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  • Creating a spam list with a web crawler in python

    - by user313623
    Hey guys, I'm not trying to do anything malicious here, I just need to do some homework. I'm a fairly new programmer, I'm using python 3.0, and I having difficulty using recursion for problem-solving. I've been stuck on this question for quite a while. Here's the assignment: Write a recursive method spam(url, n) that takes a url of a web page as input and a non-negative integer n, collects all the email address contained in the web page and adds them to a global dictionary variable spam_dict, and then recursively calls itself on every http hyperlink contained in the web page. You will use a dictionary so only one copy of every email address is save; your dictionary will store (key,value) pairs (email, email). The recursive call should use the parameter n-1 instead of n. If n = 0, you should collect the email addresses but no recursive calls should be made. The parameter n is used to limit the recursion to at most depth n. You will need to use the solutions of the two above problems; you method spam() will call the methods links2() and emails() and possibly other functions as well. Notes: 1. running spam() directly will produce no output on the screen; to find your spam_dict, you will need to read the value of spam_dict, and you will also need to reset it to the empty dictionary before every run of spam. 2. Recall how global variables are used. Usage: spam_dict = {} spam('http://reed.cs.depaul.edu/lperkovic/csc242/test1.html',0) spam_dict.keys() dict_keys([]) spam_dict = {} spam('http://reed.cs.depaul.edu/lperkovic/csc242/test1.html',1) spam_dict.keys() dict_keys(['[email protected]', '[email protected]']) So far, I've written a function that traverses web pages and puts all the links in a nice little list, and what I wanted to do was call that functions. And why would I use recursion on a dictionary? And how? I don't understand how n ties into all of this. def links2(url): content = str(urlopen(url).read()) myparser = MyHTMLParser() myparser.feed(content) lst = myparser.get() mergelst = [] for link in lst: mergelst.append(urljoin(lst[0],link)) print(mergelst) Any input (except why spam is bad) would be greatly appreciated. Also, I realize that the above function could probably look better, if you have a way to do it, I'm all ears. However, all I need is the point is for the program to produce the proper output.

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  • Perl: Edit hyperlinks in nested tags that aren't on seperate lines

    - by user305801
    I have an interesting problem. I wrote the following perl script to recursively loop through a directory and in all html files for img/script/a tags do the following: Convert the entire url to lowercase Replace spaces and %20 with underscores The script works great except when an image tag in wrapped with an anchor tag. Is there a way to modify the current script to also be able to manipulate the links for nested tags that are not on separate lines? Basically if I have <a href="..."><img src="..."></a> the script will only change the link in the anchor tag but skip the img tag. #!/usr/bin/perl use File::Find; $input="/var/www/tecnew/"; sub process { if (-T and m/.+\.(htm|html)/i) { #print "htm/html: $_\n"; open(FILE,"+<$_") or die "couldn't open file $!\n"; $out = ''; while(<FILE>) { $cur_line = $_; if($cur_line =~ m/<a.*>/i) { print "cur_line (unaltered) $cur_line\n"; $cur_line =~ /(^.* href=\")(.+?)(\".*$)/i; $beg = $1; $link = html_clean($2); $end = $3; $cur_line = $beg.$link.$end; print "cur_line (altered) $cur_line\n"; } if($cur_line =~ m/(<img.*>|<script.*>)/i) { print "cur_line (unaltered) $cur_line\n"; $cur_line =~ /(^.* src=\")(.+?)(\".*$)/i; $beg = $1; $link = html_clean($2); $end = $3; $cur_line = $beg.$link.$end; print "cur_line (altered) $cur_line\n"; } $out .= $cur_line; } seek(FILE, 0, 0) or die "can't seek to start of file: $!"; print FILE $out or die "can't print to file: $1"; truncate(FILE, tell(FILE)) or die "can't truncate file: $!"; close(FILE) or die "can't close file: $!"; } } find(\&process, $input); sub html_clean { my($input_string) = @_; $input_string = lc($input_string); $input_string =~ s/%20|\s/_/g; return $input_string; }

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  • What Can I Do To One Of My Team Number (Good Friend As Well) Who Lost His Passion.

    - by skyflyer
    It seems this question is not program related, but there are lot of similar questions. So please bear with me! By the way, I am programmer and my team is also charging a software project. And SO is the only place which solved me lot of thorny troubles!THANK YOU GUYS! I joined my company with him years ago. At that time he was quite passionate on his job which is a front-end development. He gave us lot of useful suggestions concerning his work like design. And I believed he was a smart guy. I believe he still is smart too by the way. One years later, however, he seemed lost his passion and fooling around every day, did not care about his work any more and produced poorwork. Even worse he literally stopped learning new skills and honing his work related skills. For me it is horrible, we got to keep abreast with new technology development, otherwise we will be throw out. Since we were just coworkers, I did not care about it too much except mentioned my thoughts several times. But last month, we resembled a new group and assigned very important project. And I am the team leader, sadly! My boss gave me lot of support and expectation as well. I did a pretty good job before and I am very optimism to our future. But as a team, if my team does not work hard, we will be doomed to failure no matter how hard I work and push. In order to revitalize his passion, I tried couple of ways like talking to him about my concern and my boss's angry. I offered his new task which is quite new to him. I even persuaded my boss to give him new incentive package. But all of them knocked wall. His reaction was just he did not care. Even worse he did not want to talk about his situation. I want to be hard on him, but since we are friends and coworkers, I really can not see it will work. Even it works, I can not so quickly change my self from friend and coworker into manager. As a novice in management, I am really overwhelmed! I do not want get him fired, we are friends and I do not see him fired as my team number. What can I do? Thank you guys!

