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• Nonetype object has no attribute '__getitem__'

  - by adohertyd

  I am trying to use an API wrapper downloaded from the net to get results from the new azure Bing API. I'm trying to implement it as per the instructions but getting the runtime error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "bingwrapper.py", line 4, in <module> bingsearch.request("affirmative action") File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/bingsearch-0.1-py2.7.egg/bingsearch.py", line 8, in request return r.json['d']['results'] TypeError: 'NoneType' object has no attribute '__getitem__' This is the wrapper code: import requests URL = 'https://api.datamarket.azure.com/Data.ashx/Bing/SearchWeb/Web?Query=%(query)s&$top=50&$format=json' API_KEY = 'SECRET_API_KEY' def request(query, **params): r = requests.get(URL % {'query': query}, auth=('', API_KEY)) return r.json['d']['results'] The instructions are: >>> import bingsearch >>> bingsearch.API_KEY='Your-Api-Key-Here' >>> r = bingsearch.request("Python Software Foundation") >>> r.status_code 200 >>> r[0]['Description'] u'Python Software Foundation Home Page. The mission of the Python Software Foundation is to promote, protect, and advance the Python programming language, and to ...' >>> r[0]['Url'] u'http://www.python.org/psf/ This is my code that uses the wrapper (as per the instructions): import bingsearch bingsearch.API_KEY='abcdefghijklmnopqrstuv' r = bingsearch.request("affirmative+action")

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• How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

  - by kylemac

  Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

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• Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

  - by neezer

  I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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• jquery .submit live click runs more than once

  - by fxuser

  I use the following code to run my form ajax requests but when i use the live selector on a button i can see the ajax response fire 1 time, then if i re-try it 2 times, 3 times, 4 times and so on... I use .live because i also have a feature to add a post and that appears instantly so the user can remove it without refreshing the page... Then this leads to the above problem... using .click could solve this but it's not the ideal solution i'm looking for... jQuery.fn.postAjax = function(success_callback, show_confirm) { this.submit(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); if (show_confirm == true) { if (confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this item? You can\'t undo this.')) { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } } else { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } return false; }) return this; }; $(document).ready(function() { $(".delete_button").live('click', function() { $(this).parent().postAjax(function(data) { if (data.error == true) { } else { } }, true); }); });? EDIT: temporary solution is to change this.submit(function(e) { to this.unbind('submit').bind('submit',function(e) { the problem is how can i protect it for real because people who know how to use Firebug or the same tool on other browsers can easily alter my Javascript code and re-create the problem

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• Why would some $_POST variables go missing for a form with PHP?

  - by Chad Johnson

  Sometimes, multiple times a day in fact, users of my web application are submitting a certain form which has about a dozen form fields, half of which are hidden fields, and half of the $_POST data is simply not present in the processing script. Note that the fields that are not present are at the very bottom of the form. I know this because this raises a fatal error, and an email is dispatched to me which includes the post data. And of course, neither I nor any of the developers on my team can reproduce the problem. Flash is involved in the process, as I'm using a library called Uploadify to display a progress meter. Here is the flow...does anyone have ANY ideas at all why some of the post data would be getting wiped out? User visits edit screen for a page in the CMS I am using. Record id for the page is put into a form as a hidden value. User clicks the Uploadify browse button and selects a file (only single file selection is allowed). User clicks Submit button for my form. jQuery intercepts the form submit action, triggers Uploadify to start uploading, and returns false for the submit action (manually cancelling the form submit event so that Uploadify can take over). Uploadify uploads to a custom process script. Uploadify finishes uploading and triggers the Javascript completion callback. The Javascript callback calls $('#myForm').submit() to submit the form. This happens on multiple browsers (Firefox 3.5, 3.6, Safari, Internet Explorer 7, 8) and multiple platforms (Mac OS 10.5, 10.6 and Windows XP, 7).

