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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • Spring's JdbcDaoSupport (using MySQL Connector/J) fails after executing sql that adds FK

    - by John
    I am using Spring's JdbcDaoSupport class with a DriverManagerDataSource using the MySQL Connector/J 5.0 driver (driverClassName=com.mysql.jdbc.driver). allowMultiQueries is set to true in the url. My application is an in-house tool we recently developed that executes sql scripts in a directory one-by-one (allows us to re-create our schema and reference table data for a given date, etc, but I digress). The sql scripts sometime contain multiple statements (hence allowMultiQueries), so one script can create a table, add indexes for that table, etc. The problem happens when including a statement to add a foreign key constraint in one of these files. If I have a file that looks like... --(column/constraint names are examples) CREATE TABLE myTable ( fk1 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, fk2 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (fk1, fk2) ); ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk1 FOREIGN KEY (fk1) REFERENCES myOtherTable (id) ; ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk2 FOREIGN KEY (fk2) REFERENCES myOtherOtherTable (id) ; then JdbcTemplate.execute throws an UncategorizedSqlException with the following error message and stack trace: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.UncategorizedSQLException: StatementCallback; uncategorized SQLException for SQL [ THE SQL YOU SEE ABOVE LISTED HERE ]; SQL state [HY000]; error code [1005]; Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150); nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:83) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) and the table and foreign keys are not inserted. Also, especially weird: if I take the foreign key statements out of the script I showed above and then place them in their own script that executes after (so I now have 1 script with just the create table statement, and 1 script with the add foreign key statements that executes after that) then what happens is: tool executes create table script, works fine, table is created tool executes add fk script, throws the same exception as seen above (except errno=121 this time), but the FKs actually get added (!!!) In other words, when the create table/FK statements are in the same script then the exception is thrown and nothing is created, but when they are different scripts a nearly identical exception is thrown but both things get created. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if you'd like me to clarify anything more.

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  • App losing db connection

    - by DaveKub
    I'm having a weird issue with an old Delphi app losing it's database connection. Actually, I think it's losing something else that then makes the connection either drop or be unusable. The app is written in Delphi 6 and uses the Direct Oracle Access component (v4.0.7.1) to connect to an Oracle 9i database. The app runs as a service and periodically queries the db using a TOracleQuery object (qryAlarmList). The method that is called to do this looks like this: procedure TdmMain.RefreshAlarmList; begin try qryAlarmList.Execute; except on E: Exception do begin FStatus := ssError; EventLog.LogError(-1, 'TdmMain.RefreshAlarmList', 'Message: ' + E.Message); end; end; end; It had been running fine for years, until a couple of Perl scripts were added to this machine. These scripts run every 15 minutes and look for datafiles to import into the db, and then they do a some calculations and a bunch of reads/writes to/from the db. For some reason, when they are processing large amounts of data, and then the Delphi app tries to query the db, the Delphi app throws an exception at the "qryAlarmList.Execute" line in the above code listing. The exception is always: Access violation at address 00000000. read of address 00000000 HOW can something that the Perl scripts are doing cause this?? There are other Perl scripts on this machine that load data using the same modules and method calls and we didn't have problems. To make it even weirder, there are two other apps that will also suddenly lose their ability to talk to the database at the same time as the Perl stuff is running. Neither of those apps run on this machine, but both are Delphi 6 apps that use the same DOA component to connect to the same database. We have other apps that connect to the same db, written in Java or C# and they don't seem to have any problems. I've tried adding code before the '.Execute' method is called to: check the session's connection (session.CheckConnection(true); always comes back as 'ccOK'). see whether I can access a field of the qryAlarmList object to see if maybe it's become null; can access it fine. check the state of the qryAlarmList; always says it's qsIdle. Does anyone have any suggestions of something to try? This is driving me nuts! Dave

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  • invalid postback event instead of dropdown to datagrid

    - by rima
    I faced with funny situation. I created a page which is having some value, I set these value and control my post back event also. The problem is happening when I change a component index(ex reselect a combobox which is not inside my datagrid) then I dont know why without my page call the Page_Load it goes to create a new row in grid function and all of my parameter are null! I am just receiving null exception. So in other word I try to explain the situation: when I load my page I am initializing some parameter. then everything is working fine. in my page when I change selected item of my combo box, page suppose to go and run function related to that combo box, and call page_load, but it is not going there and it goes to rowcreated function. I am trying to illustrate part of my page. Please help me because I am not receiving any error except null exception and it triger wrong even which seems so complicated for me. public partial class W_CM_FRM_02 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack && !loginFail) return; InitializeItems(); } } private void InitializeItems() { cols = new string[] { "v_classification_code", "v_classification_name" }; arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION = (ArrayList)db.Select(cols, "CMMM_CLASSIFICATION", "v_classification_code <> 'N'", " ORDER BY v_classification_name"); } } protected void DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { //db = (Database)Session["oCon"]; foreach (DataRow dr in arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION) ((DropDownList)DGV_RFA_DETAILS.Rows[index].Cells[4].FindControl("OV_RFA_CLASSIFICATION")).Items.Add(new ListItem(dr["v_classification_name"].ToString(), dr["v_classification_code"].ToString())); } protected void V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "xxx" || V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "ddd") V_IMPACTED_FUNCTIONS.Enabled = true; } } my form: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="W_CM_FRM_02.aspx.cs" Inherits="W_CM_FRM_02" Title="W_CM_FRM_02" enableeventvalidation="false" EnableViewState="true"%> <td>Project name*</td> <td><asp:DropDownList ID="V_CUSTOMER" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged" /></td> <td colspan = "8"> <asp:GridView ID="DGV_RFA_DETAILS" runat="server" ShowFooter="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" CellPadding="1" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None" OnRowDeleting="grvRFADetails_RowDeleting" Width="100%" Style="text-align: left" onrowcreated="DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated"> <RowStyle BackColor="#FFFBD6" ForeColor="#333333" /> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="ON_RowNumber" HeaderText="SNo" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="RFA/RAD/Ticket No*"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="OV_RFA_NO" runat="server" Width="120"></asp:TextBox> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField>

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  • controlling the class names generated by JAXB for xsd:attributeGroup?

