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  • GoDaddy Subdomain Hosting Issue/Question with Disk Access (C#/ASP.NET 3.5)

    - by Vogel
    This isn't a very complicated scenario really, but as I start to type out the problem I'm realizing how convoluted it can become textually. Let me try and be very clear: First, the set up... I have a C#/ASP.NET web application that is publicly facing on my main domain (www), let's call it www.mysite.com. Nothing fancy, just a front-end that connects to SQL to display records. Then, I have a second C#/ASP.NET web application that is secured using forms authentication running on a subdomain, let's call it admin.mysite.com. This is a very light-weight CMS system to administer the public site. Now, the problem... Both of these sites run fine for basic tasks, however, my problem arises when I try to gain access to the file system for uploading. GoDaddy requires subdomains to run as a virtual directories under the main application in IIS (so the subdomains actually resolve/re-direct to www.mysite.com/admin when you type in admin.mysite.com), but because of this I am unable to write to my website root from the subfolder. Let me explain a little more... The CMS system (running as a virtual directory) gives the admin the ability to upload photos for display on the main site, the target folder of which is www.mysite.com/images - when attempting disk access from the root app, I am able to write to the virtual directory, but cannot do the opposite -- that is, write to the root from the virtual directory, getting security violations. If I can only upload to the /admin/ virtual directory, the entire point is moot because it's a secured folder that the public can't see! The only solution I can think of is to upload the files to the /admin/ virtual directory, then call a URL in the root that moves files from /admin/ back to the root, but that is entirely ghetto. I hope this post makes sense. Anyone else experience anything like this? The bottom line is that it seems virtual directories ONLY have access to themselves, and not their parent directories, no matter what credentials are used. Thanks!

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  • Problems in getting data from CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost

    - by gkedmi
    Hi I'm building an iPhoe app with a socket to a PC app , I need to get an image from this PC app. It's my first time using "CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost".After I establish the socket with "NSOperation" I call CFStreamClientContext streamContext = {0, self, NULL, NULL, NULL}; BOOL success = CFReadStreamSetClient(myReadStream, kMyNetworkEvents,MyStreamCallBack,&streamContext); CFReadStreamScheduleWithRunLoop(myReadStream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); then I call CFWriteStreamWrite(myWriteStream, &writeBuffer, 3); // Open read stream. if (!CFReadStreamOpen(myReadStream)) { // Notify error } . . . while(!cancelled && !finished) { SInt32 result = CFRunLoopRunInMode(kCFRunLoopDefaultMode, 0.25, NO); if (result == kCFRunLoopRunStopped || result == kCFRunLoopRunFinished) { break; } if (([NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate] - _lastRead) MyConnectionTimeout) { // Call timed out cancelled = YES; break; } // Also handle stream status CFStreamStatus status = CFReadStreamGetStatus(myReadStream); } and then when I get "kCFStreamEventHasBytesAvailable" I use while (CFReadStreamHasBytesAvailable(myReadStream)) { CFReadStreamRead(myReadStream, readBuffer, 1000); //and buffer the the bytes } It's unpredictable , sometimes I get the whole picture , sometime I got just part of it , and I can't understand what make the different. can someone has an idea what is wrong here? thanks

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  • Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

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  • Capturing time intervals when somebody was online? How would you impement this feature?

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Our aim is to build timelines saying about periods of time when user was online. (It really doesn't matter what user we are talking about and where he was online) To get information about onliners we can call API method, someservice.com/api/?call=whoIsOnline whoIsOnline method will give us a list of users currently online. But there is no API method to get information about who IS NOT online. So, we should build our timelines using information we got from whoIsOnline. Of course there will be a measurement error (we can't track information in realtime). Let's suppose that we will call whoIsOnline method every 2 minutes (yes, we will run our script by cron every 2 minutes). For example, calling whoIsOnline at 08:00 will return Peter_id Michal_id Andy_id calling whoIsOnline at 08:02 will return Michael_id Andy_id George_id As you can see, Peter has gone offline, but we have new onliner - George. Available instruments are Db(MySQL) / text files / key-value storage (Redis/memcache); feel free to choose any of them (or even all of them). So, we have to get information like this George_id was online... 12 May: 08:02-08:30, 12:40-12:46, 20:14-22:36 11 May: 09:10-12:30, 21:45-23:00 10 May: was not online And now question... How would you store information to implement such timelines? How would you query/calculate information about periods of time when user was online? Additional information.. You cannot update information about offline users, only users who are "currently" online. Solution should be flexible: timeline information could be represented relating to any timezone. We should keep information only for last 7 days. Every user seen online is automatically getting his own identifier in our database. Uff.. it was really hard for me to write it because my English is pretty bad, but I hope my question will be clear for you. Thank you.