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• Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

  - by Dmitry

  Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

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• NSUndoManager with Core Data - Redo not working

  - by CJ

  I have a Core Data document-based app which support undo/redo via the built-in NSUndoManager associated with the NSManagedObjectContext. I have a few actions set up which perform numerous tasks within Core Data, wrap all these tasks into an undo group via beginUndoGrouping/endUndoGrouping, and are processed by the NSUndoManager. Undo works fine. I can perform several successive actions, and each then undo each one of them successively and my app's state is maintained correctly. However, the "Redo" menu item is never enabled. This means that the NSUndoManager is telling the menu that there are no items to redo. I am wondering why the NSUndoManager is seemingly forgetting about items once they are undone, and not allowing redos to occur? One thing I should mention is that I'm disabling undo registration after a document is opened/created. When I perform an action, I call enableUndoRegistration, beginUndoGrouping, perform the action, then call processPendingChanges, setActionName:, endUndoGrouping, and finally disableUndoRegistration. This makes sure that only specific actions are undoable, and any other data changes I make outside of these go unnoticed to the NSUndoManager. This may be a part of the issue, but if so I'm wondering why it's affecting redo? Thanks in advance.

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• Associations and the Grails webflow

  - by callie16

  Hi, it's my first time using webflows in Grails and I can't seem to solve this. I have 3 domain classes with associations that look something like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } Now, the GSP communicates with the controller via Javascript (due to my use of Dojo). When I try to remoteFunction a normal action, I can do something like this: def action1 = { def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) def sample = currA.b?.c // I can get all the way to 'c' without any problems ... } However, I have a webflow and the contents of that action is in the webflow... It looks something like this: def someFlow = { ... someState { on("next") { def anId = params.id // this does NOT return a null value def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def sample = currA.b // error already occurs here and I need to get 'c'! }.("somePage") ... } ... } In this case, it tells me that b doesn't exist... so I can't even get to 'c'. Any suggestions on what to do??? Thanks... getting real desperate...

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• Attempted to read or write protected memory

  - by Interfector

  I have a sample ASP.NET MVC 3 web application that is following Jonathan McCracken's Test-Drive Asp.NET MVC (great book , by the way) and I have stumbled upon a problem. Note that I'm using MVCContrib, Rhino and NUnit. [Test] public void ShouldSetLoggedInUserToViewBag() { var todoController = new TodoController(); var builder = new TestControllerBuilder(); builder.InitializeController(todoController); builder.HttpContext.User = new GenericPrincipal(new GenericIdentity("John Doe"), null); Assert.That(todoController.Index().AssertViewRendered().ViewData["UserName"], Is.EqualTo("John Doe")); } The code above always throws this error: System.AccessViolationException : Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. The controller action code is the following: [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { ViewData.Model = Todo.ThingsToBeDone; ViewBag.UserName = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; return View(); } From what I have figured out, the app seems to crash because of the two assignements in the controller action. However, I cannot see how there are wrong!? Can anyone help me pinpoint the solution to this problem. Thank you.

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• Should this even be a has_many :through association?

  - by GoodGets

  A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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• Where to put data management rules for complex data validation in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by TheRHCP

  Hello, I am currently working on an ASP.NET MVC2 project. This is the first time I am working on a real MVC web application. The ASP.NET MVC website really helped me to get started really fast, but I still have some obscure knowledge concerning datamodel validation. My problem is that I do not really know where to manage my filled datamodel when it comes to complex validation rules. For example, validating a string field with a Regex is quite easy and I know that I just have to decorate my field with a specific attribute, so data management rules are implemented in the model. But if I have multiple fields that I need to validate which each other, for example multiple datetime that need to be correctly set following a specific time rule, where do I need to validate them? I know that I could create my own validation attributes, but sometimes validation ask a specific validation path which is to complex to be validated using attributes. This first question also leads me to a related question which is, is it right to validate a model in the controller? Because for the moment that is the only way I found for complex validation. But I find this a bit dirty and I feel it does not really fit a the controller role and much harder to test (multiple code path). Thanks.