    - by Stephen Winnall
    I am using JAXB to bind XML to Java for an application that I am writing. I have an element called measure which contains two amount elements called amount and maxAmount, with which I want to model a lower and an upper limiting value. amount and maxAmount are otherwise identical and I would like them to be implemented with the same class when unmarshalled into Java. The following is an extract from the XML schema which I feed to JAXB: <xsd:attributeGroup name="AmountAttributes"> <xsd:attribute name="quantity" type="xsd:decimal"/> <xsd:attribute name="numerator" type="xsd:nonNegativeInteger"/> <xsd:attribute name="denominator" type="xsd:positiveInteger"/> </xsd:attributeGroup> <xsd:element name="measure"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element minOccurs="0" name="amount"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:attributeGroup ref="mpr:AmountAttributes"/> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> <xsd:element minOccurs="0" name="maxAmount"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:attributeGroup ref="mpr:AmountAttributes"/> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> JAXB creates from this a more elaborate version of the following: public class Measure { protected Measure.Amount amount; protected Measure.MaxAmount maxAmount; public static class Measure.Amount {} public static class Measure.MaxAmount {} } Measure.Amount and Measure.MaxAmount are identical except for their names, but - of course - as far as Java is concerned they have little to do with each other. Is there a way of making JAXB use the same class for both amount and maxAmount? Just to come completely clean ;-) I should mention that I generate the XML schema from RNC using Trang. If the answer to the question is "change the XML schema", I have the supplementary question "how do I change the RNC to produce that XML schema?". My RNC looks like this: AmountAttributes = QuantityAttribute? & attribute numerator { xsd:nonNegativeInteger }? & attribute denominator { xsd:positiveInteger }? QuantityAttribute = attribute quantity { xsd:decimal } Measure = element measure { element amount { AmountAttributes }?, element maxAmount { AmountAttributes }? }+ I use RNC because I find it simpler to understand, but if the solution to my problem means just using XML Schema, so be it. Steve

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  • Internet Explorer 8 + Deflate

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I have a very weird problem.. I really do hope someone has an answer because I wouldn't know where else to ask. I am writing a cgi application in C++ which is executed by Apache and outputs HTML code. I am compressing the HTML output myself - from within my C++ application - since my web host doesn't support mod_deflate for some reason. I tested this with Firefox 2, Firefox 3, Opera 9, Opera 10, Google Chrome, Safari, IE6, IE7, IE8, even wget.. It works with ANYTHING except IE8. IE8 just says "Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage", with no information whatsoever. I know it's because of the compression only because it works if I disable it. Do you know what I'm doing wrong? I use zlib to compress it, and the exact code is: /* Compress it */ int compressed_output_size = content.length() + (content.length() * 0.2) + 16; char *compressed_output = (char *)Alloc(compressed_output_size); int compressed_output_length; Compress(compressed_output, compressed_output_size, (void *)content.c_str(), content.length(), &compressed_output_length); /* Send the compressed header */ cout << "Content-Encoding: deflate\r\n"; cout << boost::format("Content-Length: %d\r\n") % compressed_output_length; cgiHeaderContentType("text/html"); cout.write(compressed_output, compressed_output_length); static void Compress(void *to, size_t to_size, void *from, size_t from_size, int *final_size) { int ret; z_stream stream; stream.zalloc = Z_NULL; stream.zfree = Z_NULL; stream.opaque = Z_NULL; if ((ret = deflateInit(&stream, CompressionSpeed)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateInit() failed: %d", ret); stream.next_out = (Bytef *)to; stream.avail_out = (uInt)to_size; stream.next_in = (Bytef *)from; stream.avail_in = (uInt)from_size; if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_NO_FLUSH)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if (stream.avail_in != 0) COMPRESSION_ERROR("stream.avail_in is not 0 (it's %d)", stream.avail_in); if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_FINISH)) != Z_STREAM_END) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if ((ret = deflateEnd(&stream)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateEnd() failed: %d", ret); if (final_size) *final_size = stream.total_out; return; }

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  • I need help converting a C# string from one character encoding to another?