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  • JavaScript: How to get text from all descendents of an element, disregarding scripts?

    - by Bungle
    My current project involves gathering text content from an element and all of its descendents, based on a provided selector. For example, when supplied the selector #content and run against this HTML: <div id="content"> <p>This is some text.</p> <script type="text/javascript"> var test = true; </script> <p>This is some more text.</p> </div> my script would return (after a little whitespace cleanup): This is some text. var test = true; This is some more text. However, I need to disregard text nodes that occur within <script> elements. This is an excerpt of my current code: // get text content of all matching elements for (x = 0; x < selectors.length; x++) { matches = Sizzle(selectors[x], document); for (y = 0; y < matches.length; y++) { match = matches[y]; if (match.innerText) { // IE content += match.innerText + ' '; } else if (match.textContent) { // other browsers content += match.textContent + ' '; } } } It's a bit overly simplistic in that it just returns all text nodes within the element (and its descendants) that matches the provided selector. The solution I'm looking for would return all text nodes except for those that fall within script elements. It doesn't need to be especially high-performance, but I do need it to ultimately be cross-browser compatible. I'm assuming that I'll need to somehow loop through all children of the element that matches the selector and accumulate all text nodes other than ones within <script> elements; it doesn't look like there's any way to identify JavaScript once it's already rolled into the string accumulated from all of the text nodes. I can't use jQuery (for performance/bandwidth reasons), although you may have noticed that I do use its Sizzle selector engine, so jQuery's selector logic is available. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • How to solve Python memory leak when using urrlib2?

    - by b_m
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple Python script for my mobile phone to periodically load a web page using urrlib2. In fact I don't really care about the server response, I'd only like to pass some values in the URL to the PHP. The problem is that Python for S60 uses the old 2.5.4 Python core, which seems to have a memory leak in the urrlib2 module. As I read there's seems to be such problems in every type of network communications as well. This bug have been reported here a couple of years ago, while some workarounds were posted as well. I've tried everything I could find on that page, and with the help of Google, but my phone still runs out of memory after ~70 page loads. Strangely the Garbege Collector does not seem to make any difference either, except making my script much slower. It is said that, that the newer (3.1) core solves this issue, but unfortunately I can't wait a year (or more) for the S60 port to come. here's how my script looks after adding every little trick I've found: import urrlib2, httplib, gc while(true): url = "http://something.com/foo.php?parameter=" + value f = urllib2.urlopen(url) f.read(1) f.fp._sock.recv=None # hacky avoidance f.close() del f gc.collect() Any suggestions, how to make it work forever without getting the "cannot allocate memory" error? Thanks for advance, cheers, b_m update: I've managed to connect 92 times before it ran out of memory, but It's still not good enough. update2: Tried the socket method as suggested earlier, this is the second best (wrong) solution so far: class UpdateSocketThread(threading.Thread): def run(self): global data while 1: url = "/foo.php?parameter=%d"%data s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) s.connect(('something.com', 80)) s.send('GET '+url+' HTTP/1.0\r\n\r\n') s.close() sleep(1) I tried the little tricks, from above too. The thread closes after ~50 uploads (the phone has 50MB of memory left, obviously the Python shell has not.) UPDATE: I think I'm getting closer to the solution! I tried sending multiple data without closing and reopening the socket. This may be the key since this method will only leave one open file descriptor. The problem is: import socket s=socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) socket.connect(("something.com", 80)) socket.send("test") #returns 4 (sent bytes, which is cool) socket.send("test") #4 socket.send("test") #4 socket.send("GET /foo.php?parameter=bar HTTP/1.0\r\n\r\n") #returns the number of sent bytes, ok socket.send("GET /foo.php?parameter=bar HTTP/1.0\r\n\r\n") #returns 0 on the phone, error on Windows7* socket.send("GET /foo.php?parameter=bar HTTP/1.0\r\n\r\n") #returns 0 on the phone, error on Windows7* socket.send("test") #returns 0, strange... *: error message: 10053, software caused connection abort Why can't I send multiple messages??

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  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

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  • How to catch 'exceptions' for out of order execution in Workflow Foundation 4?

    - by Alex Key
    Hi, I am attempting to model a worklfow using a "WCF Workflow Service" in .net / vs 2010 that needs to handle out of order execution gracefully (but not allow it - if thath makes sense!?) For example I have 2 receive activities one called Initialize and the other called GetValue inside a FlowChart. In most cases Initialize should be called first and GetValue after (as modled in the flow chart). However if GetValue is executed before Initialize I do not want to return an "out of order" exception (although when I look at the WCF test client, I can't actually see an exception). But instead a custom exception saying something like "you must initialize first". In theory I could model this with lots of parallel activities and conditions to check if Initialized / Running / Terminated etc. But the business process I am modelling if very very similar to a state machine... except it must handle people executing things in the wrong order. Ideally I would like to catch the "out of order" exception (thought I don't think it's really an exception as such), check the 'exception' to see which function was attempted to run and then handle it. I have done some research around enabling AllowBufferedReceive. However I don't want to be able to execute out of order (I don't think), but instead give a detailed response if it does happen. I've looked at the new beta state machine template for WF 4 - but i'm not sure if it does what i'm after? I'm not sure if I have the wrong end of the stick, so any help would be greatly appreciated. [EDIT] To help clarify... Sorry it's a tricky one to explain. The standard I am trying to implement (the e-learning standard SCORM RTE) is structured like a state machine i.e. certain functions can only be executed in certain states. However the standard specifies that if the calling clients tries to execute a function that it is not meant to, then a warning should be issued... for example "you cannot use GetValue(), because you have not yet Initialized". Ideally I'd like to structure the workflow as the theoretical state machine and not need to have to use multiple if/else's to handle all the scenarios where something could be executed out-of-order. I'd like to catch a out-of-order exception (but I don't think there is such an exception - as it's not in the debugger) and rethrow it.

