Search Results

Search found 22007 results on 881 pages for 'variable reference'.

Page 292/881 | < Previous Page | 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299  | Next Page >

  • iPhone JSON object releasing itself?

    - by MidnightLightning
    I'm using the JSON Framework addon for iPhone's Objective-C to catch a JSON object that's an array of Dictionary-style objects via HTTP. Here's my connectionDidFinishLoading function: - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [connection release]; NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [loadingIndicator stopAnimating]; NSArray *responseArray = [responseString JSONValue]; // Grab the JSON array of dictionaries NSLog(@"Response Array: %@", responseArray); if ([responseArray respondsToSelector:@selector(count)]) { NSLog(@"Returned %@ items", [responseArray count]); } [responseArray release]; [responseString release]; } The issue is that the code is throwing a EXC_BAD_ACCESS error on the second NSLog line. The EXC_BAD_ACCESS error I think indicates that the variable got released from memory, but the first NSLog command works just fine (and shows that the data is all there); it seems that only when calling the count message is causing the error, but the respondsToSelector call at least thinks that the responseArray should be able to respond to that message. When running with the debugger, it crashes on that second line, but the stack shows that the responseArray object is still defined, and has 12 objects in it (so the debugger at least is able to get an accurate count of the contents of that variable). Is this a problem with the JSON framework's creation of that NSArray, or is there something wrong with my code?

    Read the article

  • After Filter redirects to login.jsp, proper servlet doesnt get called

    - by gnomeguru
    My simple project structure is shown in this link. I am using Eclipse and Tomcat 6. There is login.jsp which submits its form to login_servlet. The login_servlet sets a session variable and then redirects to home.jsp. The home.jsp file has links to the 4 JSP files under a directory called /sam. In web.xml I have given the url-pattern as /sam/* for the LogFiler filter. The LogFilter just reads the session variable and does doChain(request,resposne) if valid, else it redirects to /login.jsp. RequestDispatcher rd = request.getRequestDispatcher("/login.jsp"); rd.forward(request,response); Basically I don't want anyone to access files inside /sam directory directly. Now let's say, I try to directly access a file inside /sam directory, the filter kicks in and the redirection to login.jsp works and even the broswers contents are that of login.jsp, but the url in the browser doesn't change. When I enter details and press submit, instead of sending the data to login_servlet, it sends it to sam/login_servlet and then tomcat tells me there is no such servlet here! Obviously there isn't. My doubt is why is it sending it so sam/login_servlet instead of /login_servlet which is usually what it does when I start running the login.jsp on my own. One more thing, is there a way I can apply the servlet to ONLY .jsp files inside /sam diectory? I tried giving the url-pattern like /sam/*.jsp, but Tomcat was refusing to accept that url-pattern.

    Read the article

  • Phantom class definitions in Flash CS5?

    - by cc
    I'm trying to get FlashPunk working in the Flash CS5 IDE (don't ask), and I'm having trouble getting it to compile. In strict mode, the error I'm getting is: net/flashpunk/FP.as, Line 95 1119: Access of possibly undefined property _inherit through a reference with static type World. Typically, this means that there is a missing variable definition or the class being compiled cannot see that variable. Presumably, the framework compiles for others, so I'm pretty sure this isn't the issue, but I went in anyway and made sure the variables existed and set these variables to public (they were set to internal), but the error still occurred. It was almost like the compiler wasn't seeing the property definitions. If I turn off "strict mode", the app compiles, but then I get this error: ArgumentError: Error #1063: Argument count mismatch on World(). Expected 2, got 0. Now, World is a class in the FlashPunk package. In the class definition for it, the constructor does not expect any arguments: public function World() { ... ...and yet, for some reason, Flash is expecting two arguments. So it appears that everything is correct, but Flash is somehow expecting something different than what World's constructor defines. These two issues combined makes it seem like Flash is getting some other phantom version of another class called "World" which has two constructor arguments and different properties. I've gone in and checked the ActionScript settings. The only external-to-project stuff referenced is the default "$(AppConfig)/ActionScript 3.0/libs". And I'm not using any of my own code other than a single "Main.as" file that super's Engine to set a few parameters - certainly, there's no new World class. With a generic name like "World", I thought perhaps this is a reserved class name within Flash or something, maybe imported from the default libs mentioned above, but some Googling turning up empty seems to put the lie to that. Any idea what might be going on?