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  • jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

    - by ILMV
    So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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  • Writing language converter in ANTLR

    - by Stefan
    I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

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  • Missing elements of collection

    - by Neir0
    I have a collection ObservableCollection<string> outoverList And i have a function which call collection outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); Function call collection a few times, but sometimes collection lost elements. We call a function - function adds element - collection has 9 elements(for example) - in the next function calling collection has only 8 elements. One elements be missing. Here Resharpers Find usages log: Search target FindElementHandler.outoverList:ObservableCollection<string> Found 3 usages in solution <FindElementExperiments> (3 items) FindElementHandler.cs (3 items) (50,13) outoverList = new ObservableCollection<string>(); (94,13) outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); (118,13) outoverList.Add("over:" + element.tagName); As you can see i just add elements to collection everywhere. i havent remove elements code. Maybe i did something wrong you can look at screen capture: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ei6dQnHCMIc I am newbie and often encounter with various problems but this bug looks mystic for me. P/S/ Sorry for english

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  • Why is OpenSubKey() returning null on my Win 7 64 bit system?

    - by BrMcMullin
    Has anyone seen OpenSubKey() and other Microsoft.Win32 registry functions return null on 64 bit systems when 32 bit registry keys are under Wow6432node in the registry? I'm working on a unit testing framework that makes a call to OpenSubKey() from the .net library. My dev system is a Win 7 64 bit environment with VS 2008 SP1 and the Win 7 SDK installed. The application we're unit testing is a 32 bit application, so the registry is virtualized under HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. When we call: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); Null is returned, however explicitly stating to look here works: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\Wow6432node\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); From what I understand this function should be agnostic to 32 bit or 64 bit environments and should know to jump to the virtual node. Even stranger is the fact that the exact same call inside a compiled and installed version of our application is running just fine on the same system and is getting the registry keys necessary to run; which are also being placed in HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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  • Calling Java classes from IzPack

    - by bguiz
    I am trying to write an IzPack installer which is able to detect a previously installed version of the application. After finding out that it doesn't really support this feature, I think the only way to do this is through writing a Java class and calling it from IzPack. Tim Williscroft has previously suggested this method: <condition type="java" id="jbossEnv"> <java> <class>au.com.codarra.ela.installer.JBossChecker</class <field>hasJBossEnv</field> </java> <returnvalue type="boolean">true</returnvalue> </condition> However, is it possible to call <java> from somewhere other than a <condition> tag? I want to be able to call it from a <variable> tag. Also, is it possible to call a method from a Java class instead of reading a value of a field? I want to be able to pass parameters to my class. Thank you!

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  • Rails named_scope across multiple tables

    - by wakiki
    I'm trying to tidy up my code by using named_scopes in Rails 2.3.x but where I'm struggling with the has_many :through associations. I'm wondering if I'm putting the scopes in the wrong place... Here's some pseudo code below. The problem is that the :accepted named scope is replicated twice... I could of course call :accepted something different but these are the statuses on the table and it seems wrong to call them something different. Can anyone shed light on whether I'm doing the following correctly or not? I know Rails 3 is out but it's still in beta and it's a big project I'm doing so I can't use it in production yet. class Person < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :connections has_many :contacts, :through => :connections named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["connections.status = ?", Connection::ACCEPTED] # the :accepted named_scope is duplicated named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["memberships.status = ?", Membership::ACCEPTED] end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :members, :through => :memberships end class Connection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :contact, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "contact_id" end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :group end I'm trying to run something like person.contacts.accepted and group.members.accepted which are two different things. Shouldn't the named_scopes be in the Membership and Connection classes? One solution is to just call the two different named scope something different in the Person class or even to create separate associations (ie. has_many :accepted_members and has_many :accepted_contacts) but it seems hackish and in reality I have many more than just accepted (ie. banned members, ignored connections, pending, requested etc etc)

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  • Can I get a reference to a pending transaction from a SqlConnection object?