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  • New to asp.net. Need help debugging this email form.

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys, First of all, I am a php developer and most of .net is alien to me which is why I am posting here! I just migrated over a site from one set of webhosting to another. The whole site is written in .net. None of the site is database driven so most of it works, except for the contact form. The output on the site simple states there was an error with "There has been an error - please try to submit the contact form again, if you continue to experience problems, please notify our webmaster." This is just a simple message it pops out of it gets to the "catch" part of the email function. I went into web.config and changed the parameters: <emailaddresses> <add name="System" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Contact" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Info" value="[email protected]"/> </emailaddresses> <general> <add name="WebSiteDomain" value="hoyespharmacy.com"/> </general> Then the .cs file for contact contains the mail function EmailFormData(): private void EmailFormData() { try { StringBuilder body = new StringBuilder(); body.Append("Name" + ": " + txtName.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Phone" + ": " + txtPhone.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Email" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Fax" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Subject" + ": " + ddlSubject.SelectedValue + "\n\r"); body.Append("Message" + ": " + txtMessage.Text); MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.IsBodyHtml = false; mail.To.Add(new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"))); mail.Subject = "Contact Us Form Submission"; mail.From = new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"), Settings.WebSiteDomain); mail.Body = body.ToString(); SmtpClient smtpcl = new SmtpClient(); smtpcl.Send(mail); } catch { Utilities.RedirectPermanently(Request.Url.AbsolutePath + "?messageSent=false"); } } How do I see what the actual error is. I figure I can do something with the "catch" part of the function.. Any pointers? Thanks!

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  • itextsharp PdfCopy and landscape pages

    - by Andreas Rehm
    I'm using itextsharp to join mutiple pdf documents and add a footer. My code works fine - except for landscape pages - it isn't detecting the page rotation - the footer is not centerd for landscape: public static int AddPagesFromStream(Document document, PdfCopy pdfCopy, Stream m, bool addFooter, int detailPages, string footer, int footerPageNumOffset, int numPages, string pageLangString, string printLangString) { CreateFont(); try { m.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); var reader = new PdfReader(m); // get page count var pdfPages = reader.NumberOfPages; var i = 0; // add pages while (i < pdfPages) { i++; // import page with pdfcopy var page = pdfCopy.GetImportedPage(reader, i); // get page center float posX; float posY; var rotation = page.BoundingBox.Rotation; if (rotation == 0 || rotation == 180) { posX = page.Width / 2; posY = 0; } else { posX = page.Height / 2; posY = 20f; } var ps = pdfCopy.CreatePageStamp(page); var cb = ps.GetOverContent(); // add footer cb.SetColorFill(BaseColor.WHITE); var gs1 = new PdfGState {FillOpacity = 0.8f}; cb.SetGState(gs1); cb.Rectangle(0, 0, document.PageSize.Width, 46f + posY); cb.Fill(); // Text cb.SetColorFill(BaseColor.BLACK); cb.SetFontAndSize(baseFont, 7); cb.BeginText(); // create text var pages = string.Format(pageLangString, i + footerPageNumOffset, numPages); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, printLangString, posX, 40f + posY, 0f); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, footer, posX, 28f + posY, 0f); cb.ShowTextAligned(PdfContentByte.ALIGN_CENTER, pages, posX, 20f + posY, 0f); cb.EndText(); ps.AlterContents(); // add page to new pdf pdfCopy.AddPage(page); } // close PdfReader reader.Close(); // return number of pages return i; } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e); return 0; } } How do I detect the page rotation (e.g. landscape) format in this case? The given example works for PdfReader but not for PdfCopy. Edit: Why do I need PdfCopy? I tried copying a word pdf export. Some word hyperlinks will not work when you try to copy pages with PdfReader. Only PdfCopy transfers all needed page informations. Edit: (SOLVED) You need to use reader.GetPageRotation(i);

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  • Repeating fields in similar database tables

    - by user1738833
    I have been tasked with working on a database that I have never seen before and I'm looking at the DB structure. Some of the central and most heavily queried and joined tables look like virtual duplicates of each other. Here's a massively simplified representation of the situation, with business-sensitive information changed, listing hypothetical table names and fields: TopLevelGroup: PK_TLGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubGroup: PK_SubGroupId, FK_ParentTopLevelGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubSubGroup: PK_SubSUbGroupId, FK_ParentSubGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK I haven't listed the types of the fields as I don't think it's particularly important to the situation. In addition, it's worth saying that rather than four repeated fields as in the example above, I'm looking at 86 repeated fields. For the most part, those fields genuinely do represent "facts" about the primary table entity, so it's not automatically wrong for that reason. In addition, the "groups" represented here have a property inheritance relationship. If DisplaysXOnBill is NULL in the SubSubGroup, it takes the value of DisplaysXOnBillfrom it's parent, the SubGroup, and so-on up to the TopLevelGroup. Further, the requirements will never require that the model extends beyond three levels, so there is no need for flexibility in that area. Is there a design smell from several tables which describe very similar entities having almost identical fields? If so, what might be a better design of the example above? I'm using the phrase "design smell" to indicate a possible problem. Of course, in any given situation, a particular design might well be the best solution. I'm looking for a more general answer - wondering what might be wrong with this design and what might be the better design were that the case. Possibly related, but not primary questions: Is this database schema in a reasonably normal form (e.g. to 3NF), insofar as can be told from the information I've provided. I can't see a problem with the requirements of 2NF and 3NF, except in their inheriting the requirements of 1NF. Is 1NF satisfied though? Are repeating groups allowed in different tables? Is there a best-practice method for implementing the inheritance relationship in a database as I require? The method above feels clunky to me because any query on the SubSubGroup necessarily needs to join onto the SubGroup and the TopLevelGroup tables to collect inherited facts, which can make even trivial joins requiring facts from the SubSubGroup table rather long-winded. There are, of course, political considerations to making a relatively large change like this. For the purpose of this question, I'm happy to ignore that fact in the interests of keeping the answers ring-fenced to the technical problem.