    Read the article

  • How can you assign multiple Javascript functions to the upload_start_handler for WordPress's SWFUplo

    - by Byron
    I've got 2 WordPress plugins (PhotoSmash and TwitPic-It) that need to hook into the SWFUploader for the Media Uploader in WordPress. SWFUpload has a setting "upload_start_handler" where you can specify a javascript function that will run immediately before the upload begins. The trouble is that I need to assign 2 different functions to run in separate plugins that may or may not coexist in a given user's WordPress blog. I want to make the implementation so that it allows other plugin authors to hook their own javascript functions. I don't know that I have access to the actual event being fired. The "upload_start_handler" is a setting on a JS object, not an event hook on the flash object. You set it like: swfu.settings.upload_start_handler = function(){ runFlashStartUploadFunctions(); } My current plan is to add a 2 functions and an array variable (check if they exists first). The array variable is intended to hold an array of function names (strings) to run when "runFlashStartUploadFunctions" gets called at upload start. The first function is to add new functions to the array. The second function is "runFlashStartUploadFunctions", and it will iterate through the array and eval each function name. Is there a better way? Thanks, Byron

    Read the article

  • Error when changing default lanuage in asp.net compilation from vb to c#

    - by Herman
    Hi all, We have a updatable web site project that is written in c#, it has the usual web form implementation using master page, skins, user controls,...etc. Up to this point we neglect to change the default compilation language from VB to C#. However, the second we change it, we see the following error. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. ---> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at ASP.Default.__DataBinding__control499(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.OnDataBinding(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at .... Further investigation points out that this error is getting generated from a Theme related assembly (Source : App_Theme_Default.zclakrlo). Any ideas? One of my co-worker suggested that it might be skin file related since we have a theme call "Default" and there is no way to specify a language on a skin file. Therefore, when the asp.net runtime tries to compile it under C#, it will give a name collision? Does this make sense? Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Nested dereferencing arrows in Perl: to omit or not to omit?

    - by DVK
    In Perl, when you have a nested data structure, it is permissible to omit de-referencing arrows to 2d and more level of nesting. In other words, the following two syntaxes are identical: my $hash_ref = { 1 => [ 11, 12, 13 ], 3 => [31, 32] }; my $elem1 = $hash_ref->{1}->[1]; my $elem2 = $hash_ref->{1}[1]; # exactly the same as above Now, my question is, is there a good reason to choose one style over the other? It seems to be a popular bone of stylistic contention (Just on SO, I accidentally bumped into this and this in the space of 5 minutes). So far, none of the usual suspects says anything definitive: perldoc merely says "you are free to omit the pointer dereferencing arrow". Conway's "Perl Best Practices" says "whenever possible, dereference with arrows", but it appears to only apply to the context of dereferencing the main reference, not optional arrows on 2d level of nested data structures. "MAstering Perl for Bioinfirmatics" author James Tisdall doesn't give very solid preference either: "The sharp-witted reader may have noticed that we seem to be omitting arrow operators between array subscripts. (After all, these are anonymous arrays of anonymous arrays of anonymous arrays, etc., so shouldn't they be written [$array-[$i]-[$j]-[$k]?) Perl allows this; only the arrow operator between the variable name and the first array subscript is required. It make things easier on the eyes and helps avoid carpal tunnel syndrome. On the other hand, you may prefer to keep the dereferencing arrows in place, to make it clear you are dealing with references. Your choice." Personally, i'm on the side of "always put arrows in, since itg's more readable and obvious tiy're dealing with a reference".