    - by Rune
    Hey, Suppose someone (other than me) writes the following code and compiles it into an assembly: using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connString)) { conn.Open(); using (var transaction = conn.BeginTransaction()) { /* Update something in the database */ /* Then call any registered OnUpdate handlers */ InvokeOnUpdate(conn); transaction.Commit(); } } The call to InvokeOnUpdate(IDbConnection conn) calls out to an event handler that I can implement and register. Thus, in this handler I will have a reference to the IDbConnection object, but I won't have a reference to the pending transaction. Is there any way in which I can get a hold of the transaction? In my OnUpdate handler I want to execute something similar to the following: private void MyOnUpdateHandler(IDbConnection conn) { var cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = someSQLString; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } However, the call to cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() throws an InvalidOperationException complaining that "ExecuteNonQuery requires the command to have a transaction when the connection assigned to the command is in a pending local transaction. The Transaction property of the command has not been initialized". Can I in any way enlist my SqlCommand cmd with the pending transaction? Can I retrieve a reference to the pending transaction from the IDbConnection object (I'd be happy to use reflection if necessary)?

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  • How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

    - by Christian Hausknecht
    I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

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  • multiple redirect??

    - by Ryan Pitts
    Ok, i won't go into the full details (too much to explain) but here is what i am trying to do. I have a button on a webpage (we'll call page-1) that links to a page (we'll call it page-2). This page opens in the same window. However, i need the page (page-2) that opens to open up a new window with another page (we'll call this one page-3) when it loads. So virtually when you click the initial button (on page-1) it will go to a new page (page-2) AND a window will open as well with a different page (page-3). This is where it gets tricky. I need page-2 to automatically redirect back to page-1 after it launches page-3. Is this possible and if so, how?? Could it be a JQuery thing? Please just give some answers...i know this is way crazy and a huge workaround - but this is my last resort for this particular website. I have to do it this way because of the lack of control over some of the code.

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  • Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

    - by user30997
    I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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  • Odd DOM Problem with Firefox

    - by Bob
    Hello. I'm experiencing an odd problem when trying to navigate through a table's rows and cells in a while loop using javascript. I'm using Firefox 3.5.7 on Win7 with Firebug enabled. I have this markup: <table> <tbody> <tr id='firstRow'><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> </tbody> </table> And this javascript: var row = document.getElementById('firstRow'); console.log(row); // Row call 1 while (row) { console.log(row); // Row call 2 row = row.nextSibling; } The problem I'm having is that on the line commented "Row call 1", Firebug is outputting <tr id='firstRow'> as expected. However, in the while loop, Firebug is giving me <tr id='firstRow'> <TextNode textContent="\n"> It is giving me different output for the exact same row, even immediately after the while loop begins executing and nothing else touched the row. For subsequent rows, it of course does not have id='firstRow' as an attribute. The bigger problem this is giving me is that if I'm in the while loop, and I want to access a particular cell of the current row using row.cells[0], Firebug will give me an error that row.cells is undefined. I want to know if someone could shed some light on this situation I am experiencing.

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  • Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

    - by Noah Goodrich
    I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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  • How to set UCS2 in numpy?

    - by mindcorrosive
    I'm trying to build numpy 1.2.1 as a module for a third-party python interpreter (custom-built, py2.4 linux x86_64) so that I can make calls to numpy from within it. Let's call this one interpreter A. The thing is, the system-wide python interpreter (also py2.4, let's call it B) from the vendor is built with --enable-unicode=ucs4, while the custom one is with UCS2. Needless to say, when I try to build a module with B, I get an error when I try to import numpy in A -- it complains about undefined symbol _PyUnicodeUCS4_IsWhiteSpace. I've searched around and apparently there's no way around this but to compile a custom Python interpreter -- which I did (let's call it interpreter C), properly specifying the unicode string length (verifiable through sys.maxunicode). I managed to build numpy with C as well, surprisingly enough, but still the problem persists when I try to import it in interpreter C. Previously, when I built numpy using B, there were no problems when importing it in B, but A would complain. Perhaps there's an option when building numpy to specify the length of Unicode strings to be used, as when configuring Python builds? Or am I doing something else wrong? A few notes: Upgrading to newer versions of python and/or numpy is not an option - interpreter A will stay on this version of the grammar for the foreseeable future. Also, it is not possible to start the interpreter A in standalone mode to build numpy with it, as it needs some other libraries preloaded I know that this whole thing is a mess, but I'd appreciate any help I can get to make this work. If you need more information, please let me know, I'd be happy to oblige. Thanks to everybody for their time in advance.