    - by Handleman
    According to Spolsky I can't call myself a developer, so there is a lot of shame behind this question... Scenario: From a C# application, I would like to take a string value from a SQL db and use it as the name of a directory. I have a secure (SSL) FTP server on which I want to set the current directory using the string value from the DB. Problem: Everything is working fine until I hit a string value with a "special" character - I seem unable to encode the directory name correctly to satisfy the FTP server. The code example below uses "special" character é as an example uses WinSCP as an external application for the ftps comms does not show all the code required to setup the Process "_winscp". sends commands to the WinSCP exe by writing to the process standardinput for simplicity, does not get the info from the DB, but instead simply declares a string (but I did do a .Equals to confirm that the value from the DB is the same as the declared string) makes three attempts to set the current directory on the FTP server using different string encodings - all of which fail makes an attempt to set the directory using a string that was created from a hand-crafted byte array - which works Process _winscp = new Process(); byte[] buffer; string nameFromString = "Sinéad O'Connor"; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + nameFromString + "\""); buffer = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer) + "\""); buffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer) + "\""); byte[] nameFromBytes = new byte[] { 83, 105, 110, 130, 97, 100, 32, 79, 39, 67, 111, 110, 110, 111, 114 }; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.Default.GetString(nameFromBytes) + "\""); The UTF8 encoding changes é to 101 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. The ASCII encoding changes é to 63 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. When I represent é as value 130 (decimal) the FTP server is happy, except I can't find a method that will do this for me (I had to manually contruct the string from explicit bytes). Anyone know what I should do to my string to encode the é as 130 and make the FTP server happy and finally elevate me to level 1 developer by explaining the only single thing a developer should understand?

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • Not allowing characters after Space. Mysql Insert With PHP

    - by Jake
    Ok so I think this is easy but I dont know (I'm a novice to PHP and MySQL). I have a select that is getting data from a table in the database. I am simply taking whatever options the user selects and putting it into a separate table with a php mysql insert statement. But I am having a problem. When I hit submit, everything is submitted properly except for any select options that have spaces don't submit after the first space. For example if the option was COMPUTER REPAIR, all that would get sent is COMPUTER. I will post code if needed, and any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Ok here is my select code: <?php include("./config.php"); $query="SELECT id,name FROM category_names ORDER BY name"; $result = mysql_query ($query); echo"<div style='overflow:auto;width:100%'><label>Categories (Pick three that describe your business)</label><br/><select name='select1'><option value='0'>Please Select A Category</option>"; // printing the list box select command while($catinfo=mysql_fetch_array($result)){//Array or records stored in $nt echo "<option>$catinfo[name]</option><br/> "; } echo"</select></div>"; ?> And here is my insert code ( Just to let you know its got everything not just the select!) ?php require("./config.php"); $companyname = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(trim($_REQUEST['name']))); $phone = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['phone'])); $zipcode = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['zipcode'])); $city = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['city'])); $description = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['description'])); $website = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['website'])); $address = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['address'])); $other = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['other'])); $payment = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['payment'])); $products = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['products'])); $email = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['email'])); $select1 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select1'])); $select2 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select2'])); $select3 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select3'])); $save=$_POST['save']; if(!empty($save)){ $sql="INSERT INTO gj (name, phone, city, zipcode, description, dateadded, website, address1, other2, payment_options, Products, email,cat1,cat2,cat3) VALUES ('$companyname','$phone','$city','$zipcode','$description',curdate(),'$website','$address','$other','$payment','$products','$email','$select1','$select2','$select3')"; if (!mysql_query($sql,$link)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "<br/><h2><font color='green' style='font-size:15px'>1 business added</font></h2>"; mysql_close($link); } ?>

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  • Algorithm: Determine shape of two sectors delineated by an arbitrary path, and then fill one.

    - by Arseniy Banayev
    NOTE: This is a challenging problem for anybody who likes logic problems, etc. Consider a rectangular two-dimensional grid of height H and width W. Every space on the grid has a value, either 0 1 or 2. Initially, every space on the grid is a 0, except for the spaces along each of the four edges, which are initially a 2. Then consider an arbitrary path of adjacent (horizontally or vertically) grid spaces. The path begins on a 2 and ends on a different 2. Every space along the path is a 1. The path divides the grid into two "sectors" of 0 spaces. There is an object that rests on an unspecified 0 space. The "sector" that does NOT contain the object must be filled completely with 2. Define an algorithm that determines the spaces that must become 2 from 0, given an array (list) of values (0, 1, or 2) that correspond to the values in the grid, going from top to bottom and then from left to right. In other words, the element at index 0 in the array contains the value of the top-left space in the grid (initially a 2). The element at index 1 contains the value of the space in the grid that is in the left column, second from the top, and so forth. The element at index H contains the value of the space in the grid that is in the top row but second from the left, and so forth. Once the algorithm finishes and the empty "sector" is filled completely with 2s, the SAME algorithm must be sufficient to do the same process again. The second (and on) time, the path is still drawn from a 2 to a different 2, across spaces of 0, but the "grid" is smaller because the 2s that are surrounded by other 2s cannot be touched by the path (since the path is along spaces of 0). I thank whomever is able to figure this out for me, very very much. This does not have to be in a particular programming language; in fact, pseudo-code or just English is sufficient. Thanks again! If you have any questions, just leave a comment and I'll specify what needs to be specified.