    Read the article

  • Trouble move-capturing std::unique_ptr in a lambda using std::bind

    - by user2478832
    I'd like to capture a variable of type std::vector<std::unique_ptr<MyClass>> in a lambda expression (in other words, "capture by move"). I found a solution which uses std::bind to capture unique_ptr (http://stackoverflow.com/a/12744730/2478832) and decided to use it as a starting point. However, the most simplified version of the proposed code I could get doesn't compile (lots of template mistakes, it seems to try to call unique_ptr's copy constructor). #include <functional> #include <memory> std::function<void ()> a(std::unique_ptr<int>&& param) { return std::bind( [] (int* p) {}, std::move(param)); } int main() { a(std::unique_ptr<int>(new int())); } Can anybody point out what is wrong with this code? EDIT: tried changing the lambda to take a reference to unique_ptr, it still doesn't compile. #include <functional> #include <memory> std::function<void ()> a(std::unique_ptr<int>&& param) { return std::bind( [] (std::unique_ptr<int>& p) {}, // also as a const reference std::move(param)); } int main() { a(std::unique_ptr<int>(new int())); }

    Read the article

  • Data view web part throwing error

    - by Ashutosh Singh
    Hi I'm using a xslt based dataview webpart the steps i have taken to create a data view webpart is that 1. added a list view webpart on the page 2. Modified the toolbar property to show fulll toolbar 3. open the web page containing above list view webpart in sharepoint desginer and converted it to xslt based webpart (to make further changes in UI) 4. saved the page and previewed in browser in browser web part was throwing the error while i was able to see it properly in desginer witout any error the error maesseged shown in webpart was: ** Unable to display this Web Part. To troubleshoot the problem, open this Web page in a Windows SharePoint Services-compatible HTML editor such as Microsoft Office SharePoint Designer. If the problem persists, contact your Web server administrator. ** the error message provided in sharepoint log file was : 05/12/2010 17:56:29.54 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Parts 89a1 Monitorable Error while executing web part: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.ResolveParameterValuesToXsl(ArgumentClassWrapper argList) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.PrepareAndPerformTransform() 05/12/2010 17:56:29.62 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Controls 88wy Medium SPDataSourceView.ExecuteSelect() - selectArguments: IsEmpty=True, MaximumRows=0, RetrieveTotalRowCount=False, SortExpression=, StartRowIndex=0, TotalRowCount=-1 05/12/2010 17:56:29.62 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Controls 88x2 Medium SPDataSourceView.ExecuteSelect() - formattedQuery = 1 05/12/2010 17:56:29.64 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Parts 89a1 Monitorable Error while executing web part: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.ResolveParameterValuesToXsl(ArgumentClassWrapper argList) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.PrepareAndPerformTransform()

    Read the article

  • JQuery how to resubmit form after ajax call success

    - by Steven Rosato
    I am using JQuery to perform form submission through an ajax request. I use form.submit(function() { if( success ) { return true; } validate(); //proceeds to an ajax call return false; } On request success I want to either proceed with form submission or user callback. Therefore, if the user callback is undefined, I will submit the form on form validation success (from my validate function). config = { successCallback: function() { success = true; form.submit(); //does not work } }; validate = function() { $.ajax( ... success: function(data) { //code logic config.successCallback(); } ); }; The ajax success callback will call config.successCallback() and if it was never overridden by the user, it would proceed to normal form submission. I tried using an instance variable (success) to make sure 'return true' would proceed to default form submission. Unfortunately this is not working. It seems that the 'return false' statement that prevents default form submission will neglect any further submit calls even if an instance variable was set. It only works after clicking the submit button another time (that makes it twice for it to work). Is there any workaround for this. I want to both use a user callback when provided but proceed with default form submission when not, and since I am using an ajax function to validate the form, the ajax success callback is complicating things.