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  • AJAX response not valid in C++ but Apache

    - by fehergeri
    I want to make a server written in C++ to power my game. I learned the basics of sockets and wrote a basic chat program that worked well. Now I want to create an HTTP server like Apache, but only for the AJAX request-response part. I think just for the beginning i copied one Apache response text, and i sent the exact response with the C++ server program. The problem that is that the browser (Firefox) connnects to the apache and everything works fine, except all of the requests get a correct response. But if i send this with the C++ client, then FireBug tells me that the response status is OK (200) but there is no actual response text. (How is this possible?) This response-text is exactly the same what apache sends. I made a bit-bit comparison and they were the same. The php file wich is the original response <?php echo "AS";echo rand(0,9); ?> And the origional source code: Socket.h http://pastebin.com/bW9qxtrR Socket.cpp http://pastebin.com/S3c8RFM7 main.cpp http://pastebin.com/ckExuXsR index.html http://pastebin.com/mcfEEqPP < this is the requester file. ajax.js http://pastebin.com/uXJe9hVC benchmark.js http://pastebin.com/djSYtKg9 jQuery is not needed. The main.cpp there is lot of trash code like main3 and main4 functions, these do not affect the result. I know that the response stuff in the C++ code is not really good because the connection closing is not the best; I will fix that later now I want to send a success response first. UPDATE: now i tested today a lot again and i find out there is no problem with the socket. I used the fiddler program to capture the the good answer and to capture the bad. They were the same. After this i turned off my socket application, and forced fiddler to auto respond, and the answer from the 'bad' answer still bat. So after that i replaced the bad with the good and nothing happedned. The bad answer with the good text still bad on the :8888 port but the other on the original :80 port was good, but they were absolutly the same and the same program sended it (fiddler) i think there is something missing if the response is not on the same server address (even not the same port). UPDATE: oh my god! i cant send ajax request to a remote server. now i know this.

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  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

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  • Flash Buttons Don't Work: TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null objec

    - by goldenfeelings
    I've read through several threads about this error, but haven't been able to apply it to figure out my situation... My flash file is an approx 5 second animation. Then, the last keyframe of each layer (frame #133) has a button in it. My flash file should stop on this last key frame, and you should be able to click on any of the 6 buttons to navigate to another html page in my website. Here is the Action Script that I have applied to the frame in which the buttons exist (on a separate layer, see screenshot at: http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/wp-content/themes/Footprints/images/flash_buttonissue.jpg stop (); function babieschildren(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("babies children method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/babies-children"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } bc_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, babieschildren); bc_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, babieschildren); function fams(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("families method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } f_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fams); f_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fams); function couplesweddings(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("couples weddings method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/couples-weddings"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } cw_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, couplesweddings); cw_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, couplesweddings); When I test the movie, I get this error in the output box: "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." The test movie does stop on the appropriate frame, but the buttons don't do anything (no URL is opened, and the trace statements don't show up in the output box when the buttons are clicked on the test movie). You can view the .swf file here: www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio I'm confident that all 6 buttons do exist in the appropriate frame (frame 133), so I don't think that's what's causing the 1009 error. I also tried deleting each of the three function/addEventListener sections one at a time and testing, and I still got the 1009 error every time. If I delete ALL of the action script except for the "stop ()" line, then I do NOT get the 1009 error. Any ideas?? I'm very new to Flash, so if I haven't clarified something that I need to, let me know!

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  • facebook app using fbml displays nothing

    - by fusion
    i've made an app in php and html and trying to integrate it with fb. the app on my website is using jquery, but knowing that fbml doesn't support jquery, i've tried to instead use fbjqry. this doesn't work either. i'm not sure where i'm going wrong. /////////////// index.php: <?php // Copyright 2007 Facebook Corp. All Rights Reserved. require_once 'config_fb.php'; //***** Greet the currently logged-in user! echo "<p>Hello, <fb:name uid=\"$user_id\" useyou=\"false\" />!</p>"; include 'quote.html'; ?> ///////////////// quote.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/jquote.css" /> <!--<script type="text/javascript" src="scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js"></script>--> <script type="text/javascript" src="fbjqry/utility.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="fbjqry/fjqry.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // On page load, fill the box with content. $(document).ready(function() { $("#quoteContainer").load("quote.php"); }); var auto_refresh = setInterval( function () { $('#quoteContainer').load('quote.php'); }, 5000); // refresh every 10000 milliseconds </script> </head> <div id="wrapper"> <div class="header">&nbsp;Quote of the Day</div> <div id="quoteContainer"> </div> </div> </html> //// from the above file it should take quotes from quote.php and display it, but it doesn't display anything. it seems as though it isn't reading from the quote.php file. is the command of fbjqry different from jquery? if i use iframes instead of fbml, everything loads correctly except that i'd like tab/profile box for this app, which iframes doesn't have.

