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  • LaTeX hyperref link goes to wrong page

    - by ecto
    I am trying to create a reference to a float that doesn't use a caption. If I include \label{foo} within the float and reference it using \pageref{foo}, the correct page number is displayed in my pdf document but the hyperlink created by the hyperref package links to a different page (the first page of the section). If I include a caption before the label in the float, the hyperref link goes to the correct page. Is there a way to get the hyperref link to work correctly without including a caption in the float? Or else is there a way to suppress the display of a caption so I can include one without it being shown? Below is a minimal example. If I process it using pdflatex, I get three pages. The "figure" is shown on the second page, and the third page says "See figure on page 2." But the hyperlink on the '2' says "Go to page 1", and if I click it it takes me to page 1. If I put an empty \caption{} before the \label{foo}, then the hyperlink works correctly, but I don't want to show a caption for my float. \documentclass[11pt]{memoir} \usepackage{hyperref} \begin{document} some text \clearpage \begin{figure} a figure \label{foo} \end{figure} more text \clearpage See figure on page \pageref{foo}. \end{document}

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  • Win8: Accessing page elements in default.html outside of default.js

    - by Arvin
    I have the following page elements within default.html: <div id ="content"> <div id="output"></div> </div> And within default.js: ... args.setPromise(WinJS.UI.processAll().done(function() { var theOutput = document.getElementById("output"); theOutput.innerText = "This is the output"; })); .... This successfully produces the app that just has the text "This is the output" But if I move this into a new script script.js: (function () { "use strict"; var theOutput = document.getElementById("output"); theOutput.innerText = "This is the output"; }()); And added script.js as a script reference in default.html: <script src="/js/script.js"></script><script src="/js/script.js"></script> I get the error JavaScript runtime error: Unable to set property 'innerText' of undefined or null reference How do I access the output div in other scripts outside of default.js?

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • Resolving NameErrors -- Getting NameError on RAILS_END in rails_end.rb When using desert plugin and

    - by dr
    What's an effective approach to debug NameErrors in Rails? I'm trying to use the desert plugin (0.5.0) and the edge version of Community_Engine. I've started from scratch and gone through the installation instructions. When I attempt to start my server, I get this error: "Constant RAILS_END from rails_end.rb not found (NameError)". Problem is I cannot find rails_end.rb, nor can I find a google reference to this file or error. I've verified that the required gems are installed and current. I've dug around google and desert, but haven't found any reference to this constant. Any ideas? Thanks Here's my stack trace: => Booting Mongrel => Rails 2.3.2 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.0/lib/desert/rails/ dependencies.rb:15:in `load_missing_constant': Constant RAILS_END from rails_end.rb not found (NameError) from /Users/dmr/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/ active_support/dependencies.rb:80:in `const_missing' from /Users/dmr/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/ active_support/dependencies.rb:92:in `const_missing' from /Users/dmr/dev/lionfold/config/environment.rb:32 from /Users/dmr/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.2/lib/ initializer.rb:111:in `run' from /Users/dmr/dev/myapp/config/environment.rb:31 from /opt/local/lib/ruby/vendor_ruby/1.8/rubygems/ custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' from /opt/local/lib/ruby/vendor_ruby/1.8/rubygems/ custom_require.rb:31:in `require' from /Users/dmr/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/ active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' from /Users/dmr/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/ active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `new_constants_in' from /Users/dmr/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/ active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' from /Users/dmr/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.2/lib/commands/ server.rb:84 from /opt/local/lib/ruby/vendor_ruby/1.8/rubygems/ custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' from /opt/local/lib/ruby/vendor_ruby/1.8/rubygems/ custom_require.rb:31:in `require' from script/server:3

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  • Calculating bounding grid coordinates to a user click on google maps/google earth