    Read the article

  • number->string and related procedures in GIMP scheme scripting

    - by dim fish
    I am frustrated with string-to-number and number-to-string conversion in GIMP scripting. I am runnning GIMP 2.6.8 in Windows Vista. I understand that GIMP's internal Scheme implementation changes over the versions and I can't seem to nail down the documentation. From what I can gather GIMP's Scheme is a subset of TinyScheme and/or supports the R5RS standard procedures. In any case, I usually just look in the packaged script directory for examples when I want to try something new, because that should work for sure, right? For example, grid-system.scm comes with the latest GIMP release and has the expression, (string-append (number->string obj) " ") which is exactly what I want. However, if I use number-string in my own script, or even type it into GIMP's script console (which is how I usually test out new stuff I want to do) it tells me number-string is an unbound variable: > (number->string 3) Error: eval: unbound variable: number->string Other standard procedures from, say R5RS, work just fine: > (string-append "frust" "rated") "frustrated" So, 1) Is there some lurking documentation for current GIMP Scheme scripting other than something drastic like searching GIMP's source code? 2) Can I use the GIMP console to spit out a list of all defined procedures to find something I need? 3) Anyone else confirm that number-string is not defined for the current Windows build, even though it appears in the packaged scripts? My web searches haven't turned up any related problems, and a complete uninstall of all GIMP versions, back to latest puts me in the same scrape.

    Read the article

  • Resolving MSBuild 4.0 warnings

    - by Hadi Eskandari
    I've upgraded a solution to use MSBuild 4.0. It compiles but I get lots of warnings, for example: "T:\projects\Castle.Core\buildscripts\Build.proj" (Package target) (1) - "T:\projects\Castle.Core\Castle.Core-vs2008.sln" (Build target) (2:2) - "T:\projects\Castle.Core\src\Castle.DynamicProxy.Tests\Castle.DynamicProxy.Tests-vs2008.csproj" (default target) (3:2) - D:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Microsoft.Common.targets(847,9): warning MSB3644: The reference assemblies for framework ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0.30319" were not found. To resolve this, install the SDK or Targeting Pack for this framework version or retarget your application to a version of the framework for which you have the SDK or Targeting Pack installed. Note that assemblies will be resolved from the Global Assembly Cache (GAC) and will be used in place of reference assemblies. Therefore your assembly may not be correctly targeted for the framework you intend. [T:\projects\Castle.Core\src\Castle.DynamicProxy.Tests\Castle.DynamicProxy.Tests-vs2008.csproj] How can I fix these warnings? It is related to .NET 4.0 Multitargeting pack or SDK, but there's no SDK for .NET 4.0 AFAIK and Multi-Target pack can not be installed separatly. Any ideas would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • C# FileStream position is off after calling ReadLine()

    - by Cristi Diaconescu
    I'm trying to read a (small-ish) file in chunks of a few lines at a time, and I need to return to the beginning of particular chunks. The problem is, after the very first call to streamReader.ReadLine(); the streamReader.BaseStream.Position property is set to the end of the file! Now I assume some caching is done in the backstage, but I was expecting this property to reflect the number of bytes that I used from that file. For instance, calling ReadLine() again will (naturally) return the next line in the file, which does not start at the position previously reported by streamReader.BaseStream.Position. My question is, how can I find the actual position where the 1st line ends, so I can return there later? I can only think of manually doing the bookkeeping, by adding the lengths of the strings returned by ReadLine(), but even here there are a couple of caveats: ReadLine() strips the new-line character(s) which may have a variable length (is is '\n' ? is it "\r\n" ? etc) I'm not sure if this would work ok with variable-length characters ...so right now it seems like my only option is to rethink how I parse the file, so I don't have to rewind. If it helps, I open my file like this: using (var reader = new StreamReader( new FileStream(m_path, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite))) {...} Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How do I pass data from a BroadcastReceiver through to an Activity being started?