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  • CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • SAX parser does not resolve filename

    - by phantom-99w
    Another day, another strange error with SAX, Java, and friends. I need to iterate over a list of File objects and pass them to a SAX parser. However, the parser fails because of an IOException. However, the various File object methods confirm that the file does indeed exist. The output which I get: 11:53:57.838 [MainThread] DEBUG DefaultReactionFinder - C:\project\trunk\application\config\reactions\TestReactions.xml 11:53:57.841 [MainThread] ERROR DefaultReactionFinder - C:\project\trunk\application\config\reactions\null (The system cannot find the file specified) So the problem is obviously that null in the second line. I've tried nearly all variations of passing the file as a parameter to the parser, including as a String (both from getAbsolutePath() and entered by hand), as a URI and, even more weirdly, as a FileInputStream (for this I get the same error, except that the entire relative path gets reported as null, so C:\project\trunk\null). All that I can think of is that the SAXParserFactory is incorrectly configured. I have no idea what is wrong, though. Here is the code concerned: SAXParserFactory factory = SAXParserFactory.newInstance(); factory.setValidating(true); try { parser = factory.newSAXParser(); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { throw new InstantiationException("Error configuring an XML parser. Given error message: \"" + e.getMessage() + "\"."); } catch (SAXException e) { throw new InstantiationException("Error creating a SAX parser. Given error message: \"" + e.getMessage() + "\"."); } ... for (File f : fileLister.getFileList()) { logger.debug(f.getAbsolutePath()); try { parser.parse(f, new ReactionHandler(input)); //FileInputStream fs = new FileInputStream(f); //parser.parse(fs, new ReactionHandler(input)); //fs.close(); } catch (IOException e) { logger.error(e.getMessage()); throw new ReactionNotFoundException("An error occurred processing file \"" + f + "\"."); } ... } I have made no special provisions to provide a custom SAX parser implementation: I use the system default. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Unable to decode hex values in javascript tooltip

    - by staudk27
    Hi all, I have quite the process that we go through in order to display some e-mail communications in our application. Trying to keep it as general as possible... -We make a request to a service via XML -Get the XML reply string, send the string to a method to encode any invalid characters as follows: public static String convertUTF8(String value) { char[] chars = value.toCharArray(); StringBuffer retVal = new StringBuffer(chars.length); for (int i = 0; i < chars.length; i++) { char c = chars[i]; int chVal = (int)c; if (chVal > Byte.MAX_VALUE) { retVal.append("&#x").append(Integer.toHexString(chVal)).append(";"); } else { retVal.append(c); } } return retVal.toString(); } We then send that result of a string to another method to remove any other invalid characters: public static String removeInvalidCharacters(String inString) { if (inString == null){ return null; } StringBuffer newString = new StringBuffer(); char ch; char c[] = inString.toCharArray(); for (int i = 0; i < c.length; i++) { ch = c[i]; // remove any characters outside the valid UTF-8 range as well as all control characters // except tabs and new lines if ((ch < 0x00FD && ch > 0x001F) || ch == '\t' || ch == '\n' || ch == '\r') { newString.append(ch); } } return newString.toString(); } This string is then "unmarshal'ed" via the SaxParser The object is then sent back to our Display action which generated the response to the calling jsp/javascript to create the page. The issue is some text can contain characters which can't be processed correctly. The following is eventually rendered on the JSP just fine: <PrvwCommTxt>This is a new test. Have a*&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xb4;)&amp;#xa1;.&amp;#xf1;&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xa1;.&amp;#xf1;*&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xb4;)...</PrvwCommTxt> Which shows up as "This is a new test. Have a*Ç´)¡.ñÇ¡." in the browser. -The following shows up in a tooltip while hovering over the above text: <CommDetails>This is a new test. Have a*Ç´)¡.ñÇ¡.ñ*Ç´)¡.ñ*´)(¡.ñÇ(¡.ñÇ* Wonderful Day!</CommDetails> This then shows up incorrectly when rendered in the tooltip javascript with all the HEX values and not being rendered correctly. Any suggestions on how to make the unknown characters show correctly in javascript?

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  • plane bombing problems- help

    - by peiska
    I'm training code problems, and on this one I am having problems to solve it, can you give me some tips how to solve it please. The problem is something like this: Your task is to find the sequence of points on the map that the bomber is expected to travel such that it hits all vital links. A link from A to B is vital when its absence isolates completely A from B. In other words, the only way to go from A to B (or vice versa) is via that link. Notice that if we destroy for example link (d,e), it becomes impossible to go from d to e,m,l or n in any way. A vital link can be hit at any point that lies in its segment (e.g. a hit close to d is as valid as a hit close to e). Of course, only one hit is enough to neutralize a vital link. Moreover, each bomb affects an exact circle of radius R, i.e., every segment that intersects that circle is considered hit. Due to enemy counter-attack, the plane may have to retreat at any moment, so the plane should follow, at each moment, to the closest vital link possible, even if in the end the total distance grows larger. Given all coordinates (the initial position of the plane and the nodes in the map) and the range R, you have to determine the sequence of positions in which the plane has to drop bombs. This sequence should start (takeoff) and finish (landing) at the initial position. Except for the start and finish, all the other positions have to fall exactly in a segment of the map (i.e. it should correspond to a point in a non-hit vital link segment). The coordinate system used will be UTM (Universal Transverse Mercator) northing and easting, which basically corresponds to a Euclidian perspective of the world (X=Easting; Y=Northing). Input Each input file will start with three floating point numbers indicating the X0 and Y0 coordinates of the airport and the range R. The second line contains an integer, N, indicating the number of nodes in the road network graph. Then, the next N (<10000) lines will each contain a pair of floating point numbers indicating the Xi and Yi coordinates (1 No two links will ever cross with each other. Output The program will print the sequence of coordinates (pairs of floating point numbers with exactly one decimal place), each one at a line, in the order that the plane should visit (starting and ending in the airport). Sample input 1 102.3 553.9 0.2 14 342.2 832.5 596.2 638.5 479.7 991.3 720.4 874.8 744.3 1284.1 1294.6 924.2 1467.5 659.6 1802.6 659.6 1686.2 860.7 1548.6 1111.2 1834.4 1054.8 564.4 1442.8 850.1 1460.5 1294.6 1485.1 17 1 2 1 3 2 4 3 4 4 5 4 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 8 10 9 10 10 11 6 11 5 12 5 13 12 13 13 14 Sample output 1 102.3 553.9 720.4 874.8 850.1 1460.5 102.3 553.9