    - by user170304
    Hello, I have a requirement to calculate the centroid or geodesic midpoint of when a user clicks in between the lat/long grid crossing. The crossing forms a square in most parts of GE and sometimes elongated rectangles. This is due to the shape of the earth of course. I'm looking for a valid mathematical formula that would allow a user to click anywhere in between this grid and then an accurate function (in Javascript or server side code) that would take an assumed grid resolution (say 1km intervals for this discussion) and the input coordinates that should return a centroid coordinate within that graticule grid. To clarify please take a look at the attached image to my google group post: http://google-earth-api.googlegroups.com/web/Picture+5.png?gda=h5oFPz8AAAD315KpovipQeBwdfGpmW3ZhBc9PTADwYa-n193hZ6AItFmHuno63c7phcEXYVuRA6ccyFKn-rNKC-d1pM%5FIdV0&gsc=sz6bbAsAAABBKF7YXWYyc4GmXg-QruHj What I need to be able to do is if a user clicks anywhere in this grid square, I need to find the centroid or center point of that grid intersection/square or at least the bounding grid coordinates (that make the square). If we assume that the grid is UTM standard and has a max resolution of 1km (or make this a parameter), I need to detect the four other points nearby and then calculating the centroid is not as difficult. I welcome any feedback you all may have and appreciate it. I don't have a simple way of letting a user click anywhere on the grid and finding the grid bounding coordinates (making a square of 4 coordinates) or the centroid / midpoint of the graticule grid square necessary. One thought is to use assumptions as much as possible using a reference such as UTM coordinate reference. If I assume that the grid is X degrees wide, can we have a pure javascript function take any input coordinate and return for me the bounding graticule coordinates in Decimal Degrees? Another thought I had was to create the grid in a geo-spatial layer to take any input coordinate and return the nearest centroid of the graticule? Does this make sense? Thanks! Omar

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  • Using htaccess rewrite/redirect so single PHP file can display data according to GET/POST variables

    - by revive
    Hey gang, Bear with me as I try to learn more about .htaccess redirect rules - I'm a UI guy by profession and I'm doing my best to enhance my coding skills languages other than HTML/CSS/PHP, etc So, what I have is an index.php file that contains a menu - pretty simple. If Javascript is enabled on the users computer then forms are shown below the menu using simple jQuery goodies, with each link having a 'return false;' applied. What I am trying to do is make the page accessible with JS turned off, so instead of redirecting the user to a different page, I would like to use POST or GET variables from each link, to show the various forms.. within the same index.php file - but have the URL reflect the menu choice Here is an example using menu items named - Home, About, Form1 and Form2: With JS on, clicking on of the above example buttons simply slides the form or containing the data down onto the page. With JS off, if the user clicks the 'About' link, I would like to rewrite the URL to be http://domain.com/about - but keep the user on the index.php page (since it is the only page) and be able to use POST or GET variable to show the using PHP. So, accessing http://domain.com/index.php?page=about would show http://domain.com/about in the URL but pass the GET variable 'page' to the index.php file. Hope that makes sense.. and I'm sure there are many ways to accomplish this, so if you have ideas of how to improve on it, by all means, I'd love to hear it ! Thanks again Revive

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  • Comparing two collections for equality

    - by Crossbrowser
    I would like to compare two collections (in C#), but I'm not sure of the best way to implement this efficiently. I've read the other thread about Enumerable.SequenceEqual, but it's not exactly what I'm looking for. In my case, two collections would be equal if they both contain the same items (no matter the order). Example: collection1 = {1, 2, 3, 4}; collection2 = {2, 4, 1, 3}; collection1 == collection2; // true What I usually do is to loop through each item of one collection and see if it exists in the other collection, then loop through each item of the other collection and see if it exists in the first collection. (I start by comparing the lengths). if (collection1.Count != collection2.Count) return false; // the collections are not equal foreach (Item item in collection1) { if (!collection2.Contains(item)) return false; // the collections are not equal } foreach (Item item in collection2) { if (!collection1.Contains(item)) return false; // the collections are not equal } return true; // the collections are equal However, this is not entirely correct, and it's probably not the most efficient way to do compare two collections for equality. An example I can think of that would be wrong is: collection1 = {1, 2, 3, 3, 4} collection2 = {1, 2, 2, 3, 4} Which would be equal with my implementation. Should I just count the number of times each item is found and make sure the counts are equal in both collections? The examples are in some sort of C# (let's call it pseudo-C#), but give your answer in whatever language you wish, it does not matter. Note: I used integers in the examples for simplicity, but I want to be able to use reference-type objects too (they do not behave correctly as keys because only the reference of the object is compared, not the content).

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  • How to add and relate a node within the parent nodes add form in Drupal.