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  • RenderTargetBitmap + Resource'd VisualBrush = incomplete image

    - by Will
    I've found a new twist on the "Visual to RenderTargetBitmap" question! I'm rendering previews of WPF stuff for a designer. That means I need to take a WPF visual and render it to a bitmap without that visual ever being displayed. Got a nice little method to do it like to see it here it goes private static BitmapSource CreateBitmapSource(FrameworkElement visual) { Border b = new Border { Width = visual.Width, Height = visual.Height }; b.BorderBrush = Brushes.Black; b.BorderThickness = new Thickness(1); b.Background = Brushes.White; b.Child = visual; b.Measure(new Size(b.Width, b.Height)); b.Arrange(new Rect(b.DesiredSize)); RenderTargetBitmap rtb = new RenderTargetBitmap( (int)b.ActualWidth, (int)b.ActualHeight, 96, 96, PixelFormats.Pbgra32); // intermediate step here to ensure any VisualBrushes are rendered properly DrawingVisual dv = new DrawingVisual(); using (var dc = dv.RenderOpen()) { var vb = new VisualBrush(b); dc.DrawRectangle(vb, null, new Rect(new Point(), b.DesiredSize)); } rtb.Render(dv); return rtb; } Works fine, except for one leeetle thing... if my FrameworkElement has a VisualBrush, that brush doesn't end up in the final rendered bitmap. Something like this: <UserControl.Resources> <VisualBrush x:Key="LOLgo"> <VisualBrush.Visual> <!-- blah blah --> <Grid Background="{StaticResource LOLgo}"> <!-- yadda yadda --> Everything else renders to the bitmap, but that VisualBrush just won't show. The obvious google solutions have been attempted and have failed. Even the ones that specifically mention VisualBrushes missing from RTB'd bitmaps. I have a sneaky suspicion this might be caused by the fact that its a Resource, and that lazy resource isn't being inlined. So a possible fix would be to, somehow(???), force resolution of all static resource references before rendering. But I have absolutely no idea how to do that. Anybody have a fix for this?

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  • generated service mock: everything but RhinoMocks fails?

    - by hko
    I have the "quest" to search for the next Mocking Framework for my company, and basically it's down to NSubstitute (simplest syntax, but no strict mocks), FakeItEasy(best reviews, Roy Osherove bonus, and slightly better lib support than NSubstitute), Moq (best "other libs support", biggest featureset, downside: mock.Object). We definitely want to move on from RhinoMocks, e.g. because of the unusefull interactiontest error messages (it should tell me what the parameter was instead, when a verification fails). So I was pretty surprised the other day (that was yesterday) when I found out RhinoMocks could do a thing where every other mock framework fails at: Mocking an autogenerated SomethingService (a typical VS autogenerated service with a default construtor in a partial class). Please don't argue about the design.. I intend to write lightweight integration tests (and some unit tests), and I can't mess around with the service, the product is installed on too many customers system. See this code: // here the NSubstitute and FakeItEasy equivalents throw an exception.. see below TicketStoreService fakeTicketStoreService = MockRepository.GenerateMock<TicketStoreService>(); fakeTicketStoreService.Expect(service => service.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())).Return(new Guid()); fakeTicketStoreService.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())); fakeTicketStoreService.VerifyAllExpectations(); Note that DoSomething is a non-virtual methodcall in an autogenerated class. So it shouldn't work, according to common knowledge. But it does. Problem is that it's the only (non commercial) framework that can do this: Rhino.Mocks works, and verification works too FakeItEasy says it doesn't find a default constructor (probably just wrong exception message): No default constructor was found on the type SomeNamespace.TicketStoreService Moq gives something sane and understandable: Invalid setup on a non-virtual (overridable in VB) member: service=> service.DoSomething Nsubstitute gives a message System.NotSupportedException: Cannot serialize member System.ComponentModel.Component.Site of type System.ComponentModel.ISite because it is an interface. I'm really wondering what's going on here with the frameworks, except Moq. The "fancy new" frameworks seem to have an initial perf hit too, probably preparing some Type cache and serializing stuff, whilst RhinoMocks somehow manages to create a very "slim" mock without recursion. I have to admit I didn't like RhinoMocks very well, but here it shines.. unfortunately. So, is there a way to get that to work with newer (non-commercial!) mocking frameworks, or somehow get a sane error message out of Rhino.Mocks? And why can Rhino.Mocks achieve this, when clearly every Mocking framework states it can only work with virtual methods when given a concrete class? Let's not derail the discussion by talking about alternative approaches like Extract&Override or runtime-proxy Mocking frameworks like JustMock/TypeMock/Moles or the new Fakes framework, I know these, but that would be less ideal solutions, for reasons beyond this topic. Any help appreciated..

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  • Retrieve names of running processes

    - by Dave DeLong
    Hi everyone, First off, I know that similar questions have been asked, but the answers provided haven't been very helpful so far (they all recommend one of the following options). I have a user application that needs to determine if a particular process is running. Here's what I know about the process: The name The user (root) It should already be running, since it's a LaunchDaemon, which means Its parent process should be launchd (pid 1) I've tried several ways to get this, but none have worked so far. Here's what I've tried: Running ps and parsing the output. This works, but it's slow (fork/exec is expensive), and I'd like this to be as fast as possible. Using the GetBSDProcessList function listed here. This also works, but the way in which they say to retrieve the process name (accessing kp_proc.p_comm from each kinfo_proc structure) is flawed. The resulting char* only contains the first 16 characters of the process name, which can be seen in the definition of the kp_proc structure: #define MAXCOMLEN 16 //defined in param.h struct extern_proc { //defined in proc.h ...snip... char p_comm[MAXCOMLEN+1]; ...snip... }; Using libProc.h to retrieve process information: pid_t pids[1024]; int numberOfProcesses = proc_listpids(PROC_ALL_PIDS, 0, NULL, 0); proc_listpids(PROC_ALL_PIDS, 0, pids, sizeof(pids)); for (int i = 0; i < numberOfProcesses; ++i) { if (pids[i] == 0) { continue; } char name[1024]; proc_name(pids[i], name, sizeof(name)); printf("Found process: %s\n", name); } This works, except it has the same flaw as GetBSDProcessList. Only the first portion of the process name is returned. Using the ProcessManager function in Carbon: ProcessSerialNumber psn; psn.lowLongOfPSN = kNoProcess; psn.highLongOfPSN = 0; while (GetNextProcess(&psn) == noErr) { CFStringRef procName = NULL; if (CopyProcessName(&psn, &procName) == noErr) { NSLog(@"Found process: %@", (NSString *)procName); } CFRelease(procName); } This does not work. It only returns process that are registered with the WindowServer (or something like that). In other words, it only returns apps with UIs, and only for the current user. I can't use -[NSWorkspace launchedApplications], since this must be 10.5-compatible. In addition, this only returns information about applications that appear in the Dock for the current user. I know that it's possible to retrieve the name of running processes (since ps can do it), but the question is "Can I do it without forking and exec'ing ps?". Any suggestions?