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  • Casting objects in C# (ASP.Net MVC)

    - by Mortanis
    I'm coming from a background in ColdFusion, and finally moving onto something modern, so please bear with me. I'm running into a problem casting objects. I have two database tables that I'm using as Models - Residential and Commercial. Both of them share the majority of their fields, though each has a few unique fields. I've created another class as a container that contains the sum of all property fields. Query the Residential and Commercial, stuff it into my container, cunningly called Property. This works fine. However, I'm having problems aliasing the fields from Residential/Commercial onto Property. It's quite easy to create a method for each property: fillPropertyByResidential(Residential source) and fillPropertyByCommercial(Commercial source), and alias the variables. That also works fine, but quite obviously will copy a bunch of code - all those fields that are shared between the two main Models. So, I'd like a generic fillPropertyBySource() that takes the object, and detects if it's Residential or Commercial, fills the particular fields of each respective type, then do all the fields in common. Except, I gather in C# that variables created inside an If are only in the scope of the if, so I'm not sure how to do this. public property fillPropertyBySource(object source) { property prop = new property(); if (source is Residential) { Residential o = (Residential)source; //Fill Residential only fields } else if (source is Commercial) { Commercial o = (Commercial)source; //Fill Commercial only fields } //Fill fields shared by both prop.price = (int)o.price; prop.bathrooms = (float)o.bathrooms; return prop; } "o" being a Commercial or Residential only exists within the scope of the if. How do I detect the original type of the source object and take action? Bear with me - the shift from ColdFusion into a modern language is pretty..... difficult. More so since I'm used to procedural code and MVC is a massive paradigm shift. Edit: I should include the error: The name 'o' does not exist in the current context For the aliases of price and bathrooms in the shared area.

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  • iPad web app: Prevent input focus AFTER ajax call

    - by Mike Barwick
    So I've read around and can't for the life of me figure out of to solve my issue effectively. In short, I have a web app built for the iPad - which works as it should. However, I have an Ajax form which also submits as it should. But, after the callback and I clear/reset my form, the "iPad" automatically focuses on an input and opens the keyboard again. This is far from ideal. I managed to hack my way around it, but it's still not perfect. The code below is run on my ajax callback, which works - except there's still a flash of the keyboard quickly opening and closing. Note, my code won't work unless I use setTimeout. Also, from my understanding, document.activeElement.blur(); only works when there's a click event, so I triggered one via js. IN OTHER WORDS, HOW DO I PREVENT THE KEYBOARD FROM REOPENING AFTER AJAX CALL ON WEB APP? PS: Ajax call works fine and doesn't open the keyboard in Safari on the iPad, just web app mode. Here's my code: hideKeyboard: function () { // iOS web app only, iPad IS_IPAD = navigator.userAgent.match(/iPad/i) != null; if (IS_IPAD) { $(window).one('click', function () { document.activeElement.blur(); }); setTimeout(function () { $(window).trigger('click'); }, 500); } } Maybe it's related to how I'm clearing my forms, so here's that code. Note, all inputs have tabindex="-1" as well. clearForm: function () { // text, textarea, etc $('#campaign-form-wrap > form')[0].reset(); // checkboxes $('input[type="checkbox"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.checkbox').removeClass('checked'); // radio inputs $('input[type="radio"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.radio').removeClass('checked'); // selects $('form.custom .user-generated-field select').each(function () { var selection = $(this).find('option:first').text(), labelFor = $(this).attr('name'), label = $('[for="' + labelFor + '"]'); label.find('.selection-choice').html(selection); }); optin.hideKeyboard(); }

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  • A question about making a C# class persistent during a file load

    - by Adam
    Apologies for the indescriptive title, however it's the best I could think of for the moment. Basically, I've written a singleton class that loads files into a database. These files are typically large, and take hours to process. What I am looking for is to make a method where I can have this class running, and be able to call methods from within it, even if it's calling class is shut down. The singleton class is simple. It starts a thread that loads the file into the database, while having methods to report on the current status. In a nutshell it's al little like this: public sealed class BulkFileLoader { static BulkFileLoader instance = null; int currentCount = 0; BulkFileLoader() public static BulkFileLoader Instance { // Instanciate the instance class if necessary, and return it } public void Go() { // kick of 'ProcessFile' thread } public void GetCurrentCount() { return currentCount; } private void ProcessFile() { while (more rows in the import file) { // insert the row into the database currentCount++; } } } The idea is that you can get an instance of BulkFileLoader to execute, which will process a file to load, while at any time you can get realtime updates on the number of rows its done so far using the GetCurrentCount() method. This works fine, except the calling class needs to stay open the whole time for the processing to continue. As soon as I stop the calling class, the BulkFileLoader instance is removed, and it stops processing the file. What I am after is a solution where it will continue to run independently, regardless of what happens to the calling class. I then tried another approach. I created a simple console application that kicks off the BulkFileLoader, and then wrapped it around as a process. This fixes one problem, since now when I kick off the process, the file will continue to load even if I close the class that called the process. However, now the problem I have is that cannot get updates on the current count, since if I try and get the instance of BulkFileLoader (which, as mentioned before is a singleton), it creates a new instance, rather than returning the instance that is currently in the executing process. It would appear that singletons don't extend into the scope of other processes running on the machine. In the end, I want to be able to kick off the BulkFileLoader, and at any time be able to find out how many rows it's processed. However, that is even if I close the application I used to start it. Can anyone see a solution to my problem?

