Search Results

Search found 7850 results on 314 pages for 'except'.

Page 284/314 | < Previous Page | 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291  | Next Page >

  • difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

    - by Abbas
    i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Grouped tables and navigation controller issues

    - by Jack Griffiths
    Hi there, I've set up a grouped table on my app, and pushing to new views works fine. Except for one thing. The titles and stack layout are all weird. Here's the breakdown: I have two sections in my table. When I tap on the first row in the first section, it takes me to the correct view, but the title of the new view is the name of the first row in the second section of the table. In turn, the second row in the first section's title is the second row in the second section's title. If I tap on the second row in the second section of the root view table, the navigation button goes to the second row in the first section of the table. So here's a diagram of my table: Table Section 1 Row 1 Row 2 Row 3 Table Section 2 Row A Row B Row C So if I tap on row 3, the title of the pushed view is Row C. The navigation button tells me to go back to Row 3, then eventually ending up at the root view. Here's my implementation file pushing the views: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //CSS if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"CSS"]) { CSSViewController *css = [[CSSViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"CSSViewController" bundle:nil]; [css setTitle:@"CSS"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:css animated:YES]; } //HTML if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"HTML"]) { HTMLViewController *html = [[HTMLViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HTMLViewController" bundle:nil]; [html setTitle:@"HTML"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:html animated:YES]; } //JS if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"JavaScript"]) { JSViewController *js = [[JSViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"JSViewController" bundle:nil]; [js setTitle:@"JavaScript"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:js animated:YES]; } //PHP if ([[arryServerSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"PHP"]) { PHPViewController *php = [[PHPViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"PHPViewController" bundle:nil]; [php setTitle:@"PHP"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:php animated:YES]; } //SQL if ([[arryServerSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"SQL"]) { SQLViewController *sql = [[SQLViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SQLViewController" bundle:nil]; [sql setTitle:@"SQL"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:sql animated:YES]; } & the array feeding the table's data: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; arryClientSide = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"CSS",@"HTML",@"JavaScript",nil]; arryServerSide = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Objective-C", @"PHP",@"SQL",nil]; // arryResources = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"HTML Colour Codes", @"Useful Resources", @"About",nil]; self.title = @"Select a Language"; [super viewDidLoad]; // Uncomment the following line to display an Edit button in the navigation bar for this view controller. // self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = self.editButtonItem; } Any help would be greatly appreciated. Jack

    Read the article

  • Distinct rand() sequences yielding the same results in an expression

    - by suszterpatt
    Ok, this is a really weird one. I have an MPI program, where each process has to generate random numbers in a fixed range (the range is read from file). What happens is that even though I seed each process with a different value, and the numbers generated by rand() are different in each process, the expression to generate the random numbers still yields the same sequence between them. Here's all relevant code: // 'rank' will be unique for each process int rank; MPI_Comm_rank(MPI_COMM_WORLD, &rank); // seed the RNG with a different value for each process srand(time(NULL) + rank); // print some random numbers to see if we get a unique sequence in each process // 'log' is a uniquely named file, each process has its own log << rand() << " " << rand() << " " << rand() << std::endl; // do boring deterministic stuff while (true) { // waitTimeMin and waitTimeMax are integers, Max is always greater than Min waitSecs = waitTimeMin + rand() % (waitTimeMax - waitTimeMin); log << "waiting " << waitSecs << " seconds" << std::endl; sleep(waitSecs); // do more boring deterministic stuff } Here's the output of each process, with 3 processes generating numbers in the range [1,9]. process 1: 15190 28284 3149 waiting 6 seconds waiting 8 seconds waiting 9 seconds waiting 4 seconds process 2: 286 6264 3153 waiting 6 seconds waiting 8 seconds waiting 9 seconds waiting 4 seconds process 3: 18151 17013 3156 waiting 6 seconds waiting 8 seconds waiting 9 seconds waiting 4 seconds So while rand() clearly generates different numbers, the expression to calculate waitSecs still evaluates to the same sequence on all processes. What's even weirder: if I run the program with the same parameteres again, only the first 3 random numbers will change, the rest of the "random" sequence will be exactly the same in each run! Changing the range of numbers will obviously produce a different result from this one, but the same parameters always yield the same sequence, between processes and between executions: except for the first 3 numbers. Just what the hell is going on here?