    - by Tom Hume
    I've got an Android application which needs to be woken up sporadically throughout the day. To do this, I'm using the AlarmManager to set up a PendingIntent and have this trigger a BroadcastReceiver. This BroadcastReceiver then starts an Activity to bring the UI to the foreground. All of the above seems to work, in that the Activity launches itself correctly; but I'd like the BroadcastReceiver to notify the Activity that it was started by the alarm (as opposed to being started by the user). To do this I'm trying, from the onReceive() method of the BroadcastReceiver to set a variable in the extras bundle of the intent, thus: Intent i = new Intent(context, MyActivity.class); i.putExtra(wakeupKey, true); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(i); In the onResume() method of my Activity, I then look for the existence of this boolean variable: protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); String wakeupKey = "blah"; if (getIntent()!=null && getIntent().getExtras()!=null) Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ":" + getIntent().getExtras().getBoolean(wakeupKey)); else Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ": null"); } The getIntent().getExtras() call in onResume() always returns null - I don't seem to be able to pass any extras through at all in this bundle. If I use the same method to bind extras to the PendingIntent which triggers the BroadcastReceiver however, the extras come through just fine. Can anyone tell me what's different about passing a bundle from a BroadcastReceiver to an Activity, as opposed to passing the bundle from an Activity to a BroadcastReceiver? I fear I may be doing something very very obvious wrong here...

    Read the article

  • Java Memory Model: reordering and concurrent locks

    - by Steffen Heil
    Hi The java meomry model mandates that synchronize blocks that synchronize on the same monitor enforce a before-after-realtion on the variables modified within those blocks. Example: // in thread A synchronized( lock ) { x = true; } // in thread B synchronized( lock ) { System.out.println( x ); } In this case it is garanteed that thread B will see x==true as long as thread A already passed that synchronized-block. Now I am in the process to rewrite lots of code to use the more flexible (and said to be faster) locks in java.util.concurrent, especially the ReentrantReadWriteLock. So the example looks like this: // in thread A synchronized( lock ) { lock.writeLock().lock(); x = true; lock.writeLock().unlock(); } // in thread B synchronized( lock ) { lock.readLock().lock(); System.out.println( x ); lock.readLock().unlock(); } However, I have not seen any hints within the memory model specification that such locks also imply the nessessary ordering. Looking into the implementation it seems to rely on the access to volatile variables inside AbstractQueuedSynchronizer (for the sun implementation at least). However this is not part of any specification and moreover access to non-volatile variables is not really condsidered covered by the memory barrier given by these variables, is it? So, here are my questions: Is it safe to assume the same ordering as with the "old" synchronized blocks? Is this documented somewhere? Is accessing any volatile variable a memory barrier for any other variable? Regards, Steffen

    Read the article

  • How to include multiple tables programmaticaly into a Sweave document using R

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    Hello, I want to have a sweave document that will include a variable number of tables in. I thought the example below would work, but it doesn't. I want to loop over the list foo and print each element as it's own table. % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{longtable} \usepackage{geometry} \usepackage{Sweave} \geometry{left=1.25in, right=1.25in, top=1in, bottom=1in} \listfiles \begin{document} <<label=start, echo=FALSE, include=FALSE>>= startt<-proc.time()[3] library(RODBC) library(psych) library(xtable) library(plyr) library(ggplot2) options(width=80) #Produce some example data, here I'm creating some dummy dataframes and putting them in a list foo<-list() foo[[1]]<-data.frame(GRP=c(rep("AA",10), rep("Aa",10), rep("aa",10)), X1=rnorm(30), X2=rnorm(30,5,2)) foo[[2]]<-data.frame(GRP=c(rep("BB",10), rep("bB",10), rep("BB",10)), X1=rnorm(30), X2=rnorm(30,5,2)) foo[[3]]<-data.frame(GRP=c(rep("CC",12), rep("cc",18)), X1=rnorm(30), X2=rnorm(30,5,2)) foo[[4]]<-data.frame(GRP=c(rep("DD",10), rep("Dd",10), rep("dd",10)), X1=rnorm(30), X2=rnorm(30,5,2)) @ \title{Docuemnt to test putting a variable number of tables into a sweave Document} \author{"Paul Hurley"} \maketitle \section{Text} This document was created on \today, with \Sexpr{print(version$version.string)} running on a \Sexpr{print(version$platform)} platform. It took approx \input{time} sec to process. <<label=test, echo=FALSE, results=tex>>= cat("Foo") @ that was a test, so is this <<label=table1test, echo=FALSE, results=tex>>= print(xtable(foo[[1]])) @ \newpage \subsection{Tables} <<label=Tables, echo=FALSE, results=tex>>= for(i in seq(foo)){ cat("\n") cat(paste("Table_",i,sep="")) cat("\n") print(xtable(foo[[i]])) cat("\n") } #cat("<<label=endofTables>>= ") @ <<label=bye, include=FALSE, echo=FALSE>>= endt<-proc.time()[3] elapsedtime<-as.numeric(endt-startt) @ <<label=elapsed, include=FALSE, echo=FALSE>>= fileConn<-file("time.tex", "wt") writeLines(as.character(elapsedtime), fileConn) close(fileConn) @ \end{document} Here, the table1test chunk works as expected, and produced a table based on the dataframe in foo[[1]], however the loop only produces Table(underscore)1.... Any ideas what I'm doing wrong ?