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  • How do you select form elements in JQuery based upon an html table?

    - by Swoop
    I am working on some ASP.NET web forms which involves some dynamic generation, and I need to add some onClick helpers on the client side. I have a basic outline of something working, except for one huge problem. There are multiple HTML tables, each generated by a different ASP.NET web control. Each table can contain overlapping field names, which is causing a problem with my JQuery click event handlers. The click event handler is linking to unintended form fields in addition to the intended form field. I have provided a simplified sample version of the code below. This code is trying to set the value of textbox box1 when a particular radiobutton is selected in the table with id=thing1. Obviously, the jquery code will be triggered for the form fields in both tables. The tables are dynamically added to the webpage based upon different conditions. It is possible that no tables will be loaded, only 1 table, or both tables might load. In the future, other tables could be added. Each table comes from a different .net web control. Other than renaming the form fields to make sure they are unique across all user controls, is there a way to have JQuery act only on the intended form fields? In other words, could the table ID be incorporated into the JQuery code in a manner that does not become a nightmare to maintain later? <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("[id$=radio1_0]").click(function() { $("[id$=box1]").attr("value", ""); }); $("[id$=radio1_1]").click(function() { $("[id$=box1]").attr("value", "N/A"); }); </script> <table id="thing1"> <tr><td> <radiobuttonlist id="radio1"/> <listitem>yes</listitem> <listitem>no</listitem> </td></tr> <tr><td> <textbox id="box1"/> </td></tr> </table> <table id="thing2"> <tr><td> <radiobuttonlist id="radio1"/> <listitem>yes</listitem> <listitem>no</listitem> </td></tr> <tr><td> <textbox id="box1"/> </tr></td> </table>

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  • Can I make a LaTeX macro 'return' a filename?

    - by drfrogsplat
    I'm writing my thesis/dissertation and since its an on-going work I don't always have the actual images ready for the figures I put into my document, but for various reasons want to automatically have it substitute a dummy figure in place when the included graphics file doesn't exist. E.g. I can do something like \includegraphics[width=8cm]{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor} (where \chapdir is a macro for my 'current' chapter directory, e.g. \def\chapdir{./ch_timetravel} and if there's no ./ch_timetravel/figures/fluxcapacitor.jpg it'll insert ./commands/dummy.jpg instead. I've structured my macros (perhaps naïvely?) so that I have a macro (\figFileOrDummy) that determines the appropriate file to include by checking if the argument provided to it exists, so that I can call \includegraphics[properties]{\figFileOrDummy{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor}}. Except I'm getting various errors depending on how I try to call this, which seem to suggest that I'm approaching the problem in a fundamentally flawed way as far as 'good LaTeX programming' goes. Here's the macro to check if the file exists (and 'return' either filename or the dummy filename): \newcommand{\figFileOrDummy}[1]{% % Figure base name (no extension) to be used if the file exists \def\fodname{#1}% \def\dummyfig{commands/dummy}% % Check if output is PS (.EPS) or PDF (.JPG/.PDF/.PNG/...) figures \ifx\pdfoutput\undefined% % EPS figures only \IfFileExists{\fodname.eps}{}{\def\fodname{\dummyfig}}% \else% % Check existence of various extensions: PDF, TIF, TIFF, JPG, JPEG, PNG, MPS \def\figtest{0}% flag below compared to this value \IfFileExists{\fodname.pdf}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{\def\figfilenamefound{0}}% \IfFileExists{\fodname.jpg}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{}% \IfFileExists{\fodname.png}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{}% % and so on... % If no files found matching the filename (flag is 0) then use the dummy figure \ifx\figfilenamefound\figtest% \def\fodname{\dummyfig}% \fi% \fi% % 'return' the filename \fodname% }% Alternatively, here's a much simpler version which seems to have similar problems: \newcommand{\figFileOrDummy}[1]{% \def\dummyfig{commands/dummy}% \dummyfig% } The \def commands seems to be processed after the expansion of the macro they're trying to define, so it ends up being \def {commands/dummy}... (note the space after \def) and obviously complains. Also it seems to treat the literal contents of the macro as the filename for \includegraphics, rather than resolving/expanding it first, so complains that the file '\def {commands/dummy}... .png' doesn't exist.. I've tried also doing something like \edef\figfilename{\figFileOrDummy{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor}} to try to force it to make \figfilename hold just the value rather than the full macro, but I get an Undefined control sequence error complaining the variables I'm trying to \def in the \figFileOrDummy macro are undefined. So my question is either How do I make this macro expand properly?; or If this is the wrong way of structuring my macros, how should I actually structure such a macro, in order to be able to insert dummy/real figures automatically?; or Is there a package that already handles this type of thing nicely that I've overlooked? I feel like I'm missing something pretty fundamental here...

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  • Create a Counter within a For-Loop?