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• Questions about the MVC architecture

  - by ah123

  I started coding a considerably complicated web application, and it became quite a mess. So I figured I'd try to organize it in a better way. MVC seemed appropriate. I've never used MVC before, and researching about it I'm trying to consolidate a better perception of it (and my questions obviously reflect what I think I've learned so far). My questions are slightly JavaScript oriented: What object should make "AJAX" requests? The Controller or the Model? (seperation -- should the Model just store/manipulate the data, should it not care/know where the data came from, or should it be the one fetching it?) Should the Model call View functions providing them with data as arguments or should the View query (reference) the Model within itself? (seperation principles in mind, "the View shouldn't care/know where it gets the data from" -- is that correct?) In general, should the View "know" of the Model's existance, and vice-versa? Is the Controller the only thing gluing them together or is that simply incorrect? (I really doubt that statement is generally correct) There's a good chance I'd want to port this into a desktop/mobile application, so I would like to seperate components in a way that will allow me to achieve that task, replacing the current source of the data, HTTP requests, with DB access, and replacing the View. Maybe every approach that I've asked about is still "valid" MVC and it's just up to me to choose. I understand that nothing is set in stone, I'm just trying to have a (better) general idea in my head.

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• Can't catch KEY_VALUE_BASIC_INFORMATION.Name in CmRegisterCallback

  - by alex

  I want to hide in registry name of key value. I write driver, that using CmRegisterCallback. But I can't catch name of key value that I need. When I DbgPrint PKEY_VALUE_BASIC_INFORMATION-Name I get only symbols [ , u . Where is my mistake? Can anybody help me?My RegistryCallback source: NTSTATUS RegistryCallback(PVOID CallbackContext, PVOID Argument1, PVOID Argument2) { PDEVICE_CONTEXT pContext = (PDEVICE_CONTEXT) CallbackContext; REG_NOTIFY_CLASS Action = (REG_NOTIFY_CLASS) Argument1; UNICODE_STRING regKeyNameValueToHide = {0}; try { switch (Action) { case RegNtEnumerateValueKey: { PREG_ENUMERATE_VALUE_KEY_INFORMATION pInfo = (PREG_ENUMERATE_VALUE_KEY_INFORMATION) Argument2; //DbgPrint(pInfo->ValueName->Buffer); RtlInitUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValueToHide,L"alex-56328943333"); if(pInfo->KeyValueInformationClass == KeyValueBasicInformation) { PKEY_VALUE_BASIC_INFORMATION pKeyValueBasicInfirmation = (PKEY_VALUE_BASIC_INFORMATION) pInfo->KeyValueInformation; UNICODE_STRING regKeyNameValue = {0}; RtlInitUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValue,pKeyValueBasicInfirmation->Name); if (RtlEqualUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValue, &regKeyNameValueToHide, 1)) { return STATUS_CALLBACK_BYPASS; } } else if(pInfo->KeyValueInformationClass == KeyValueFullInformation) { PKEY_VALUE_FULL_INFORMATION pKeyValueFullInfirmation = (PKEY_VALUE_FULL_INFORMATION) pInfo->KeyValueInformation; UNICODE_STRING regKeyNameValue = {0}; RtlInitUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValue,pKeyValueFullInfirmation->Name); if (RtlEqualUnicodeString(&regKeyNameValue, &regKeyNameValueToHide, 1)) { return STATUS_CALLBACK_BYPASS; } } break; } default: { return STATUS_SUCCESS break; } } } except (EXCEPTION_EXECUTE_HANDLER) { DbgPrint("Exception in RegistryCallback!!!"); } return STATUS_SUCCESS; }

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• How to get HTTP status code in HTTPService fault handler