    Read the article

  • fork() within a fork()

    - by codingfreak
    Hi Is there any way to differentiate the child processes created by different fork() functions within a program. global variable i; SIGCHLD handler function() { i--; } handle() { fork() --> FORK2 } main() { while(1) { if(i<5) { i++; if( (fpid=fork())==0) --> FORK1 handle() else (fpid>0) ..... } } } Is there any way I can differentiate between child processes created by FORK1 and FORK2 ?? because I am trying to decrement the value of global variable 'i' in SIGCHLD handler function and it should be decremented only for the processes created by FORK1 .. I tried to use an array and save the process id [this code is placed in fpid0 part] of the child processes created by FORK1 and then decrement the value of 'i' only if the process id of dead child is within the array ... But this didn't work out as sometimes child processes dead so fastly that updating the array is not done perfectly and everything messed up. So is there any better solution for this problem ??

    Read the article

  • Hiding keyboard in iPad with UITextView , can do this in iphone not iPad.

    - by user271753
    Hey the code below when written in HelloWorldAppDelegate.m in an iPhone app having UITextView hides the keyboard when the app starts : The UITextView is editable thats what I want in iPad Also But how can do the same in iPad its not working at all ! ! ! ! ! ! ! And also I have checked that I can use Subviews if I want to keep this to my app itself - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { //For hiding the Keyboard [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWillShow:) name:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } /// /// Hiding the Keyboard /// - (void)keyboardWillShow:(NSNotification *)note { //The UIWindow that contains the keyboard view UIWindow* tempWindow; //Because we cant get access to the UIKeyboard throught the SDK we will just use UIView. //UIKeyboard is a subclass of UIView anyways UIView* keyboard; //Check each window in our application for(int c = 0; c < [[[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows] count]; c ++) { //Get a reference of the current window tempWindow = [[[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows] objectAtIndex:c]; //Get a reference of the current view for(int i = 0; i < [tempWindow.subviews count]; i++) { keyboard = [tempWindow.subviews objectAtIndex:i]; if (!strcmp(object_getClassName(keyboard), "UIKeyboard")) { NSLog(@"hide keyboard"); [keyboard setHidden:YES]; return; } } } } Regards

    Read the article

  • How to consume webservices over https

    - by Kumar
    I am trying to consume a webservices which are located at https://TestServices/ServiceList.asmx. When I try to add a service reference to my C# library class project my app.config file looks like below: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="TestServicesSoap" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="50000000" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="50000000" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm=""> </transport> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://TestServices/ServiceList.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TestServicesSoap" contract="TestServices.TestServicesSoap" name="TestServicesSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> Even when I tried to add a service reference to the https://TestServices/ServiceList.asmx for some reason end point address is still pointing to http://TestServices/ServiceList.asmx. I tried changing the http to https but I am getting the below error: The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'. Parameter name: via What is the right way of consuming the webservices on https?

    Read the article

  • How can I disable keep-alive on ASP.NET Web Service client requests?