    Read the article

  • .NET: Is there a way to finagle a default namespace in an XPath 1.0 query?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm building a tool that performs xpath 1.0 queries on XHTML documents. The requirement to use a namespace prefix in the query is killing me. The query looks like this: html/body/div[@class='contents']/div[@class='body']/ div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/h2[a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ul[1]/li/a (all on one line) ...which is bad enough, except because it's xpath 1.0, I need to use an explicit namespace prefix on each QName, so it looks like this: ns1:html/ns1:body/ns1:div[@class='contents']/ns1:div[@class='body']/ ns1:div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/ns1:h2[ns1:a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ns1:ul[1]/ns1:li/ns1:a To set up the query, I do something like this: var xpathDoc = new XPathDocument(new StringReader(theText)); var nav = xpathDoc.CreateNavigator(); var xmlns = new XmlNamespaceManager(nav.NameTable); foreach (string prefix in xmlNamespaces.Keys) xmlns.AddNamespace(prefix, xmlNamespaces[prefix]); XPathNodeIterator selection = nav.Select(xpathExpression, xmlns); But what I want is for the xpathExpression to use the implicit default namespace. Is there a way for me to transform the unadorned xpath expression, after it's been written, to inject a namespace prefix for each element name in the query? I'm thinking, anything between two slashes, I could inject a prefix there. Excepting of course axis names like "parent::" and "preceding-sibling::" . And wildcards. That's what I mean by "finagle a default namespace". Is this hack gonna work? Addendum Here's what I mean. suppose I have an xpath expression, and before passing it to nav.Select(), I transform it. Something like this: string FixupWithDefaultNamespace(string expr) { string s = expr; s = Regex.Replace(s, "^(?!::)([^/:]+)(?=/)", "ns1:$1"); // beginning s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([^/:]+)(?=/)", "/ns1:$1"); // stanza s = Regex.Replace(s, "::([A-Za-z][^/:*]*)(?=/)", "::ns1:$1"); // axis specifier s = Regex.Replace(s, "\\[([A-Za-z][^/:*\\(]*)(?=[\\[\\]])", "[ns1:$1"); // predicate s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([A-Za-z][^/:]*)(?!<::)$", "/ns1:$1"); // end s = Regex.Replace(s, "^([A-Za-z][^/:]*)$", "ns1:$1"); // edge case s = Regex.Replace(s, "([-A-Za-z]+)\\(([^/:\\.,\\)]+)(?=[,\\)])", "$1(ns1:$2"); // xpath functions return s; } This actually works for simple cases I tried. To use the example from above - if the input is the first xpath expression, the output I get is the 2nd one, with all the ns1 prefixes. The real question is, is it hopeless to expect this Regex.Replace approach to work, as the xpath expressions get more complicated?

    Read the article

  • Separate specific #ifdef branches

    - by detly
    In short: I want to generate two different source trees from the current one, based only on one preprocessor macro being defined and another being undefined, with no other changes to the source. If you are interested, here is my story... In the beginning, my code was clean. Then we made a new product, and yea, it was better. But the code saw only the same peripheral devices, so we could keep the same code. Well, almost. There was one little condition that needed to be changed, so I added: #if defined(PRODUCT_A) condition = checkCat(); #elif defined(PRODUCT_B) condition = checkCat() && checkHat(); #endif ...to one and only one source file. In the general all-source-files-include-this header file, I had: #if !(defined(PRODUCT_A)||defined(PRODUCT_B)) #error "Don't make me replace you with a small shell script. RTFM." #endif ...so that people couldn't compile it unless they explicitly defined a product type. All was well. Oh... except that modifications were made, components changed, and since the new hardware worked better we could significantly re-write the control systems. Now when I look upon the face of the code, there are more than 60 separate areas delineated by either: #ifdef PRODUCT_A ... #else ... #endif ...or the same, but for PRODUCT_B. Or even: #if defined(PRODUCT_A) ... #elif defined(PRODUCT_B) ... #endif And of course, sometimes sanity took a longer holiday and: #ifdef PRODUCT_A ... #endif #ifdef PRODUCT_B ... #endif These conditions wrap anywhere from one to two hundred lines (you'd think that the last one could be done by switching header files, but the function names need to be the same). This is insane. I would be better off maintaining two separate product-based branches in the source repo and porting any common changes. I realise this now. Is there something that can generate the two different source trees I need, based only on PRODUCT_A being defined and PRODUCT_B being undefined (and vice-versa), without touching anything else (ie. no header inclusion, no macro expansion, etc)?

    Read the article

  • I have to select the checkbox two times to check/uncheck in jTable

    - by 117526709403775781607
    I have a jTable code i intend to use, but the problem with it is that when i click on the checkbox once it doesn't select/deselect it, instead i have to click twice. But if i select any other cell in the row except the one containing the checkbox the purpose is solved. HERE IS MY CODE : public class TableSelectionTest extends JFrame implements ListSelectionListener { private final int COLUMN_COUNT = 5; private TblModel model; public TableSelectionTest() { initialize(); setDefaultCloseOperation(EXIT_ON_CLOSE); pack(); } private void initialize() { List data = new ArrayList(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { Object record[] = new Object[COLUMN_COUNT]; record[0] = Boolean.FALSE; for (int j = 1; j < COLUMN_COUNT; j++) { record[j] = new Integer(j); } data.add(record); } model = new TblModel(data); JTable table = new JTable(model); table.getSelectionModel().setSelectionMode(ListSelectionModel.SINGLE_SELECTION); table.getSelectionModel().addListSelectionListener (this); JScrollPane scroll = new JScrollPane(table); getContentPane().add(scroll, BorderLayout.CENTER); } public static void main(String[] args) { TableSelectionTest f = new TableSelectionTest(); f.show(); } class TblModel extends AbstractTableModel { private List data; public TblModel(List data) { this.data = data; } public int getColumnCount() { return COLUMN_COUNT; } public int getRowCount() { return data == null ? 0 : data.size(); } public void setValueAt(Object value, int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { getRecord(rowIndex)[columnIndex] = value; super.fireTableCellUpdated(rowIndex, columnIndex); } public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { return getRecord(rowIndex)[columnIndex]; } public boolean isCellEditable(int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { if(columnIndex == 0) return true; else return false; } public Class getColumnClass(int columnIndex) { if (data == null || data.size() == 0) { return Object.class; } Object o = getValueAt(0, columnIndex); return o == null ? Object.class : o.getClass(); } private Object[] getRecord(int rowIndex) { return (Object[]) data.get(rowIndex); } } public void valueChanged(ListSelectionEvent e) { if (!e.getValueIsAdjusting()) { ListSelectionModel lsm = (ListSelectionModel) e.getSource(); int index = lsm.getMinSelectionIndex(); if(model.getRecord(index)[0] == Boolean.FALSE) model.setValueAt(Boolean.TRUE, index, 0); else if(model.getRecord(index)[0] == Boolean.TRUE) model.setValueAt(Boolean.FALSE, index, 0); } } } Please reply soon as it is bugging me a lot Thank you in advance :)