    - by Espen Christensen
    Hi, I want to accomplish the following scenario in Drupal: You have 2 content-types. Lets say, an application-form for a lisence, and a content-type for persons. Then when you go to add a lisence in the "node/add" submission form in Drupal, i would like to add a relative number of persons that would be related to this lisence, and only this lisence. Say you would like to apply for a lisence, and relate 4 persons to this lisence, then insted of creating the lisence and then create the 4 persons and relate them to the lisence, i would like to do this "inline". So when i add a lisence, there would be a way to add 1 or more persons that would relate to the lisence node. Is this possible, and if so how? I have been looking at the node reference module, and that manages to reference a node to another, but not to add them inline with the other. With the web-development framework Django, there is a way to this with something called "inline-editing", where you get the content-type fields inside another content-type creation form. There you bind them togheter with a ForeignKey. Anybody know of something simular in Drupal, if not, is it another way to achive something simular, that would be as user-friendly?

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  • jQuery HOW TO?? pass additional parameters to success callback for $.ajax call ?

    - by dotnetgeek
    Hello jQuery Ninjas! I am trying, in vain it seems, to be able to pass additional parameters back to the success callback method that I have created for a successful ajax call. A little background. I have a page with a number of dynamically created textbox / selectbox pairs. Each pair having a dynamically assigned unique name such as name="unique-pair-1_txt-url" and name="unique-pair-1_selectBox" then the second pair has the same but the prefix is different. In an effort to reuse code, I have crafted the callback to take the data and a reference to the selectbox. However when the callback is fired the reference to the selectbox comes back as 'undefined'. I read here that it should be doable. I have even tried taking advantage of the 'context' option but still nothing. Here is the script block that I am trying to use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function getImages(urlValue, selectBox) { $j.ajax({ type: "GET", url: $j(urlValue).val(), dataType: "jsonp", context: selectBox, success:function(data){ loadImagesInSelect(data, $j(this)) } , error:function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(thrownError); } }); } function loadImagesInSelect(data, selectBox) { //var select = $j('[name=single_input.<?cs var:op_unique_name ?>.selImageList]'); var select = selectBox; select.empty(); $j(data).each(function() { var theValue = $j(this)[0]["@value"]; var theId = $j(this)[0]["@name"]; select.append("<option value='" + theId + "'>" + theValue + "</option>"); }); select.children(":first").attr("selected", true); } From what I have read, I feel I am close but I just cant put my finger on the missing link. Please help in your typical ninja stealthy ways. TIA

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  • XSLT string replace

    - by aximili
    I don't really know XSL but I need to fix this code, I have reduced it to make it simpler. I am getting this error Invalid XSLT/XPath function on this line <xsl:variable name="text" select="replace($text,'a','b')"/> This is the XSL <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:inm="http://www.inmagic.com/webpublisher/query" version='1.0'> <xsl:output method="text" encoding="UTF-8"/> <xsl:preserve-space elements="*"/> <xsl:template match="text()"></xsl:template> <xsl:template match="mos"> <xsl:apply-templates/> <xsl:for-each select="mosObj"> 'Notes or subject' <xsl:call-template name="rem-html"><xsl:with-param name="text" select="SBS_ABSTRACT"/></xsl:call-template> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="rem-html"> <xsl:param name="text"/> <xsl:variable name="text" select="replace($text,'a','b')"/> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Can anyone tell me what's wrong with it? Thanks in advance.

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  • RESTfully Nesting Resource Routes with Single Identifiers

    - by Craig Walker
    In my Rails app I have a fairly standard has_many relationship between two entities. A Foo has zero or more Bars; a Bar belongs to exactly one Foo. Both Foo and Bar are identified by a single integer ID value. These values are unique across all of their respective instances. Bar is existence dependent on Foo: it makes no sense to have a Bar without a Foo. There's two ways to RESTfully references instances of these classes. Given a Foo.id of "100" and a Bar.id of "200": Reference each Foo and Bar through their own "top-level" URL routes, like so: /foo/100 /bar/200 Reference Bar as a nested resource through its instance of Foo: /foo/100 /foo/100/bar/200 I like the nested routes in #2 as it more closely represents the actual dependency relationship between the entities. However, it does seem to involve a lot of extra work for very little gain. Assuming that I know about a particular Bar, I don't need to be told about a particular Foo; I can derive that from the Bar itself. In fact, I probably should be validating the routed Foo everywhere I go (so that you couldn't do /foo/150/bar/200, assuming Bar 200 is not assigned to Foo 150). Ultimately, I don't see what this brings me. So, are there any other arguments for or against these two routing schemes?