    - by Matthew Brindley
    I have a few web servers behind an Amazon EC2 load balancer. I'm using TCP balancing on port 80 (rather than HTTP balancing). I have a client polling a Web Service (running on all web servers) for new items every few seconds. However, the client seems to stay connected to one server and polls that same server each time. I've tried using ServicePointManager to disable KeepAlive, but that didn't change anything. The outgoing connection still had its "connection: keep-alive" HTTP header, and the server kept the TCP connection open. I've also tried adding an override of GetWebRequest to the proxy class created by VS, which inherits from SoapHttpClientProtocol, but I still see the keep-alive header. If I kill the client's process and restart, it'll connect to a new server via the load balancer, but it'll continue polling that new server forever. Is there a way to force it to connect to a random server each time? I want the load from the one client to be spread across all of the web servers. The client is written in C# (as is the server) and uses a Web Reference (not a Service Reference), which points to the load balancer.

    Read the article

  • Can't submit new object to WCF DataService because of Primary Key constraint

    - by Rob
    I've got a SQL database that uses Guid's for PK's and upon insert, it generates a NewId(). I have an EF data context setup pointing to that database with the primary keys setup with the Entity key:true, Setter:private and StoreGeneratedPattern:Identity because I want the DB to manage the keys and not have code set the PK property. I have an OData (System.Web.Data.Services.DataService) endpoint to access this data (just like: Hanselman did. I have another app that has a service reference to this service. Upon trying to create a new object from this reference (i.e. Product), the ProductId Primary Key is being defaulted to Guid.Empty when doing var serviceEntities = new ServiceEntities(serviceUri); //OData endpoint var product = new Product(); product.Name = "New Product"; serviceEntities.AddToProducts(product); serviceEntities.SaveChanges(); // error happens here When debugging, I look at the Product.ProductId property and it's set to Guid.Empty. When called SaveChanges, I do not want the ProductId field to be sent to the service. The response I get is: Error processing request stream. Property 'ProductId' is a read-only property and cannot be updated. Please make sure that this property is not present in the request payload. Is there a way to do this or what can I do to get this setup correctly and still have the DB generated the keys. Here is the same setup as the Product example above.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 project organization for executable and assembly

    - by user304582
    Hi - I am having a problem setting up the following in Visual Studio 2008: a parent project which includes the entrypoint Main() method class and which declares an interface, and a child project which has classes that implement the interface declared in the parent project. I have specified that Parent's Output type is a Console application, and Child's Output type is a Class library. In Child I have add a reference to the Parent as a project, and specified that Child depends on Parent and that the build order should be Parent, then Child. The build succeeds, and as far I can tell, the right things show up in the Child/bin/debug directory: Parent.exe and Child.dll. However, if I run Parent.exe, then at the point when it should load a class from the Child.dll, it fails with the error message: exception executing operation System.TypeLoadException: Could not load type 'Child.some.class' from assembly 'Parent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'. I guess I'm confused as to how to get the Parent and Child projects to play together. I plan on having more child projects that use the same framework that is set up in the Parent, and so I do not want to move the entrypoint class down into the Child project. If I try to specify that the Child project is also a Console application, then the build process fails because there is no Main() entrypoint class in the child (even though the Parent project is included as a reference). Any help would be welcome! Thanks, Martin

    Read the article

  • IIS as proxy to rails/mongrel - force a proxied host to generate REMOTE_USER

    - by rbn
    Hello -- Using Application Request Routing I have IIS 7.5 set up as a reverse proxy to a Mongrel service which is serving a rails app. IIS is set up to use Windows Auth and is working but I cannot access the REMOTE_USER variable in the rails app to get at current user's identity. I have inspected the request object in rails and I don't have any other variables like LOGON_USER, HTTP_REMOTE_USER, AUTH_USER, etc. I am trying to find a way to inject the REMOTE_USER variable into Mongrel's server variables. This post describes what I am looking for using mod_rewrite on Apache but I am having trouble recreating this rule for iis. this is the rewrite rule from the post mentioned above for Apache RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{LA-U:REMOTE_USER} (.+) RewriteRule . - [E=RU:%1] Header add X-Forwarded-User %{RU}e I tried reproducing the rule in IIS and got a URL Rewrite Module error ("The condition's expression "%{LA-U:REMOTE_USER}" is invalid."). I know I'm probably using Apache syntax where IIS syntax is needed but am not sure how to proceed at this point. Any help greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Singleton Roles in Moose