    Read the article

  • PHP Menu Items Count then add under more button

    - by Adrian M.
    Hello, I use the bellow code to load the main menu elements from some CMS, the present code is perfect except that it loads ALL the main items on a single line of menu - which will make the width of it unusable in any centered design (under 1000px).. I want to change this script so after 15 main elements will add a "MORE" button under which the rest of the main menu items will show as sub-items of this "MORE" button (they will not have their own sub-items as the first 15 do).. How can I do it? Thanks! <?php require_once( '../../../inc/header.inc.php' ); require_once( DIRECTORY_PATH_INC . 'membership_levels.inc.php' ); require_once( DIRECTORY_PATH_ROOT . "templates/tmpl_{$tmpl}/scripts/TemplMenu.php" ); class SimpleMenu extends TemplMenu { function getCode() { $this->iElementsCntInLine = 100; $this->getMenuInfo(); $this->genTopItems(); return $this->sCode; } function genTopItem($sText, $sLink, $sTarget, $sOnclick, $bActive, $iItemID, $isBold = false, $sPicture = '') { $sActiveStyle = ($bActive) ? ' id="tm_active"' : ''; if (!$bActive) { $sAlt= $sOnclick ? ( ' alt="' . $sOnclick . '"' ) : ''; $sTarget = $sTarget ? ( ' target="_parent"' ) : ''; } $sLink = (strpos($sLink, 'http://') === false && !strlen($sOnclick)) ? $this->sSiteUrl . $sLink : $sLink; $sSubMenu = $this->getAllSubMenus($iItemID); $sImgTabStyle = $sPictureRep = ''; if ($isBold && $sPicture != '') { $sPicturePath = getTemplateIcon($sPicture); $sPictureRep = "<img src='{$sPicturePath}' style='vertical-align:middle;width:16px;height:16px;' />"; $sText = '&nbsp;'; $sImgTabStyle = 'style="width:38px;"'; } $sMainSubs = ($sSubMenu=='') ? '' : " {$sSubMenu} </a>"; $this->sCode .= " <li><a href='{$sLink}' {$sOnclick} target='_parent'>{$sPictureRep}{$sText}</a> <div id='submenu'> <ul> <li>{$sMainSubs}</li> </ul> </div> </li> "; } } $objMenu = new SimpleMenu(); echo "<ul id='ddmenu'>"; echo $objMenu->getCode(); echo "</ul>"; ?>

    Read the article

  • What is the most elegant way to implement a business rule relating to a child collection in LINQ?

    - by AaronSieb
    I have two tables in my database: Wiki WikiId ... WikiUser WikiUserId (PK) WikiId UserId IsOwner ... These tables have a one (Wiki) to Many (WikiUser) relationship. How would I implement the following business rule in my LINQ entity classes: "A Wiki must have exactly one owner?" I've tried updating the tables as follows: Wiki WikiId (PK) OwnerId (FK to WikiUser) ... WikiUser WikiUserId (PK) WikiId UserId ... This enforces the constraint, but if I remove the owner's WikiUser record from the Wiki's WikiUser collection, I recieve an ugly SqlException. This seems like it would be difficult to catch and handle in the UI. Is there a way to perform this check before the SqlException is generated? A better way to structure my database? A way to catch and translate the SqlException to something more useful? Edit: I would prefer to keep the validation rules within the LINQ entity classes if possible. Edit 2: Some more details about my specific situation. In my application, the user should be able to remove users from the Wiki. They should be able to remove any user, except the user who is currently flagged as the "owner" of the Wiki (a Wiki must have exactly one owner at all times). In my control logic, I'd like to use something like this: wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); And have any broken rules transferred to the UI layer. What I DON'T want to have to do is this: if(wikiUser.WikiUserId != wiki.OwnerId) { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } else { //Handle errors. } I also don't particularly want to move the code to my repository (because there is nothing to indicate not to use the native Remove functions), so I also DON'T want code like this: mRepository.RemoveWikiUser(wiki, wikiUser) mRepository.Save(); This WOULD be acceptable: try { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } catch(ValidationException ve) { //Display ve.Message } But this catches too many errors: try { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } catch(SqlException se) { //Display se.Message } I would also PREFER NOT to explicitly call a business rule check (although it may become necessary): wiki.WIkiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); if(wiki.CheckRules()) { mRepository.Save(); } else { //Display broken rules }

    Read the article

  • Are there known problems with >= and <= and the eval function in JS?