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 and COM Port Communication

    - by theaviator
    ASP.NET 2.0 and COM Port Communication Hello Guys, I have a managed DLL which communicates with the devices attached on COM/Serial ports. The desktop Winforms application sends requests on ports and receives/stores data in memory. In Winforms app I have added a reference to DLL and I am using the methods. This works well. Now, there is a situation where I need to show this data from serial/com port on a web-page. And also users should be able to send requests to the ports using this DLL. I have made a web app in ASP.NET (2.0). Added a reference to the DLL. I am able to use this DLL, the DLL communicates on the COM upon button click on web-page and also the response is shown on web page. However I am not happy with the approach and strongly feel that this is a bad approach. Also the development server crashes after 3 -4 requests. What is the best approach in this scenario. If I use a windows service then how would my ASP.net app will communicate with the Weindows service. Or can this be easily done using WCF. I have not used WCF any time nor any of .net remoting technique. Please suggest me the best architecture in this scenario. Thank you

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  • Behavior of retained propertie while holder is retained

    - by Aurélien Vallée
    Hello everyone, I am a beginner ObjectiveC programmer, coming from the C++ world. I find it very difficult to understand the memory management offered by NSObject :/ Say I have the following class: @interface User : NSObject { NSString* name; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString* name; - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName; - (void) release; @end @implementation User @synthetise name - (id) initWithName: (NSString*) theName { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setName:theName]; } return self; } - (void) release { [name release]; [super release]; } @end No considering the following code, I can't understand the retain count results: NSString* name = [[NSString alloc] initWithCString:/*C string from sqlite3*/]; // (1) name retainCount = 1 User* user = [[User alloc] initWithName:name]; // (2) name retainCount = 2 [whateverMutableArray addObject:user]; // (3) name retainCount = 2 [user release]; // (4) name retainCount = 1 [name release]; // (5) name retainCount = 0 At (4), the retain count of name decreased from 2 to 1. But that's not correct, there is still the instance of user inside the array that points to name ! The retain count of a variable should only decrease when the retain count of a referring variable is 0, that is, when it is dealloced, not released.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 DisplayFor()

    - by ZombieSheep
    I'm looking at the new version of ASP.NET MVC (see here for more details if you haven't seen it already) and I'm having some pretty basic trouble displaying the content of an object. In my control I have an object of type "Person", which I am passing to the view in ViewData.Model. All is well so far, and I can extact the object in the view ready for display. What I don't get, though, is how I need to call the Html.DisplayFor() method in order to get the data to screen. I've tried the following... <% MVC2test.Models.Person p = ViewData.Model as MVC2test.Models.Person; %> // snip <%= Html.DisplayFor(p => p) %> but I get the following message: CS0136: A local variable named 'p' cannot be declared in this scope because it would give a different meaning to 'p', which is already used in a 'parent or current' scope to denote something else I know this is not what I should be doing - I know that redefining a variable will producte this error, but I don't know how to access the object from the controller. So my question is, how do I pass the object to the view in order to display its properties? (I should add that I am reading up on this in my limited spare time, so it is entirely possible I have missed something fundamental) TIA

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  • Problems referencing build output from TFS Build and Visual Studio

    - by pmdarrow
    Here's what I'm trying to do: I have two solutions - one for my main application and its associated projects and another for my database (VS .dbproj) and its associated projects. What I'd like to do is include the output from the database project (a .dbschema and some SQL scripts) in my WiX installer (which exists in the main application solution.) This involves having TFS build the DB solution immediately before the main application solution. I've got that part working properly, but I'm having trouble referencing the output of the DB solution from my installer. I'm using relative paths to reference the DB project output in my WiX installer (e.g. <?define DBProjectOutputDir = "..\..\MyDatabaseSolution\MyDatabaseProject\sql\"?>) which works fine locally, but fails when building via TFS build. This is because TFS Build apparently changes the output dir of each project to one common location. Instead of the path to my database project being ..\..\MyDatabaseSolution\MyDatabaseProject\sql\ like it is when building locally, it gets set to something like ..\..\..\Binaries\Release\. How can I get around this and have a consistent output location to reference from my installer project? I'm using TFS 2005 and VS 2008.

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  • Sql serve Full Text Search with Containstable is very slow when Used in JOIN!