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  • iPhone App is leaking memory; Instruments and Clang cannot find the leak

    - by Norbert
    Hi, i've developed an iPhone program which is kind of an image manipulation program: The user get an UIImagePickerController and selects an image. Then the program does some heavy calculating in a new thread (for responsiveness of the application). The thread has, of course, its own autorelease pool. When calculation is done, the seperated thread signals the main thread that the result can be presented. The app creates a new view controller, pushes it onto the navigation controller. In short: UIImagePickerController new thread (autorelease pool) does some heavy calculation with image data signal to main thread that it's done main thread creates view controller and pushes it onto navigation controller view controller presents image result My program works well, but if I dismiss the navigation controller's top view controller by tapping on the back button and repeat the whole process several times, my app crashes. But only on the device! Instruments cannot find any leaks (except for some minor ones which I don't feel responsible for: thread creation, NSCFString; overall about 10 kB). Even Clang static analyzer tells me that my could seems to be all right. I know that the UIImage class can cache images and objects returned from convenience methods get freed only whet their autorelease pool gets drained. But most of the time I work with CGImageRef and I use UIImage' alloc, init & release methods to free memory as soon as possible. Currently, I don't know how to isolate the problem. How would you approach this problem? Crash Log: Incident Identifier: F4C202C9-1338-48FC-80AD-46248E6C7154 CrashReporter Key: bb6f526d8b9bb680f25ea8e93bb071566ccf1776 OS Version: iPhone OS 3.1.1 (7C145) Date: 2009-09-26 14:18:57 +0200 Free pages: 372 Wired pages: 7754 Purgeable pages: 0 Largest process: _MY_APP_ Processes Name UUID Count resident pages _MY_APP_ <032690e5a9b396058418d183480a9ab3> 17766 (jettisoned) (active) debugserver <ec29691560aa0e2994f82f822181bffd> 107 syslog_relay <21e13fa2b777218bdb93982e23fb65d3> 62 notification_pro <8a7725017106a28b545fd13ed58bf98c> 64 notification_pro <8a7725017106a28b545fd13ed58bf98c> 64 afcd <98b45027fbb1350977bf1ca313dee527> 65 mediaserverd <eb8fe997a752407bea573cd3adf568d3> 319 ptpd <b17af9cf6c4ad16a557d6377378e8a1e> 142 syslogd <ec8a5bc4483638539fa1266363dee8b8> 68 BTServer <1bb74831f93b1d07c48fb46cc31c15da> 119 apsd <a639ba83e666cc1d539223923ce59581> 165 notifyd <2ed3a1166da84d8d8868e64d549cae9d> 101 CommCenter <f4239480a623fb1c35fa6c725f75b166> 161 SpringBoard <8919df8091fdfab94d9ae05f513c0ce5> 2681 (active) accessoryd <b66bcf6e77c3ee740c6a017f54226200> 90 configd <41e9d763e71dc0eda19b0afec1daee1d> 275 fairplayd <cdce5393153c3d69d23c05de1d492bd4> 108 mDNSResponder <f3ef7a6b24d4f203ed147f476385ec53> 103 lockdownd <6543492543ad16ff0707a46e512944ff> 297 launchd <73ce695fee09fc37dd70b1378af1c818> 71 **End**

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  • How to troubleshoot a Highcharts script that's not rendering data when date is added and hanging the JS engine with large datasets?