    - by Augier
    I am currently writing a JS rules engine which at one point needs to evaluate boolean expressions using the eval() function. Firstly I construct an equation as such: var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is the value I want to compare. relation.operator is the operator (either "==", "!=", <=, "<", "", ="). relation.value is the value I want to compare with. I then simply pass this string to the eval function and it returns true or false as such: return eval(equation); This works absolutely fine (with words and numbers) or all of the operators except for = and <=. E.g. When evaluating the equation: relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue <= 100 It returns true when previousValue = 0,1,10,100 & all negative numbers but false for everything in between. I would greatly appreciate the help of anyone to either answer my question or to help me find an alternative solution. Regards, Augier. P.S. I don't need a speech on the insecurities of the eval() function. Any value given to relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is predefined. edit: Here is the full function: function evaluateRelation(relation) { console.log("Evaluating relation") var currentValue; //if multiple values if(relation.value.indexOf(";") != -1) { var values = relation.value.split(";"); for (x in values) { var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "values[x]"; currentValue = eval(equation); if (currentValue) return true; } return false; } //if single value else { //Evaluate the relation and get boolean var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; console.log("relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue " + relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue); console.log(equation); return eval(equation); } } Answer: Provided by KennyTM below. A string comparison doesn't work. Converting to a numerical was needed.

    Read the article

  • Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues [closed]

    - by Greg
    Moved to Super User: Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues I am attempting to create a Windows XP SP3 image that will run my application on Second Boot. Here is the intended workflow. 1) Run Image Prep Utility (I wrote) on windows to add my runonce entries and clean a few things up. 2) Reboot to ghost, make image file. 3) Package into my ISO and distribute. 4) System will be imaged by user. 5) On first boot, I have about 5 things that run, one of which includes a driver updater (I wrote) for my own specific devices. 6) One of the entries inside of HKCU/../runonce is a reg file, which adds another key to HKLM/../runonce. This is how second boot is acquired. 7) As a result of the driver updater, user is prompted to reboot. 8) My application is then launched from HKLM/../runonce on second boot. This workflow works perfectly, except for a select few legacy systems that contain devices that cause the add hardware wizard to pop up. When the add hardware wizard pops up is when I begin to see problems. It's important to note, that if I manually inspect the registry after the add hardware wizard pops up, it appears as I would expect, with all the first boot scripts having run, and it's sitting in a state I would correctly expect it to be in for a second boot scenario. The problem comes when I click next on the add hardware wizard, it seems to re-run the single entry I've added, and re-executes the runonce scripts. (only one script now as it's already executed and cleared out the initial entries). This causes my application to open as if it were a second boot, only when next is clicked on the add hardware wizard. If I click cancel, and reboot, then it also works as expected. I don't care as much about other solutions, because I could design a system that doesn't fully rely on Microsoft's registry. I simply can't find any information as to WHY this is happening. I believe this is some type of Microsoft issue that's presenting itself as a result of an overstretched image that's expected to support too many legacy platforms, but any help that can be provided would be appreciated. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • When is ¦ not equal to ¦?

    - by Trey Jackson
    Background. I'm working with netlists, and in general, people specify different hierarchies by using /. However, it's not illegal to actually use a / as a part of an instance name. For example, X1/X2/X3/X4 might refer to instance X4 inside another instance named X1/X2/X3. Or it might refer an instance named X3/X4 inside an instance named X2 inside an instance named X1. Got it? There's really no "regular" character that cannot be used as a part of an instance name, so you resort to a non-printable one, or ... perhaps one outside of the standard 0..127 ASCII chars. I thought I'd try (decimal) 166, because for me it shows up as the pipe: ¦. So... I've got some C++ code which constructs the path name using ¦ as the hierarchical separator, so the path above looks like X1¦X2/X3¦X4. Now the GUI is written in Tcl/Tk, and to properly translate this into human readable terms I need to do something like the following: set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 set humanreadable [join [split $path ¦] /] Basically, replace the ¦ with / (I could also accomplish this with [string map]). Now, the problem is, the ¦ in the string I get from C++ doesn't match the ¦ I can create in Tcl. i.e. This fails: set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 string match $path [format X1%cX2/X3%cX4 166 166] Visually, the two strings look identical, but string match fails. I even tried using scan to see if I'd mixed up the bit values. But set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 set path2 [format X1%cX2/X3%cX4 166 166] for {set i 0} {$i < [string length $path]} {incr i} { set p [string range $path $i $i] set p2 [string range $path2 $i $i] scan %c $p c scan %c $p2 c2 puts [list $p $c :::: $p2 $c2 equal? [string equal $c $c2]] } Produces output which looks like everything should match, except the [string equal] fails for the ¦ characters with a print line: ¦ 166 :::: ¦ 166 equal? 0 For what it's worth, the character in C++ is defined as: const char SEPARATOR = 166; Any ideas why a character outside the regular ASCII range would fail like this? When I changed the separator to (decimal) 28 (^\), things worked fine. I just don't want to get bit by a similar problem on a different platform. (I'm currently using Redhat Linux).