    - by Bob
    Hello, I am using sql 2008 full text search and I am having serious issues with performance depending on how I use Contains or ContainsTable. Here are sample: (table one has about 5000 records and there is a covered index on table1 which has all the fields in the where clause. I tried to simplify the statements so forgive me if there is syntax issues.) Scenario 1: select * from table1 as t1 where t1.field1=90 and t1.field2='something' and Exists(select top 1 * from containstable(table1,*, 'something') as t2 where t2.[key]=t1.id) results: 10 second (very slow) Scenario 2: select * from table1 as t1 join containstable(table1,*, 'something') as t2 on t2.[key] = t1.id where t1.field1=90 and t1.field2='something' results: 10 second (very slow) Scenario 3: Declare @tbl Table(id uniqueidentifier primary key) insert into @tbl select {key] from containstable(table1,*, 'something') select * from table1 as t1 where t1.field1=90 and t1.field2='something' and Exists(select id from @tbl as tbl where id=req1.id) results: fraction of a second (super fast) Bottom line, it seems if I use Containstable in any kind of join or where clause condition of a select statement that also has other conditions, the performance is really bad. In addition if you look at profiler, the number of reads from the database goes to the roof. But if I first do the full text search and put results in a table variable and use that variable everything goes super fast. The number of reads are also much lower. It seems in "bad" scenarios, somehow it gets stuck in a loop which causes it to read many times from teh database but of course I don't understant why. Now the question is first of all whyis that happening? and question two is that how scalable table variables are? what if it results to 10s of thousands of records? is it still going to be fast. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • radgrid insert using radwinow

    - by Hamza
    Hello Everybody, The company details page in my system has a user control to show the founders of the company, that user control represents the founders by using a Rad Grid and three buttons for insert/edit/delete founders, the founders grid is being bind by using a WCF service. the insert button calls a javascript method that opens a Rad Window in which the user can insert the data for a new founder my problem is: in the Add Founder Rad Window I shouldn't save the new founder in the database, when I press Add the Rad Grid should be closed and the new founder should be added to the founders Grid's datasource, and then the grid should be bind again the questions is: what is the best way to do that, I don't want to use sessions nor json, I tried to use another wcf service which takes two parameters: reference to the grid and the new founder, and in this wcf service I get the old datasource then add the new founder to it and finally rebind the grid again, but I have faced some problems like how can I send the reference to the grid from javascript method to a WCF service, also if I add more than one founder how can keep track of the new founders and the original datasource if any of you can lead me to an example similar to my case this would be very much appreciated, also any comments and feedback are most welcomed

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  • Understanding Hibernate saveOrUpdate

    - by Stephano
    The books that I've read regarding hibernate are, at best, reference tomes. They very seldom have good code examples, so I tend to use online resources for those needs. However, I've always had a problem understanding the basic idea of hibernate persistence. I've read the books and understand the concepts, but in practice, I often see results that I don't understand. Perhaps you all can help, as you have in the past. Let's look at a simple example of a dog and a cat that are friends. This isn't a rare occurrence. It also has the benefit of being much more interesting than my business case. We want a function called "saveFriends" that takes a dog name and a cat name. We'll save the Dog and then the Cat. For this example to work, the cat is going to have a reference back to the dog. I understand this isn't an ideal example, but it's cute and works for our purposes. FriendService.java public int saveFriends(String dogName, String catName) { Dog fido = new Dog(); Cat felix = new Cat(); fido.name = dogName; fido = animalDao.saveDog(fido); felix.name = catName; [ex.A]felix.friend = fido; [ex.B]felix.friend = animalDao.getDogByName(dogName); animalDao.saveCat(felix); } AnimalDao.java (extends HibernateDaoSupport) public Dog saveDog(Dog dog) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(dog); return dog } public Cat saveCat(Cat cat) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(cat); return cat; } public Dog getDogByName(String name) { return (Dog) getHibernateTemplate().find("from Dog where name=?", name).get(0); } Now, assume for a minute that I would like to use either example A or example B to save my friend. Is one better than the other to use? I'll understand if neither of those examples work, but please explain why.

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  • Struggling with a data modeling problem