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  • RFC: Whitespace's Assembly Mnemonics

    - by Noctis Skytower
    Request For Comment regarding Whitespace's Assembly Mnemonics What follows in a first generation attempt at creating mnemonics for a whitespace assembly language. STACK ===== push number copy copy number swap away away number MATH ==== add sub mul div mod HEAP ==== set get FLOW ==== part label call label goto label zero label less label back exit I/O === ochr oint ichr iint In the interest of making improvements to this small and simple instruction set, this is a second attempt. hold N Push the number onto the stack copy Duplicate the top item on the stack copy N Copy the nth item on the stack (given by the argument) onto the top of the stack swap Swap the top two items on the stack drop Discard the top item on the stack drop N Slide n items off the stack, keeping the top item add Addition sub Subtraction mul Multiplication div Integer Division mod Modulo save Store load Retrieve L: Mark a location in the program call L Call a subroutine goto L Jump unconditionally to a label if=0 L Jump to a label if the top of the stack is zero if<0 L Jump to a label if the top of the stack is negative return End a subroutine and transfer control back to the caller exit End the program print chr Output the character at the top of the stack print int Output the number at the top of the stack input chr Read a character and place it in the location given by the top of the stack input int Read a number and place it in the location given by the top of the stack What is the general consensus on the following revised list for Whitespace's assembly instructions? They definitely come from thinking outside of the box and trying to come up with a better mnemonic set than last time. When the previous python interpreter was written, it was completed over two contiguous, rushed evenings. This rewrite deserves significantly more time now that it is the summer. Of course, the next version of Whitespace (0.4) may have its instructions revised even more, but this is just a redesign of what originally was done in a few hours. Hopefully, the instructions make more sense to those new to programming jargon.

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  • Rhino Mocks and ordered test with unordered calls

    - by Shaddix
    I'm using Rhino.Mocks for testing the system. I'm going to check the order of calling .LoadConfig and .Backup methods. I need .LoadConfig to be the first. Currently the code is like this: var module1 = mocks.Stub<IBackupModule>(); var module2 = mocks.Stub<IBackupModule>(); module1.Expect(x => x.Name).Return("test"); module2.Expect(x => x.Name).Return("test2"); using (mocks.Ordered()) { module1.Expect(x => x.LoadConfig(null)); module2.Expect(x => x.LoadConfig(null)); module1.Expect(x => x.Backup()); module2.Expect(x => x.Backup()); } mocks.ReplayAll(); The problem is, that there's also a call to .Name property, and i'm not interesting when it'll be called: before .LoadConfig or after the .Backup - it just doesn't matter. And when I run this I'm getting Exception: Unordered method call! The expected call is: 'Ordered: { IConfigLoader.LoadConfig(null); }' but was: 'IIdentification.get_Name();' Is there a way to deal with this? Thanks

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  • Count rows against to SQL server (2005) table?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I have a simple question with two options to get count of rows in a SQL server (2005). I am using VS 2005. There are two options to get the count: SELECT id FROM Table1 WHERE dt >= startDt AND dt < endDt;; I get a list of ids from above call in cache and then I get count by List.Count. Another option is SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Table1 WHERE dt >= startDt AND dt < endDt; The above call will get the count directly. The issue is that I had several cases of exceptions with the second method: timeout. What I found is that the table1 is too big with millions of data. When I used the first option, it seems OK. I am confused by the fact that Count() takes more time than getting all the rows(is that true?). Not sure if the aggregation call with Count() would cause SQL server to create temporary table or cache on server side and it would result in slow performance when table is too big? I am not sure what is the best way to get the count?