    - by Todd Hartman
    I am a novice programmer and apologize upfront for the complicated question. I am trying to create a lexical decision task for experimental research, in which respondents must decide if a series of letters presented on the screen make a "word" or "not a word". Everything works reasonably well except for the bit where I want to randomly select a word (category A) or nonword (category B) for each of 80 trials from a separate input file (input.txt). The randomization works, but some elements from each list (category A or B) are skipped because I have used "round.catIndex = j;" where "j" is a loop for each successive trial. Because some trials randomly select from Category A and other from Category B, "j" does not move successively down the list for each category. Instead, elements from the Category A list may be selected from something like 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10, and so on (it varies each time because of the randomization). To make a long story short(!), how do I create a counter that will work within the for-loop for each trial, so that every word and nonword from Category A and B, respectively, will be used for the lexical decision task? Everything I have tried thus far does not work properly or breaks the javascript entirely. Below is my code snippet and the full code is available at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.js. Also, the full lexical decision task can be accessed at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.php. Thanks! function initRounds() { numlst = []; for (var k = 0; k<numrounds; k++) { if (k % 2 == 0) numlst[k] = 0; else numlst[k] = 1; } numlst.sort(function() {return 0.5 - Math.random()}) for (var j = 0; j<numrounds; j++) { var round = new LDTround(); if (numlst[j] == 0) { round.category = input.catA.datalabel; } else if (numlst[j] == 1) { round.category = input.catB.datalabel; } // pick a category & stimulus if (round.category == input.catA.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catA.itemtype; round.correct = 1; round.catIndex = j; } else if (round.category == input.catB.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catB.itemtype; round.correct = 2; round.catIndex = j; } roundArray[i].push(round); } return roundArray; }

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  • Applying styles to a GridView matching certain criteria

    - by NickK
    Hi everyone. I'm fairly new to ASP.Net so it's probably just me being a bit stupid, but I just can't figure out why this isn't working. Basically, I have a GridView control (GridView1) on a page which is reading from a database. I already have a CSS style applied to the GridView and all I want to do is change the background image applied in the style depending on if a certain cell has data in it or not. The way I'm trying to handle this change is updating the CSS class applied to each row through C#. I have the code below doing this: protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = e.Row; string s = row.Cells[7].Text; if (s.Length > 0) { row.CssClass = "newRowBackground"; } else { row.CssClass = "oldRowBackground"; } } In theory, the data from Cell[7] will either be null or be a string (in this case, likely a person's name). The problem is that when the page loads, every row in the GridView has the new style applied to it, whether it's empty or not. However, when I change it to use hard coded examples, it works fine. So for example, the below would work exactly how I want it to: protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = e.Row; string s = row.Cells[7].Text; if (s == "Smith") //Matching a name in one of the rows { row.CssClass = "newRowBackground"; } else { row.CssClass = "oldRowBackground"; } } It seems as if the top piece of code is always returning the string with a value greater than 0, but when I check the database the fields are all null (except for my test record of "Smith"). I'm probably doing something very simple that's wrong here, but I can't see what. Like I said, I'm still very new to this. One thing I have tried is changing the argument in the if statement to things like: if (s != null), if (s != "") and if (s == string.empty) all with no luck. Any help is greatly appreciated and don't hesitate to tell me if I'm just being stupid here. :)

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  • Loosely coupled implicit conversion

    - by ltjax
    Implicit conversion can be really useful when types are semantically equivalent. For example, imagine two libraries that implement a type identically, but in different namespaces. Or just a type that is mostly identical, except for some semantic-sugar here and there. Now you cannot pass one type into a function (in one of those libraries) that was designed to use the other, unless that function is a template. If it's not, you have to somehow convert one type into the other. This should be trivial (or otherwise the types are not so identical after-all!) but calling the conversion explicitly bloats your code with mostly meaningless function-calls. While such conversion functions might actually copy some values around, they essentially do nothing from a high-level "programmers" point-of-view. Implicit conversion constructors and operators could obviously help, but they introduce coupling, so that one of those types has to know about the other. Usually, at least when dealing with libraries, that is not the case, because the presence of one of those types makes the other one redundant. Also, you cannot always change libraries. Now I see two options on how to make implicit conversion work in user-code: The first would be to provide a proxy-type, that implements conversion-operators and conversion-constructors (and assignments) for all the involved types, and always use that. The second requires a minimal change to the libraries, but allows great flexibility: Add a conversion-constructor for each involved type that can be externally optionally enabled. For example, for a type A add a constructor: template <class T> A( const T& src, typename boost::enable_if<conversion_enabled<T,A>>::type* ignore=0 ) { *this = convert(src); } and a template template <class X, class Y> struct conversion_enabled : public boost::mpl::false_ {}; that disables the implicit conversion by default. Then to enable conversion between two types, specialize the template: template <> struct conversion_enabled<OtherA, A> : public boost::mpl::true_ {}; and implement a convert function that can be found through ADL. I would personally prefer to use the second variant, unless there are strong arguments against it. Now to the actual question(s): What's the preferred way to associate types for implicit conversion? Are my suggestions good ideas? Are there any downsides to either approach? Is allowing conversions like that dangerous? Should library implementers in-general supply the second method when it's likely that their type will be replicated in software they are most likely beeing used with (I'm thinking of 3d-rendering middle-ware here, where most of those packages implement a 3D vector).