    Read the article

  • Emulating Button Press Using Kinect/SimpleOpenNI + Processing Depth

    - by Alex Lu
    I am using Kinect with Simple OpenNI and Processing, and I was trying to use the Z position of a hand to emulate a button press. So far when I try it using one hand it works really well, however, when I try to get it to work with a second hand, only one of the hands work. (I know it can be more efficient by moving everything except the fill out of the if statements, but I kept those in there just in case I want to change the sizes or something.) irz and ilz are the initial Z positions of the hands when they are first recognized by onCreateHands and rz and lz are the current Z positions. As of now, the code works fine with one hand, but the other hand will either stay pressed or unpressed. If i comment one of the sections out, it works fine as well. if (rz - irz > 0) { pushStyle(); fill(60); ellipse(rx, ry, 10, 10); popStyle(); rpressed = true; } else { pushStyle(); noFill(); ellipse(rx, ry, 10, 10); popStyle(); rpressed = false; } if (lz - ilz > 0) { pushStyle(); fill(60); ellipse(lx, ly, 10, 10); popStyle(); lpressed = true; } else { pushStyle(); noFill(); ellipse(lx, ly, 10, 10); popStyle(); lpressed = false; } I tried outputting the values of rz - irz and lz - ilz and the numbers range from small negative values to small positive values (around -8 to 8) for lz - ilz. But rz - irz outputs numbers from around 8-30 depending on each time I run it and is never consistent. Also, when I comment out the code for the lz-ilz, the values for rz-irz look just fine and it operates as intended. Is there a reason tracking both Z positions throws off one hand? And is there a way to get it to work? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • CSS Z-Index with Gradient Background

    - by Jona
    I'm making a small webpage where the I would like the top banner with some text to remain on top, as such: HTML: <div id = "topBanner"> <h1>Some Text</h1> </div> CSS: #topBanner{ position:fixed; background-color: #CCCCCC; width: 100%; height:200px; top:0; left:0; z-index:900; background: -moz-linear-gradient(top, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%, rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%, rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%, rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* FF3.6+ */ background: -webkit-gradient(linear, left top, left bottom, color-stop(0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.65)), color-stop(32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44)), color-stop(82%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12)), color-stop(100%,rgba(204,204,204,0))); /* Chrome,Safari4+ */ background: -webkit-linear-gradient(top, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%,rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* Chrome10+,Safari5.1+ */ background: -o-linear-gradient(top, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%,rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* Opera 11.10+ */ background: -ms-linear-gradient(top, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%,rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* IE10+ */ background: linear-gradient(to bottom, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%,rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* W3C */ filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.gradient( startColorstr='#a6cccccc', endColorstr='#00cccccc',GradientType=0 ); /* IE6-9 */ } /*WebPage Header*/ h1{ font-size:3em; color:blue; text-shadow:#CCCCCC 2px 2px 2px, #000 0 -1px 2px; position: absolute; width: 570px; left:50%; right:50%; line-height:20px; margin-left: -285px; z-index:999; } The z-index works fine, except that because I'm using a gradient any time I scroll down the elements behind the banner are still visible, albeit somewhat transparent. Is there any way to make them total invisible? i.e., what I'm trying to do is make it as though the banner is a solid color, even though it's a gradient. Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • Backtracking infinite loop

    - by Greenhorn
    This is Exercise 28.1.2 from HtDP. I've successfully implemented the neighbors function and all test cases pass. (define Graph (list (list 'A (list 'B 'E)) (list 'B (list 'E 'F)) (list 'C (list 'D)) (list 'D empty) (list 'E (list 'C 'F)) (list 'F (list 'D 'G)) (list 'G empty))) (define (first-line n alist) (cond [(symbol=? (first alist) n) alist] [else empty])) ;; returns empty if node is not in graph (define (neighbors n g) (cond [(empty? g) empty] [(cons? (first g)) (cond [(symbol=? (first (first g)) n) (first-line n (first g))] [else (neighbors n (rest g))])])) ; test cases (equal? (neighbors 'A Graph) (list 'A (list 'B 'E))) (equal? (neighbors 'B Graph) (list 'B (list 'E 'F))) (equal? (neighbors 'C Graph) (list 'C (list 'D))) (equal? (neighbors 'D Graph) (list 'D empty)) (equal? (neighbors 'E Graph) (list 'E (list 'C 'F))) (equal? (neighbors 'F Graph) (list 'F (list 'D 'G))) (equal? (neighbors 'G Graph) (list 'G empty)) (equal? (neighbors 'H Graph) empty) The problem comes when I copy-paste the code from Figure 77 of the text. It is supposed to determine whether a destination node is reachable from an origin node. However it appears that the code goes into an infinite loop except for the most trivial case where the origin and destination nodes are the same. ;; find-route : node node graph -> (listof node) or false ;; to create a path from origination to destination in G ;; if there is no path, the function produces false (define (find-route origination destination G) (cond [(symbol=? origination destination) (list destination)] [else (local ((define possible-route (find-route/list (neighbors origination G) destination G))) (cond [(boolean? possible-route) false] [else (cons origination possible-route)]))])) ;; find-route/list : (listof node) node graph -> (listof node) or false ;; to create a path from some node on lo-Os to D ;; if there is no path, the function produces false (define (find-route/list lo-Os D G) (cond [(empty? lo-Os) false] [else (local ((define possible-route (find-route (first lo-Os) D G))) (cond [(boolean? possible-route) (find-route/list (rest lo-Os) D G)] [else possible-route]))])) Does the problem lie in my code? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Is there a recommended approach to handle saving data in response to within-site navigation without