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  • HttpWebRequest.BeginGetResponse() does not return the second time

    - by evilfred
    Hi, I make one HttpWebRequest and call GetResponse() on it to get a synchronous response. Then after processing that response, I make a new HttpWebRequest and call BeginGetResponse() on it. Since BeginGetResponse() is an asynchronous call I expect it to return right away, but it doesn't! Why not? Here is some stripped down sample code: HttpWebRequest request = RequestFactory.MakeSessionCreationRequest(); try { // Get the response from the server. using (WebResponse response = request.GetResponse()) { using (Stream responseStream = response.GetResponseStream()) { ; // Get the response. } } ; // Process the response. } catch (WebException e) { Logger("Caught WebException when attempting to connect: " + e); return; } // Make the second, asynchronous request. HttpWebRequest msgRequest = RequestFactory.MakeMessageRequest(); IAsyncResult result = msgRequest.BeginGetResponse( new AsyncCallback(HandleResponse), msgRequest); // PROBLEM: This line is never reached!!! Logger("Message send started");

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  • Problems with "global" exception handlers for unhandled exceptions in multithreaded WPF

    - by JustABill
    I have a program that, among other things, needs to be able to refresh the contents of a directory when the user tells it to. The actual task doesn't really matter, but this is the simplest way of causing this problem to occur that I know of. If I tell it to open a directory that doesn't exist, I get the "unhandled exception" dialog in VS with a stack trace of, from outer to inner: [External code] Textbox PreviewKeyUp event [External code] ClassA's path property being set ClassA's internal path update function being called A call to the INotifyPropertyChanged event [External code] A call to the getter for ClassB's list of children A call to ClassB's internal directory list function And then it fails inside this internal function. I have the following in my App.xaml.cs: private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); Application.Current.Dispatcher.UnhandledException += new System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherUnhandledExceptionEventHandler(Dispatcher_UnhandledException); } But neither of their exception handlers are being called. If I run this program from outside VS, I don't get notified of an exception at all, it just breaks because of the invalid input. And yes, the Application_Startup event is being called. How can I properly "trap" this exception so I can provide a friendly error message and kill the program?

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  • i386 assembly question: why do I need to meddle with the stack pointer?

    - by zneak
    Hello everyone, I decided it would be fun to learn x86 assembly during the summer break. So I started with a very simple hello world program, borrowing on free examples gcc -S could give me. I ended up with this: HELLO: .ascii "Hello, world!\12\0" .text .globl _main _main: pushl %ebp # 1. puts the base stack address on the stack movl %esp, %ebp # 2. puts the base stack address in the stack address register subl $20, %esp # 3. ??? pushl $HELLO # 4. push HELLO's address on the stack call _puts # 5. call puts xorl %eax, %eax # 6. zero %eax, probably not necessary since we didn't do anything with it leave # 7. clean up ret # 8. return # PROFIT! It compiles and even works! And I think I understand most of it. Though, magic happens at step 3. Would I remove this line, my program would die between the call to puts and the xor from a misaligned stack error. And would I change $20 to another value, it'd crash too. So I came to the conclusion that this value is very important. Problem is, I don't know what it does and why it's needed. Can anyone explain me? (I'm on Mac OS, would it ever matter.)

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  • vb.net documentation and exception question

    - by dcp
    Let's say I have this sub in vb.net: ''' <summary> ''' Validates that <paramref name="value"/> is not <c>null</c>. ''' </summary> ''' ''' <param name="value">The object to validate.</param> ''' ''' <param name="name">The variable name of the object.</param> ''' ''' <exception cref="ArgumentNullException">If <paramref name="value"/> is <c>null</c>.</exception> Sub ValidateNotNull(ByVal value As Object, ByVal name As String) If value Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException(name, String.Format("{0} cannot be null.", name)) End If End Sub My question is, is it proper to call this ValidateNotNull (which is what I would call it in C#) or should I stick with VB terminology and call it ValidateNotNothing instead? Also, in my exception, is it proper to say "cannot be null", or would it be better to say "cannot be Nothing"? I sort of like the way I have it, but since this is VB, maybe I should use Nothing. But since the exception itself is called ArgumentNullException, it feels weird to make the message say "cannot be Nothing". Anyway, I guess it's pretty nitkpicky, just wondered what you folks thought.

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