    - by ylluminate
    I have a Highchart JS graph that I'm building in Rails (although I don't think Ruby has real bearing on this problem unless it's the Date output format) to which I'm adding the timestamp of each datapoint. Presently the array of floats is rendering fine without timestamps, however when I add the timestamp to the series it fails to rend. What's worse is that when the series has hundreds of entries all sorts of problems arise, not the least of which is the browser entirely hanging and requiring a force quit / kill. I'm using the following to build the array of arrays data series: series1 = readings.map{|row| [(row.date.to_i * 1000), (row.data1.to_f if BigDecimal(row.data1) != BigDecimal("-1000.0"))] } This yields a result like this: series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-09],[1326262920000,1.29e-09],[1326262860000,1.22e-09],[1326262800000,1.42e-09],[1326262740000,1.29e-09],[1326262680000,1.34e-09],[1326262620000,1.31e-09],[1326262560000,1.51e-09],[1326262500000,1.24e-09],[1326262440000,1.7e-09],[1326262380000,1.24e-09],[1326262320000,1.29e-09],[1326262260000,1.53e-09],[1326262200000,1.23e-09],[1326262140000,1.21e-09]],"color":"blue"}] Yet nothing appears on the graph as noted. Notwithstanding, when I compare the data series in one of their very similar examples here: http://www.highcharts.com/demo/spline-irregular-time It appears that really the data series are formatted identically (except in mine I use the timestamp vs date method). This leads me to think I've got a problem with the timestamp output, but I'm just not able to figure out where / how as I'm converting the date output to an integer multipled by 1000 to convert it to milliseconds as per explained in a similar Railscasts tutorial. I would very much appreciate it if someone could point me in the right direction here as to what I may be doing wrong. What could cause no data to appear on the graph in smaller sized sets (<100 points) and when into the hundreds causes an apparent hang in the javascript engine in this case? Perhaps ultimately the key lies here as this is the entire js that's being generated and not rendering: jQuery(function() { // 1. Define JSON options var options = { chart: {"defaultSeriesType":"spline","renderTo":"chart_name"}, title: {"text":"Title"}, legend: {"layout":"vertical","style":{}}, xAxis: {"title":{"text":"UTC Time"},"type":"datetime"}, yAxis: [{"title":{"text":"Left Title","margin":10}},{"title":{"text":"Right Groups Title"},"opposite":true}], tooltip: {"enabled":true}, credits: {"enabled":false}, plotOptions: {"areaspline":{}}, series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-08],[1326262920000,1.69e-08],[1326262860000,1.62e-08],[1326262800000,1.42e-08],[1326262740000,1.29e-08],[1326262680000,1.34e-08],[1326262620000,1.31e-08],[1326262560000,1.51e-08],[1326262500000,1.64e-08],[1326262440000,1.7e-08],[1326262380000,1.64e-08],[1326262320000,1.69e-08],[1326262260000,1.53e-08],[1326262200000,1.23e-08],[1326262140000,1.21e-08]],"color":"blue"},{"name":"Data 2","data":[[1326262980000,9.79e-09],[1326262920000,9.78e-09],[1326262860000,9.8e-09],[1326262800000,9.82e-09],[1326262740000,9.88e-09],[1326262680000,9.89e-09],[1326262620000,1.3e-06],[1326262560000,1.32e-06],[1326262500000,1.33e-06],[1326262440000,1.33e-06],[1326262380000,1.34e-06],[1326262320000,1.33e-06],[1326262260000,1.32e-06],[1326262200000,1.32e-06],[1326262140000,1.32e-06]],"color":"red"}], subtitle: {} }; // 2. Add callbacks (non-JSON compliant) // 3. Build the chart var chart = new Highcharts.StockChart(options); });

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  • How to give default values for the sum, count if no data exist in mysql query which uses group by?

    - by Salil
    I am using following query which works fine for me except one problem SELECT f.period as month, sum(p.revenue * ((100-q.rate)/100)) as revenue ,count(distinct q.label) as tot_stmt FROM files f, reports p, rates q,albums a where f.period in ('2010-06-01','2010-05-01','2010-04-01','2010-03-01') and f.period_closed = true and q.period = f.period and a.id = q.album_id and p.file_id = f.id and p.upc = a.upc and p.revenue is not null GROUP BY month ORDER BY month DESC O/P = month            revenue     tot_stmt 2010-06-01     10.00         2 2010-05-01     340.47       2 I want result like following month            revenue     tot_stmt 2010-06-01     10.00         2 2010-05-01     340.47       2 2010-04-01     0.00           0 2010-03-01     0.00           0 Regards, Salil Gaikwad

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  • Constructor versus setter injection

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm currently designing an API where I wish to allow configuration via a variety of methods. One method is via an XML configuration schema and another method is through an API that I wish to play nicely with Spring. My XML schema parsing code was previously hidden and therefore the only concern was for it to work but now I wish to build a public API and I'm quite concerned about best-practice. It seems that many favor javabean type PoJo's with default zero parameter constructors and then setter injection. The problem I am trying to tackle is that some setter methods implementations are dependent on other setter methods being called before them in sequence. I could write anal setters that will tolerate themselves being called in many orders but that will not solve the problem of a user forgetting to set the appropriate setter and therefore the bean being in an incomplete state. The only solution I can think of is to forget about the objects being 'beans' and enforce the required parameters via constructor injection. An example of this is in the default setting of the id of a component based on the id of the parent components. My Interface public interface IMyIdentityInterface { public String getId(); /* A null value should create a unique meaningful default */ public void setId(String id); public IMyIdentityInterface getParent(); public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent); } Base Implementation of interface: public abstract class MyIdentityBaseClass implements IMyIdentityInterface { private String _id; private IMyIdentityInterface _parent; public MyIdentityBaseClass () {} @Override public String getId() { return _id; } /** * If the id is null, then use the id of the parent component * appended with a lower-cased simple name of the current impl * class along with a counter suffix to enforce uniqueness */ @Override public void setId(String id) { if (id == null) { IMyIdentityInterface parent = getParent(); if (parent == null) { // this may be the top level component or it may be that // the user called setId() before setParent(..) } else { _id = Helpers.makeIdFromParent(parent,getClass()); } } else { _id = id; } } @Override public IMyIdentityInterface getParent() { return _parent; } @Override public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent) { _parent = parent; } } Every component in the framework will have a parent except for the top level component. Using the setter type of injection, then the setters will have different behavior based on the order of the calling of the setters. In this case, would you agree, that a constructor taking a reference to the parent is better and dropping the parent setter method from the interface entirely? Is it considered bad practice if I wish to be able to configure these components using an IoC container? Chris

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  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

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  • Random strange behaviour on Google Maps v2