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello all, Preamble to scope my question: I have a web app (or site, this is an internal LAN site) that uses jQuery and AJAX extensively to dynamically load the content section of the UI in the browser. A user navigates the app using a navigation menu. Clicking an item in the navigation menu makes an AJAX call to php, and php then returns the content that is used to populate the central content section. One of the pages served back by php has a table form, set up like a spreadsheet, that the user enters values into. This table is always kept in sync with data in the database. So, when the table is created, is it populated with the relevant database data. Then when the user makes a change in a "cell", that change immediately is written back to the database so the table and database are always in sync. This approach was take to reassure users that the data they entered has been saved (long story...), and to alleviate them from having to click a save button of some kind. So, this always in sync idea is great, except that a user can enter a value in a cell, not take focus out of the cell, and then take any number of actions that would cause that last value to be lost: e.g. navigate to another section of the site via the navigation menu, log out of the app, close the browser, etc. End of preamble, on to the issue: I initially thought that wasn't a problem, because I would just track what data was "dirty" or not saved, and then in the onunload event I would do a final write to the database. Herein lies the rub: because of my clever (or not so clever, not sure) use of AJAX and dynamically loading the content section, the user never actually leaves the original url, or page, when the above actions are taken, with the exception of closing the browser. Therefore, the onunload event does not fire, and I am back to losing the last data again. My question, is there a recommended way to handle figuring out if a person is navigating away from a "section" of your app when content is dynamically loaded this way? I can come up with a solution I think, that involves globals and tracking the currently viewed page, but I thought I would check if there might be a more elegant solution out there, or a change I could make in my design, that would make this work. Thanks in advance as always!

    Read the article

  • How to perform add/update of a model object that contains EntitySet

    - by David Liddle
    I have a similar concept to the SO questions/tags scenario however am trying to decide the best way of implementation. Tables Questions, QuestionTags and Tags Questions QuestionTags Tags --------- ------------ ---- QID QID TID QName TID TName When adding/updating a question I have 2 textboxes. The important part is a single textbox that allows users to enter in multiple Tags separated by spaces. I am using Linq2Sql so the Questions model has an EntitySet of QuestionTags with then link to Tags. My question is regarding the adding/updating of Questions (part 1), and also how to best show QuestionTags for a Question (part 2). Part 1 Before performing an add/update, my service layer needs to deal with 3 scenarios before passing to their respective repositories. Insert Tags that do not already exist Insert/Update Question Insert QuestionTags - when updating need to remove existing QuestionTags Here is my code below however started to get into a bit of a muddle. I've created extension methods on my repositories to get Tags WithNames etc. public void Add(Question q, string tags) { var tagList = tags.Split(new string[] { " " }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries).ToList(); using (DB.TransactionScope ts = new DB.TransactionScope()) { var existingTags = TagsRepository.Get() .WithName(tagList) .ToList(); var newTags = (from t in tagList select new Tag { TName = t }).Except(existingTags, new TagsComparer()).ToList(); TagsRepository.Add(newTags); //need to insert QuestionTags QuestionsRepository.Add(q); ts.Complete(); } } Part 2 My second question is, when displaying a list of Questions how is it best to show their QuestionTags? For example, I have an Index view that shows a list of Questions in a table. One of the columns shows an image and when the user hovers over it shows the list of Tags. My current implementation is to create a custom ViewModel and show a List of QuestionIndexViewModel in the View. QuestionIndexViewModel { Question Question { get; set; } string Tags { get; set; } } However, this seems a bit clumsy and quite a few DB calls. public ViewResult Index() { var model= new List<QuestionIndexViewModel>(); //make a call to get a list of questions //foreach question make a call to get their QuestionTags, //to be able to get their Tag names and then join them //to form a single string. return View(model); } Also, just for test purposes using SQL Profiler, I decided to iterate through the QuestionTags entity set of a Question in my ViewModel however nothing was picked up in Profiler? What would be the reason for this?

    Read the article

  • how to refactor user-permission system?