  - by Ankur

  I am calling a server method through HTTPService from client side. The server is a RestFul web service and it might respond with one of many HTTP error codes (say, 400 for one error, 404 for another and 409 for yet another). I have been trying to find out the way to determine what was the exact error code sent by the server. I have walked teh entire object tree for the FaultEvent populated in my fault handler, but no where does it tell me the error code. Is this missing functionality in Flex? My code looks like this: The HTTP Service declaration: <mx:HTTPService id="myServerCall" url="myService" method="GET" resultFormat="e4x" result="myServerCallCallBack(event)" fault="faultHandler(event)"> <mx:request> <action>myServerCall</action> <docId>{m_sDocId}</docId> </mx:request> </mx:HTTPService> My fault handler code is like so: private function faultHandler(event : FaultEvent):void { Alert.show(event.statusCode.toString() + " / " + event.fault.message.toString()); }

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• Flash CS5- Problem with "navigateToURL" in web-browswer hosted on MySpace

  - by NervXT

  I made a quick flash document for my friend who posted it his MySpace. The document has 3 buttons, each with a URL attached to them. When I play the SWF file locally, the links work fine, however once it's published to MySpace, the links refuse to work. The hand icon comes up so it understands them at least as buttons, but it seems to do nothing when clicked in the web-browser. Also, I can open the SWF in my browser and it also works fine. I'm using Flash CS5 and working in ActionScript 3.0. The three buttons are on one layer called "Buttons". I right click the button and click "Actions". From there, I click the "Code Snippets" and under the folder "Actions" there is an item called "Click to Go To Webpage". Here is the code it gives you by default: button_2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fl_ClickToGoToWebPage_6); function fl_ClickToGoToWebPage_6(event:MouseEvent):void { navigateToURL(new URLRequest("http://www.adobe.com"), "_blank"); } I heard there was a problem with MySpace not allowing action scripts, but after checking the source code of the web-page, the values in the "param" code seem to "always" allow action scripts. At any point, I'm lost and not sure what it causing this. I don't think it's a browser issue, since it's working fine when I execute the SWF by itself, and when I load it into Firefox. It's just seems MySpace is having a problem with it. Any advice is appreciated.

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• MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

  - by Tim Geerts

  Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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• @Autowire strange problem

  - by Javi

  Hello, I have a strange behaviour when autowiring I have a similar code like this one, and it works @Controller public class Class1 { @Autowired private Class2 object2; ... } @Service @Transactional public class Class2{ ... } The problem is that I need that the Class2 implements an interface so I've only changed the Class2 so it's now like: @Controller public class Class1 { @Autowired private Class2 object2; ... } @Service @Transactional public class Class2 implements IServiceReference<Class3, Long>{ ... } public interface IServiceReference<T, PK extends Serializable> { public T reference(PK id); } with this code I get a org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No matching bean of type for Class2. It seems that @ Transitional annotation is not compatible with the interface because if I remove the @Transitional annotation or the "implements IServiceReference" the problem disapears and the bean is injected (though I need to have both in this class). It also happens if I put the annotation @Transitional in the methods instead of in the Class. I use Spring 3.0.2 if this helps. Is not compatible the interface with the transactional method? May it be a Spring bug? Thanks

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• Maintain List of Active Users for Web

  - by Bryan Marble

  Problem Statement - Would like to know if particular web app user is active (i.e. logged in and using site) and be able to query for list of active users or determine a user's activity status. Constraints - Doesn't need to be exact (i.e. if a user was active within a certain timeframe, that's ok to say that they're active even if they've closed their browser). I feel like there should be a design pattern for this type of problem but haven't been able to find anything here or elsewhere on the web. Approaches I'm considering: Maintain a table that is updated any time a user performs an action (or some subset of actions). Would then query for users that have performed an action within some threshold of time. Try to monitor session information and maintain a table that lists logged in users and times out after a certain period of time. Some other more standard way of doing this? How would you approach this problem (again, from a design pattern perspective)? Thanks!

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• MVC UI with Mock Controllers?