    - by fesja
    hi, I'm having a particular fight with Google Maps v2 on Chrome. The map is shown well on all browsers except Chrome, that without any particular reason, it does any of these things as you can see on the image: Moving the center to the south Showing the markers to the right, but if i move the map, they moved too to the next section of the map. Perfect I have the following javascript: if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var bounds = new GLatLngBounds(); map.enableScrollWheelZoom(); map.addControl(new GSmallMapControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); map.removeMapType(G_HYBRID_MAP); var zoomout = 1; var pcenter_0 = new GLatLng(40.420300, -3.705770); var marker_0 = new GMarker(pcenter_0, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_0); marker_0.bindInfoWindowHtml('info', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_0.getPoint()); var pcenter_1 = new GLatLng(41.385719, 2.170050); var marker_1 = new GMarker(pcenter_1, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_1); marker_1.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_1.getPoint()); var pcenter_2 = new GLatLng(48.856918, 2.341210); var marker_2 = new GMarker(pcenter_2, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_2); marker_2.bindInfoWindowHtml('info', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_2.getPoint()); var pcenter_3 = new GLatLng(37.779160, -122.420052); var marker_3 = new GMarker(pcenter_3, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_3); marker_3.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_3.getPoint()); var pcenter_4 = new GLatLng(48.202541, 16.368799); var marker_4 = new GMarker(pcenter_4, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_4); marker_4.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_4.getPoint()); zoomToBounds(zoomout); } function zoomToBounds(zoomout) { map.setCenter(bounds.getCenter()); var zoom = map.getBoundsZoomLevel(bounds)-zoomout; if(zoom < 1) zoom = 1; map.setZoom(zoom); map.checkResizeAndCenter(); } Do you have any idea or clue of what can be happening? It's very annoying to have this random javascript errors.. If you need more info, please ask! thanks! Update to add html code (before javascript) <div id="index_map"> <div id="map"></div> </div> I've aldo updated the markers code

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  • Perl: Edit hyperlinks in nested tags that aren't on separate lines

    - by user305801
    I have an interesting problem. I wrote the following perl script to recursively loop through a directory and in all html files for img/script/a tags do the following: Convert the entire url to lowercase Replace spaces and %20 with underscores The script works great except when an image tag in wrapped with an anchor tag. Is there a way to modify the current script to also be able to manipulate the links for nested tags that are not on separate lines? Basically if I have <a href="..."><img src="..."></a> the script will only change the link in the anchor tag but skip the img tag. #!/usr/bin/perl use File::Find; $input="/var/www/tecnew/"; sub process { if (-T and m/.+\.(htm|html)/i) { #print "htm/html: $_\n"; open(FILE,"+<$_") or die "couldn't open file $!\n"; $out = ''; while(<FILE>) { $cur_line = $_; if($cur_line =~ m/<a.*>/i) { print "cur_line (unaltered) $cur_line\n"; $cur_line =~ /(^.* href=\")(.+?)(\".*$)/i; $beg = $1; $link = html_clean($2); $end = $3; $cur_line = $beg.$link.$end; print "cur_line (altered) $cur_line\n"; } if($cur_line =~ m/(<img.*>|<script.*>)/i) { print "cur_line (unaltered) $cur_line\n"; $cur_line =~ /(^.* src=\")(.+?)(\".*$)/i; $beg = $1; $link = html_clean($2); $end = $3; $cur_line = $beg.$link.$end; print "cur_line (altered) $cur_line\n"; } $out .= $cur_line; } seek(FILE, 0, 0) or die "can't seek to start of file: $!"; print FILE $out or die "can't print to file: $1"; truncate(FILE, tell(FILE)) or die "can't truncate file: $!"; close(FILE) or die "can't close file: $!"; } } find(\&process, $input); sub html_clean { my($input_string) = @_; $input_string = lc($input_string); $input_string =~ s/%20|\s/_/g; return $input_string; }

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  • Anyone have experience calling Rake from MSBuild for code gen and other benefits? How did it go? Wha

    - by Charlie Flowers
    While programming in C# using Visual Studio 2008, I often wish for "automatic" code generation. If possible, I'd like to achieve it by making my MSBuild solution file call out to Rake, which would call Ruby code for the code generation, having the resulting generated files automatically appear in my solution. Here's one business example (of many possible examples I could name) where this kind of automatic code generation would be helpful. In a recent project I had an interface with some properties that contained dollar amounts. I wanted a second interface and a third interface that had the same properties as the first interface, except they were "qualified" with a business unit name. Something like this: public interface IQuarterlyResults { double TotalRevenue { get; set; } double NetProfit { get; set; } } public interface IConsumerQuarterlyResults { double ConsumerTotalRevenue { get; set; } double ConsumerNetProfit { get; set; } } public interface ICorporateQuarterResults { double CorporateTotalRevenue { get; set; } double CorporateNetProfit { get; set; } } In this example, there is a "Consumer Business Unit" and a "Corporate Business Unit". Every property on IQuarterlyResults becomes a property called "Corporate" + [property name] on ICorporateQuarterlyResults, and likewise for IConsumerQuarterlyResults. Why make interfaces for these, rather than merely having an instance of IQuarterlyResults for Consumer and another instance for Corporate? Because, when working with the calculator object I was building, the user had to deal with 100's of properties, and it is much less confusing if he can deal with "fully qualified" property names such as "ConsumerNetProfit". But let's not get bogged down in this example. It is only an example and not the main question. The main question is this: I love using Ruby and ERB for code generation, and I love using Rake to manage dependencies between tasks. To solve the problem above, what I'd like to do is have MSBuild call out to Rake, and have Rake / Ruby read the list of properties on the "core" interface and then generate the code to make all the dependent interfaces and their properties. This would get triggered every time I do a build, because I'd put it into the MSBuild file for the VS.NET solution. Has anyone tried anything like this? How did it work out for you? What insights can you share about pros, cons, tips for success, etc.? Thanks!

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