    - by mjn12
    I am attempting to write a singleton role using Perl and Moose. I understand a MooseX::Singleton module is available but there is always resistance when requiring another CPAN module for our project. After trying this and having a little trouble I would like to understand WHY my method is not working. The singleton role I have written is as follows: package Singleton; use Moose::Role; my $_singleInstance; around 'new' => sub { my $orig = shift; my $class = shift; if (not defined $_singleInstance ){ $_singleInstance = $class->$orig(@_); } return $_singleInstance; }; sub getInstance { return __PACKAGE__->new(); } 1; This appears to work find when only one class uses the singleton role. However when two classes (ClassA and ClassB for example) both consume the Singleton role it appears as they are both referring to a shared $_singleInstance variable. If I call ClassA-getInstance it returns a reference to a ClassA object. If I call ClassB-getInstance sometime later in the same script it returns a reference to an object of type ClassA (even though I clearly called the getInstance method for ClassB). If I dont use a role and actually copy and paste the code from the Singleton role into ClassA and ClassB it appears to work fine. Whats going on here?

    Read the article

  • Positioning SVG Elements

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    In the course of toying with SVG for the first time (using the Raphael library), I've run into a problem positioning dynamic elements on the canvas in such a way that they're completely contained within the canvas. What I'm trying to do is randomly position n words/short phrases. Since the text is variable, its position needs to be variable as well so what I'm doing is: Initially creating the text at point 0,0 with no opacity. Checking the width of the drawn text element using text.getBBox().width. Setting a new x coordinate as Math.random() * (canvas_width - ( text_width/2 ) - pad). Altering the x coordinate of the text to the newly set value (text.attr( 'x', x ) ). Setting the opacity attribute of the text to 1. I'll be the first to admit that my math acumen is limited, but this seems pretty straightforward. Somehow, I still end up with text running off beyond the right edge of my canvas. For simplicity above, I removed the bit that also sets a minimum x value by adding it to the Math.random() result. It is there, though, and I see the same problem on the leading edge of the canvas. My understanding (such as it is), is that the Math.random() bits would generate a number between 0 and 1 which could then be multiplied by some number (in my case, the canvas width - half of the text width - some arbitrary padding) to get the outer bound. I'm dividing the width of the text in half because its position on the grid is set at its center. I hope I've just been staring at this for too long, but is my math that rusty or am I misunderstanding something about the behavior of Math.random(), SVG, text or anything else that's under the hood of this solution?

    Read the article

  • PHP Multiple Calls to Server Share Objects?

    - by user1513171
    I’m wondering this about PHP on Apache. Do multiple calls to the server from different users—could be sitting next to each other, in different states, different countries, etc…—share memory? For example, if I create a static variable in a PHP script and set it to 1 by default, then user1 comes in and it changes to 2, and then almost at the exactly same time, user2 comes in, does he see that static variable with a value of 1 or 2? An even better example is this class I have in PHP: class ApplicationRegistry { private static $instance; private static $PDO; private function __construct() { self::$PDO = $db = new \PDO('mysql:unix_socket=/........'); self::$PDO->setAttribute(\PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, \PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); } static function instance() { if(!isset(self::$instance)) { self::$instance = new self(); } return self::$instance; } static function getDSN() { if(!isset(self::$PDO)) { self::instance(); return self::$PDO; } return self::$PDO; } } So this is a Singleton that has a static PDO instance. If user1 and user2 are hitting the server at the exact same time are they using different instances of PDO or are they using the same one? This is a confusing concept for me and I'm trying to think of how my application will scale.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299  | Next Page >