  - by Jaimal Chohan

  I'm working with Aspnet MVC 2 (R2) and at the same time playing about with the whole alt.net stack. One of this things I would like to be able todo is basically write my Views, and be able to interact with them without having to write the controller logic. E.g. I have a view that displays a list of orders and I can click on an order which redirects to another view where I can edit it, but I don't want to get into the nitty gritty of writing the code to actually get a list of orders, or update an existing ordes. I want to do so I can write UI tests in WaitN/AOT/Selenium without having to worry about whats happening underneath, and also It would help drive my controller logic on a need basis as opposed to guess work based of of the supplied screenshots How do you guys accomplish this atm? Can you provide links ot useful blog posts/tools/framework/articles with information on how to accomplish this p.s. I primarly use Rhino Mocks & NUnit but can happliy change to other tools if they support the above better.

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• Use the repository pattern when using PLINQO generated data?

  - by Chad

  I'm "upgrading" an MVC app. Previously, the DAL was a part of the Model, as a series of repositories (based on the entity name) using standard LINQ to SQL queries. Now, it's a separate project and is generated using PLINQO. Since PLINQO generates query extensions based on the properties of the entity, I started using them directly in my controller... and eliminated the repositories all together. It's working fine, this is more a question to draw upon your experience, should I continue down this path or should I rebuild the repositories (using PLINQO as the DAL within the repository files)? One benefit of just using the PLINQO generated data context is that when I need DB access, I just make one reference to the the data context. Under the repository pattern, I had to reference each repository when I needed data access, sometimes needing to reference multiple repositories on a single controller. The big benefit I saw on the repositories, were aptly named query methods (i.e. FindAllProductsByCategoryId(int id), etc...). With the PLINQO code, it's _db.Product.ByCatId(int id) - which isn't too bad either. I like both, but where it gets "harrier" is when the query uses predicates. I can roll that up into the repository query method. But on the PLINQO code, it would be something like _db.Product.Where(x = x.CatId == 1 && x.OrderId == 1); I'm not so sure I like having code like that in my controllers. Whats your take on this?

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• Dismissing UIImagePickerController from UITabBarController

  - by Dave

  I have a tab bar application whereby one tab uses a navigation controller to move through a series of views. On the final view, there is a button to add a photo, which presents a UIImagePickerController. So far, so good - however when I finish picking the image, or cancel the operation, the previous view is loaded, but without the tab bar. I'm sure I'm missing something elementary, but any suggestions on how to properly release the UIImagePickerController would be much appreciated. The code is as follows: ImagePickerViewController *aController = [[ImagePickerViewController alloc]; initWithNibName:@"ImagePickerViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release]; //viewDidLoad self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease]; imagePickerController = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePickerController.delegate = self; if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]){ imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [window addSubview:imagePickerController.view]; //ImagePickerViewController imagePickerControllerDidCancel - FinalViewController is the last view in the stack controlled by a navigation controller which contains the button to present the UIImagePickerController [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; FinalViewController *aController = [[FinalViewController alloc initWithNibName:@"FinalViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [picker presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release];

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• Autorotation and multiple view controllers

  - by alku83

  I'm creating an iPad application which should only work in portrait and portait upsidedown modes. For performance reasons in my applicationDidFinishLaunching method I'm creating several viewControllers, and adding them to my main window as subviews. I then hide the ones I don't want to see straight away. There is no tab bar or navigation controller. My problem is that only the first viewController seems to be receiving the rotate calls. I have verified this by swapping around the order in which I add the subviews to the main window and NSLog's. Is there some way I can force all the controllers to receive the calls? Some of my views are designed to lay over the top of another view, but this behind view will not always be the same one - so it seems to make sense to have the overlay view in a separate view controller. Am I doing something fundamentally wrong, and that's why it's not behaving as I would expect? EDIT: The accepted answer for this question seems to indicate the exact problem I'm facing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/548142/uiviewcontroller-rotate-methods