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  • Action Cache for root URL not working

    - by askegg
    Here's the setup. I have web site which is essentially a simple CMS. Here is the routes file: map.connect ':url', :controller => :pages, :action => :show map.root :controller => :pages, :action => :show, :url => "/" The page controller is thus: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :verify_access, :except => [:show] # Cache show action if we are not logged in. caches_action :show, :layout => false, :unless => Proc.new { |controller| controller.logged_in? } def update @page = Page.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| expire_action :action => :show, :url => @page.url So when a visitor hits "/" it maps to :controller = "pages, :action = "show, :url = "/". This generates a cached version on first try, then returns the appropriate result there after. The log files show: Processing PagesController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-08-02 14:15:01) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"show", "url"=>"/", "controller"=>"pages"} Cached fragment hit: views/out.local// (0.1ms) Rendering template within layouts/application Filter chain halted as [#<ActionController::Filters::AroundFilter:0x23eb03c @identifier=nil, @method=#<Proc:0x01904858@/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.3/lib/action_controller/caching/actions.rb:64>, @kind=:filter, @options={:only=>#<Set: {"show"}>, :if=>nil, :unless=>#<Proc:0x025137ac@/Users/askegg/Sites/out/app/controllers/pages_controller.rb:6>}>] did_not_yield. Completed in 2ms (View: 1, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://out.local/] OK - all good so far. When I update the page, it should expire the cache (see above). The logs show: Page Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."id" = 3) Page Load (0.1ms) SELECT "pages".id FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."url" = '/' AND "pages".domain_id = 1 AND "pages".id <> 3) LIMIT 1 Expired fragment: views/out.local/index (0.1ms) Redirected to http://out.local/pages/3 Completed in 9ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://out.local/pages/3] See the problem? Rails is clearing the cache named "index", but it sets it as "/". Naturally this results in the cache NOT being cleared, so visitors are now seeing the old version.

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  • Problem with JQuery swapImage();

    - by VUELA
    Hello!~ On my articles page (http://www.adrtimes.squarespace.com/articles) I have each entry start with an image that changes on rollover. This is working fine. However, on my homepage (http://www.adrtimes.squarespace.com), I am loading in the 2 most recent articles that are not categorized as video, and the 2 most recent articles that are tagged as video. I am using jQuery load() to pull in the content from the articles page. Everything works ok with that except the swapImage rollovers on the homepage. i tried including the swapImage function as callbacks but only one group or the other will rollover properly, not both groups of content. I'm not sure what the problem is!! Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- $(function(){ $.swapImage(".swapImage"); /* Homepage */ // load recent articles $("#LoadRecentArticles").load("/articles/ .list-journal-entry-wrapper .journal-entry-wrapper:not(.category-video)", function(){ //callback... $("#LoadRecentArticles .journal-entry-wrapper").wrapAll('<div class="list-journal-entry-wrapper" />'); $("#LoadRecentArticles .journal-entry-wrapper:gt(1)").remove(); // modify Read More tag $('.journal-read-more-tag a:contains(Click to read more ...)').each(function(){ var str = $(this).html(); $(this).html(str.replace('Click to read more ...','Continue reading—')); }); $.swapImage(".swapImage"); }); // load recent videos $("#LoadRecentVideos").load("/articles/category/video .list-journal-entry-wrapper", function(){ //callback... $("#LoadRecentVideos .journal-entry-wrapper:gt(1)").remove(); $('<div class="VideoTag">—video</div>').insertBefore("#LoadRecentVideos .category-video .body img"); // modify Read More tag $('.journal-read-more-tag a:contains(Click to read more ...)').each(function(){ var str = $(this).html(); $(this).html(str.replace('Click to read more ...','Continue reading—')); }); $.swapImage(".swapImage"); }); }); --> </script> And here is a sample of the html for the images in an article entry: <a href="/articles/2010/5/6/article-title-goes-here.html"><img class="swapImage {src: '/storage/post-images/Sample2_color.jpg'}" src="/storage/post-images/Sample2_bw.jpg" /></a>

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  • Model Binding with Parent/Child Relationship

    - by user296297
    I'm sure this has been answered before, but I've spent the last three hours looking for an acceptable solution and have been unable to find anything, so I apologize for what I'm sure is a repeat. I have two domain objects, Player and Position. Player's have a Position. My domain objects are POCOs tied to my database with NHibernate. I have an Add action that takes a Player, so I'm using the built in model binding. On my view I have a drop down list that lets a user select the Position for the Player. The value of the drop down list is the Id of the position. Everything gets populated correctly except that my Position object fails validation (ModelState.IsValid) because at the point of model binding it only has an Id and none of it's other required attributes. What is the preferred solution for solving this with ASP.NET MVC 2? Solutions I've tried... Fetch the Position from the database based on the Id before ModelState.IsValid is called in the Add action of my controller. I can't get the model to run the validation again, so ModelState.IsValid always returns false. Create a custom ModelBinder that inherits from the default binder and fetch the Position from the database after the base binder is called. The ModelBinder seems to be doing the validation so if I use anything from the default binder I'm hosed. Which means I have to completely roll my own binder and grab every value from the form...this seems really wrong and inefficient for such a common use-case. Solutions I think might work, I just can't figure out how to do... Turn off the validation for the Position class when used in Player. Write a custom ModelBinder leverages the default binder for most of the property binding, but lets me get the Position from the database BEFORE the default binder runs validation. So, how do the rest of you solve this? Thanks, Dan P.S. In my opinion having a PositionId on Player just for this case is not a good solution. There has to be solvable in a more elegant fashion.

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