    - by John
    Sorry for lengthy question. I can't tell if this should be a programming question or a project management question. Any advice will help. I inherited a reasonably large web project (1 year old) from a solo freelancer who architected it then abandoned it. The project was a mess, but I cleaned up what I could, and now the system is more maintainable. I need suggestions on how to extend the user-permission system. As it is now, the database has a t_user table with the column t_user.membership_type. Currently, there are 4 membership types with the following properties: 3 of the membership types are almost functionally the same, except for the different monthly fees each must pay 1 of the membership type is a "fake-user" type which has limited access ( different business logic also applies) With regards to the fake-user type, if you look in the system's business logic files, you will see a lot of hard-coded IF statements that do something like if (fake-user) { // do something } else { // a paid member of type 1,2 or 3 // proceed normally } My client asked me to add 3 more membership types to the system, each of them with unique features to be implemented this month, and substantive "to-be-determined" features next month. My first reaction is that I need to refactor the user-permission system. But it concerns me that I don't have enough information on the "to-be-determined" membership type features for next month. Refactoring the user-permission system will take a substantive amount of time. I don't want to refactor something and throw it out the following month. I get substantive feature requests on a monthly basis that come out of the blue. There is no project road map. I've asked my client to provide me with a roadmap of what they intend to do with the new membership types, but their answer is along the lines of "We just want to do [feature here] this month. We'll think of something new next month." So questions that come to mind are: 1) Is it dangerous for me to refactor the user permission system not knowing what membership type features exist beyond a month from now? 2) Should I refactor the user permission system regardless? Or just continue adding IF statements as needed in all my controller files? Or can you recommend a different approach to user permission systems? Maybe role-based ? 3) Should this project have a road map? For a 1 year old project like mine, how far into the future should this roadmap project? 4) Any general advice on the best way to add 3 new membership types?

    Read the article

  • Rails send mail with GMail

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

    Read the article

  • help Implementing Object Oriented ansi-C approach??

    - by No Money
    Hey there, I am an Intermediate programmer in Java and know some of the basics in C++. I recently started to scam over "C language" [please note that i emphasized on C language and want to stick with C as i found it to be a perfect tool, so no need for suggestions focusing on why should i move back to C++ or Java]. Moving on, I code an Object Oriented approach in C but kindda scramble with the pointers part. Please understand that I am just a noob trying to extend my knowledge beyond what i learned in High School. Here is my code..... #include <stdio.h> typedef struct per{ int privateint; char *privateString; struct per (*New) (); void (*deleteperOBJ) (struct t_person *); void (*setperNumber) ((struct*) t_person,int); void (*setperString) ((struct*) t_person,char *); void (*dumpperState) ((struct*) t_person); }t_person; void setperNumber(t_person *const per,int num){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateint=num; } void setperString(t_person *const per,char *string){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateString=string; } void dumpperState(t_person *const per){ if(per==NULL) return; printf("value of private int==%d\n", per->privateint); printf("value of private string==%s\n", per->privateString); } void deleteperOBJ(struct t_person *const per){ free((void*)t_person->per); t_person ->per = NULL; } main(){ t_person *const per = (struct*) malloc(sizeof(t_person)); per = t_person -> struct per -> New(); per -> setperNumber (t_person *per, 123); per -> setperString(t_person *per, "No money"); dumpperState(t_person *per); deleteperOBJ(t_person *per); } Just to warn you, this program has several errors and since I am a beginner I couldn't help except to post this thread as a question. I am looking forward for assistance. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • approximating log10[x^k0 + k1]

    - by Yale Zhang
    Greetings. I'm trying to approximate the function Log10[x^k0 + k1], where .21 < k0 < 21, 0 < k1 < ~2000, and x is integer < 2^14. k0 & k1 are constant. For practical purposes, you can assume k0 = 2.12, k1 = 2660. The desired accuracy is 5*10^-4 relative error. This function is virtually identical to Log[x], except near 0, where it differs a lot. I already have came up with a SIMD implementation that is ~1.15x faster than a simple lookup table, but would like to improve it if possible, which I think is very hard due to lack of efficient instructions. My SIMD implementation uses 16bit fixed point arithmetic to evaluate a 3rd degree polynomial (I use least squares fit). The polynomial uses different coefficients for different input ranges. There are 8 ranges, and range i spans (64)2^i to (64)2^(i + 1). The rational behind this is the derivatives of Log[x] drop rapidly with x, meaning a polynomial will fit it more accurately since polynomials are an exact fit for functions that have a derivative of 0 beyond a certain order. SIMD table lookups are done very efficiently with a single _mm_shuffle_epi8(). I use SSE's float to int conversion to get the exponent and significand used for the fixed point approximation. I also software pipelined the loop to get ~1.25x speedup, so further code optimizations are probably unlikely. What I'm asking is if there's a more efficient approximation at a higher level? For example: Can this function be decomposed into functions with a limited domain like log2((2^x) * significand) = x + log2(significand) hence eliminating the need to deal with different ranges (table lookups). The main problem I think is adding the k1 term kills all those nice log properties that we know and love, making it not possible. Or is it? Iterative method? don't think so because the Newton method for log[x] is already a complicated expression Exploiting locality of neighboring pixels? - if the range of the 8 inputs fall in the same approximation range, then I can look up a single coefficient, instead of looking up separate coefficients for each element. Thus, I can use this as a fast common case, and use a slower, general code path when it isn't. But for my data, the range needs to be ~2000 before this property hold 70% of the time, which doesn't seem to make this method competitive. Please, give me some opinion, especially if you're an applied mathematician, even if you say it can't be done. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