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• How do I send an XML document to an ASP.NET MVC page for manipuation

  - by Decker

  I have some hierarchical data stored as an multiple XML files on the server according to a vendor's schema. In my ASP.NET MVC (2!) application, I'd like the user to choose one of these hierarchies (i.e. file -- I provide a list in my controller's Index action). When the user selects one to "edit" my edit action should return a page that presents the XML hierarchy (it's a representation of a folder tree). So my thoughts are that the view would return HTML that contained a JQuery on load ajax call back to the server for the XML data -- at which point I would present the tree using one of the many JQuery tree controls. On the client side I'd like the user to manipulate the tree and when done, I'd like to post back the new hierarchy where I would replace the original XML file that represents that hierarchy. So my questions are: What form should I use to send the data down? XML or JSON?. If I send down XML then I would have to not only read the XML -- which JQuery can do -- but I would also have to be able to modify that XML and then send it back. Can I use JQuery to modify this XML DOM? And will all the namespace declarations be preserved? What form should I send the data back? If I originally sent the client the hierarchy as JSON (using JsonResult), then presumably I would have a hierarchy of javascript objects. What options would I have to post that back? Would I have to recreate the XML reprentation on the client and post that back? Or should I serialize back to JSON, post that to the server, and then have the server do the work of recreating the XML according to the schema. Thanks for any advice.

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• Python Django Global Variables

  - by Joe J

  Hi all, I'm looking for simple but recommended way in Django to store a variable in memory only. When Apache restarts or the Django development server restarts, the variable is reset back to 0. More specifically, I want to count how many times a particular action takes place on each model instance (database record), but for performance reasons, I don't want to store these counts in the database. I don't care if the counts disappear after a server restart. But as long as the server is up, I want these counts to be consistent between the Django shell and the web interface, and I want to be able to return how many times the action has taken place on each model instance. I don't want the variables to be associated with a user or session because I might want to return these counts without being logged in (and I want the counts to be consistent no matter what user is logged in). Am I describing a global variable? If so, how do I use one in Django? I've noticed the files like the urls.py, settings.py and models.py seems to be parsed only once per server startup (by contrast to the views.py which seems to be parsed eache time a request is made). Does this mean I should declare my variables in one of those files? Or should I store it in a model attribute somehow (as long as it sticks around for as long as the server is running)? This is probably an easy question, but I'm just not sure how it's done in Django. Any comments or advice is much appreciated. Thanks, Joe

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• Omniauth/Devise/Facebook: Auth route is not recognized

  - by M. Cypher

  I've been working on this problem for 7 hours now, and I still have no idea. Maybe one of you can help me. I'm simply trying to integrate the OAuth feature of Devise 1.2rc, which uses Omniauth, into my Rails application. I've been using this tutorial by Devise: https://github.com/plataformatec/devise/wiki/OmniAuth%3A-Overview I have done everything they tell you to... Yes, I have added the following line to my devise.rb: config.omniauth :facebook, "APP ID", "APP SECRET" I have added :omniauthable to my user model, as well as the class function as described in the tutorial I have implemented the omniauth_callbacks controller, as well as the callback function, and I have specified the omniauth_callbacks controller in my routes.rb When I run "rake middleware" it does list the Omniauth middleware: use OmniAuth::Strategies::Facebook I have installed Devise directly from the Git repo, master branch, so it's up-to-date I have installed Omniauth 1.2.0.beta5, which is the latest version. In my Gemfile it says: gem 'oa-oauth', '0.2.0.beta5', :require = 'omniauth/oauth' I have restarted the server, obviously However, when I try to request this URL: http://localhost:3000/auth/facebook it simply says ActionController::RoutingError (No route matches "/auth/facebook"): /user/auth/facebook doesn't work either. Since I unfortunately don't have the time to take apart the entire Omniauth and Devise gems and understand every line of code in them, maybe one of you could tell me what the problem might be.

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