seems nobody knows the right solution. What is the problem in, actually? We have 2 popular PHP debugging libraries : PHP Debugger from NuSphere and XDebug extension. The problem is they both are controlled from URL query string or with the help of cookies. For example, to enable debugging with PHP Debugger you need to add ?DBGSESSID=xxx parameter to your URL or to have DBGSESSID cookie. But when your web service is called from the external client, the client doesn't have a cookie and doesn't add DBGSESSID url parameter. So how can we debug in this situation? PS. I don't want to write to log files, see request and response headers/data or something like this. I want normal step-by-step debugging and breakpoints. Anyone?

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  • NSXMLParser: how do I wait until loading has finished?

    - by Archagon
    Let's say I'm using NSXMLParser to load a level (stored as an XML document, obviously) into my iPhone game. NSXMLParser works by assigning a delegate and sending it messages at key moments. How do I ensure that my entire level is loaded before doing anything else? I know I can make my main class the delegate and implement parserDidEndDocument, but this feels very hacky. My main class shouldn't have to know anything about the way the parsing is done! On the other hand, if I make a separate class/delegate for parsing my level, my main class has no way of knowing when the parsing is finished, unless it queries the parsing class continuously or the parsing class sends it a message. Either way, the main class would be tied to the implementation of the parsing class. Can I hide all this event-driven business from the main class and simply make the parser return the level object when it's done? (i.e., newLevel = [[GameLevel alloc] initFromXML:xmlfile], which would in turn use NSXMLParser to load the level and then somehow return when finished.) At the moment, I'm using an external DOM parser, but I'm curious how this would be done with NSXMLParser. Sorry if this is a stupid question -- I'm a bit new to this!

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  • Open mails in outlook from java using the protocol "mapi://"

    - by Goulutor
    I developp a Java application using Windows Desktop Search from which I can retrieve some information about files on my computer such as urls (System.ItemUrl). An example of such url is file://c:/users/ausername/documents/aninterestingfile.txt for "normal" files. This field give also urls of mail items indexed from Outlook or Thunderbird. Thunderbird's items (only available using vista and seven) are also files (.wdseml). But outlook's items urls start with "mapi://" like : mapi://{S-1-5-21-1626573300-1364474481-487586288-1001}/[email protected]($b423dcd5)/0/Inbox/???????????????????????? The problem I have is opening the real item from Java in Outlook using this url. If I copy/paste it in the run dialog of Windows, it works ; it also works if I use "start" followed by the copied/pasted url in command line. The url seems to be encoded in UTF-16. I want to be able to write such code : String url = "mapi://{S-1-5-21-1626573300-1364474481-487586288-1001}/[email protected]($b423dcd5)/0/Inbox/????????????????????????"; Runtime.getRuntime().exec("cmd.exe /C start " + url); I doesn't work and I've tried other solutions like : String start = "start"; String url = "mapi://{S-1-5-21-1626573300-1364474481-487586288-1001}/[email protected]($b423dcd5)/0/Inbox/????????????????????????"; FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(new File("test.bat"); fos.write(start.getBytes("UTF16"); fos.write(url.getBytes("UTF16")); fos.close(); Runtime.getRuntime().exec("cmd.exe /C test.bat"); without any success. Using the solution above, the file "test.bat" contains the correct url and the "start" command, but the run of "test.bat" results in the well known error message : '¦' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. Has anybody an idea to be able to open "mapi://" items from Java ?

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  • Is it possible to open a new frame in html bellow an existing frame in HTML?

    - by Prashant Dubey
    Hi friends I have a html main.html as given ----- main.html---------------- <title>FlexTrail</title> <script src="main.js"></script> <frameset rows='200,200'> <frame id='one' src="file:///C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/demo/Desktop/FlexTrail/project1/bin-debug/project1.html" frameborder='0' /> <frame id='two' src="" frameborder='0' /> </frameset> </head> <body > </body> here the first frame contains a html generated by Flex Builder 3 and on button click on that flex project i am calling function func2() in main.js using External Interface. ---- main.js----------------- var flag2=0; function func2() { flag2=1; parent.frames['one'].location="file:///C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/demo/Desktop/FlexTrail/project1/bin-debug/project1.html"; parent.frames['two'].location="file:///C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/demo/Desktop/FlexTrail/project2/bin-debug/project2.html"; } I want the other file to open in same window bellow the first one.But the problem here is when i run this in IE8 the other frame opens in a different window but in Firefox im not getting any respose. Note:- Javascript is enabled in both browsers and popup are not blocked Plz tell me where i m wrong Thanks in advance Prashant Dubey

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  • SVN Workflow - Chicken Before the Egg - Before merging V1 with V2, I need code from V1 to work on V2

    - by Jake
    Hi, Our distributed team (3 internal devs and 3+ external devs) use SVN to manage our codebase for a web site. We have a branch for each minor version (4.1.0, 4.1.1, 4.1.2, etc...). We have a trunk which we merge each version into when we do a release and publish to our site. An example of the problem we are having is thus: A new feature is added, lets call it "Ability to Create A Project" to 4.1.1. Another feature which depends on the one in 4.1.1 is scheduled to go in 4.1.2, called "Ability to Add Tasks to Projects". So, on Monday, we say 4.1.1 is 'closed' and needs to be tested. Our remote developers usually will start working on features/tickets for 4.1.2 at this point. Throughout the week we will test 4.1.1 and fix any bugs and commit them back to 4.1.1. Then, on Friday or so, we will tag 4.1.1, merge it with trunk, and finally, merge it with 4.1.2. But, for the 4-5 days we are testing, 4.1.2 doesn't have the code from 4.1.1 that some of the new features for 4.1.2 depend on. So a dev who is adding the "Ability to Add Tasks To Projects" feature, doesn't have the "Ability to Create a Project" feature to build upon, and has to do some file copy shenanigans to be able to keep working on it. What could/should we do to smooth out this process? P.S. Apologies if this question has been asked before - I did search but couldn't find what I'm looking for.

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