    - by Joe
    I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

    Read the article

  • what to do with a flawed C++ skills test

    - by Mike Landis
    In the following gcc.gnu.org post, Nathan Myers says that a C++ skills test at SANS Consulting Services contained three errors in nine questions: Looking around, one of fthe first on-line C++ skills tests I ran across was: http://www.geekinterview.com/question_details/13090 I looked at question 1... find(int x,int y) { return ((x<y)?0:(x-y)):} call find(a,find(a,b)) use to find (a) maximum of a,b (b) minimum of a,b (c) positive difference of a,b (d) sum of a,b ... immediately wondering why would anyone write anything so obtuse. Getting past the absurdity, I didn't really like any of the answers, immediately eliminating (a) and (b) because you can get back zero (which is neither a nor b) in a variety of circumstances. Sum or difference seemed more likely, except that you could also get zero regardless of the magnitudes of a and b. So... I put Matlab to work (code below) and found: when either a or b is negative you get zero; when b a you get a; otherwise you get b, so the answer is (b) min(a,b), if a and b are positive, though strictly speaking the answer should be none of the above because there are no range restrictions on either variable. That forces test takers into a dilemma - choose the best available answer and be wrong in 3 of 4 quadrants, or don't answer, leaving the door open to the conclusion that the grader thinks you couldn't figure it out. The solution for test givers is to fix the test, but in the interim, what's the right course of action for test takers? Complain about the questions? function z = findfunc(x,y) for i=1:length(x) if x(i) < y(i) z(i) = 0; else z(i) = x(i) - y(i); end end end function [b,d1,z] = plotstuff() k = 50; a = [-k:1:k]; b = (2*k+1) * rand(length(a),1) - k; d1 = findfunc(a,b); z = findfunc(a,d1); plot( a, b, 'r.', a, d1, 'g-', a, z, 'b-'); end

    Read the article

  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

    Read the article

  • What to Expect in Rails 4

    - by mikhailov
    Rails 4 is nearly there, we should be ready before it released. Most developers are trying hard to keep their application on the edge. Must see resources: 1) @sikachu talk: What to Expect in Rails 4.0 - YouTube 2) Rails Guides release notes: http://edgeguides.rubyonrails.org/4_0_release_notes.html There is a mix of all major changes down here: ActionMailer changes excerpt: Asynchronously send messages via the Rails Raise an ActionView::MissingTemplate exception when no implicit template could be found ActionPack changes excerpt Added controller-level etag additions that will be part of the action etag computation Add automatic template digests to all CacheHelper#cache calls (originally spiked in the cache_digests plugin) Add Routing Concerns to declare common routes that can be reused inside others resources and routes Added ActionController::Live. Mix it in to your controller and you can stream data to the client live truncate now always returns an escaped HTML-safe string. The option :escape can be used as false to not escape the result Added ActionDispatch::SSL middleware that when included force all the requests to be under HTTPS protocol ActiveModel changes excerpt AM::Validation#validates ability to pass custom exception to :strict option Changed `AM::Serializers::JSON.include_root_in_json' default value to false. Now, AM Serializers and AR objects have the same default behaviour Added ActiveModel::Model, a mixin to make Ruby objects work with AP out of box Trim down Active Model API by removing valid? and errors.full_messages ActiveRecord changes excerpt Use native mysqldump command instead of structure_dump method when dumping the database structure to a sql file. Attribute predicate methods, such as article.title?, will now raise ActiveModel::MissingAttributeError if the attribute being queried for truthiness was not read from the database, instead of just returning false ActiveRecord::SessionStore has been extracted from Active Record as activerecord-session_store gem. Please read the README.md file on the gem for the usage Fix reset_counters when there are multiple belongs_to association with the same foreign key and one of them have a counter cache Raise ArgumentError if list of attributes to change is empty in update_all Add Relation#load. This method explicitly loads the records and then returns self Deprecated most of the 'dynamic finder' methods. All dynamic methods except for find_by_... and find_by_...! are deprecated Added ability to ActiveRecord::Relation#from to accept other ActiveRecord::Relation objects Remove IdentityMap ActiveSupport changes excerpt ERB::Util.html_escape now escapes single quotes ActiveSupport::Callbacks: deprecate monkey patch of object callbacks Replace deprecated memcache-client gem with dalli in ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore Object#try will now return nil instead of raise a NoMethodError if the receiving object does not implement the method, but you can still get the old behavior by using the new Object#try! Object#try can't call private methods Add ActiveSupport::Deprecations.behavior = :silence to completely ignore Rails runtime deprecations What are the most important changes for you?

    Read the article

  • java web application best practices

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291  | Next Page >