    - by rpat
    I am struggling with a data model (I use MySQL for the database). I am uneasy about what I have come up with. If someone could suggest a better approach, or point me to some reference matter I would appreciate it. The data would have organizations of many types. I am trying to do a 3 level classification (Class, Category, Type). Say if I have 'Italian Restaurant', it will have the following classification Food Services Restaurants Italian However, an organization may belong to multiple groups. A restaurant may also serve Chinese and Italian. So it will fit into 2 classifications Food Services Restaurants Italian Food Services Restaurants Chinese The classification reference tables would be like the following: ORG_CLASS (RowId, ClassCode, ClassName) 1, FOOD, Food Services ORG_CATEGORY(RowId, ClassCode, CategoryCode, CategoryName) 1, FOOD, REST, Restaurants ORG_TYPE (RowId, ClassCode, CategoryCode, TypeCode, TypeName) 100, FOOD, REST, ITAL, Italian 101, FOOD, REST, CHIN, Chinese 102, FOOD, REST, SPAN, Spanish 103, FOOD, REST, MEXI, Mexican 104, FOOD, REST, FREN, French 105, FOOD, REST, MIDL, Middle Eastern The actual data tables would be like the following: I will allow an organization a max of 3 classifications. I will have 3 GroupIds each pointing to a row in ORG_TYPE. So I have my ORGANIZATION_TABLE ORGANIZATION_TABLE (OrgGroupId1, OrgGroupId2, OrgGroupId3, OrgName, OrgAddres) 100,103,NULL,MyRestaurant1, MyAddr1 100,102,NULL,MyRestaurant2, MyAddr2 100,104,105, MyRestaurant3, MyAddr3 During data add, a dialog could let the user choose the clssa, category, type and the corresponding GroupId could be populated with the rowid from the ORG_TYPE table. During Search, If all three classification are chosen, It will be more specific. For example, if Food Services Restaurants Italian is the criteria, the where clause would be 'where OrgGroupId1 = 100' If only 2 levels are chosen Food Services Restaurants I have to do 'where OrgGroupId1 in (100,101,102,103,104,105, .....)' - There could be a hundred in that list I will disallow class level search. That is I will force selection of a class and category The Ids would be integers. I am trying to see performance issues and other issues. Overall, would this work? or I need to throw this out and start from scratch.

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  • How to access this data in PHP?

    - by George Edison
    Okay. Now I give up. I have been playing with this for hours. I have a variable name $data. The variable contains these contents: array ( 'headers' => array ( 'content-type' => 'multipart/alternative; boundary="_689e1a7d-7a0a-442a-bd6c-a1fb1dc2993e_"', ), 'ctype_parameters' => array ( 'boundary' => '_689e1a7d-7a0a-442a-bd6c-a1fb1dc2993e_', ), 'parts' => array ( 0 => stdClass::__set_state(array( 'headers' => array ( 'content-type' => 'text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"', 'content-transfer-encoding' => 'quoted-printable', ), 'ctype_primary' => 'text', )), ), ) I removed some non-essential data. I want to access the headers value (on the second line above) - simple: $data->headers I want to access the headers value (on the fourteenth line after the stdClass:: stuff) - how? How can I possibly access the values within the stdClass::__set_state section? I tried var_export($data->parts); but all I get is NULL

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  • Guessess of my session value conflicts

    - by SmartestVEGA
    I have a asp.net web form which will submit information to come as emails. Whenever user fill the form and click on submit button,the information user entered will be sent as email. This web form has 4 page. but the web form will not use all 4 page on all requests. if the user select a particular value in first page, the form will bypass the 3rd page and go the last 4th page(like...page1,2,4). IF it is any other values selected in the first page. form will navigate as page1,2,3,4. So now my problem is when multiple users access the same website, the value in the first page get combines from different users and the form will act abnormally.Sometime it will bypass sometimes it will not bypass the page3 Show below is the variable decalrations: Public strRoleType As String = String.Empty Protected Shared isAreaSelected As Integer = 0 Protected Shared isStoreSelected As Integer = 0 Protected Shared isHeadOfficeSelected As Integer = 0 Protected Shared isRegionSelected As Integer = 0 I guess the problem is with strRoleType variable whether it is getting values from different users. Do any have any work around?

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  • Hi, How can I convert a dynamic web page to pdf?

    - by Jemma Diampuan
    I have a dynamic webpage that I created using html and php... I already have sample codes that can convert a static web page to pdf... But my problem is my web page is dynamic... So is there a way to convert my page to pdf? If yes, please provide some easy to understand codes... thank... Anyway, here is my code: //session variable $userID = 1; $receipt = &new Receipt(); $receipt->queryReceiptInfo($userID); $receiptID = $receipt->getReceiptID(); $receiptIssueDate = $receipt->getReceiptIssueDate(); $customer = $receipt->getCustomer(); $salesID = $receipt->getSalesID(); $salesDetail = &new SalesDetail($salesID); $salesDetails = $salesDetail->viewSalesDetail(); //session variable $businessID = 1; $business = &new Business('', $businessID); $business->queryBusinessName(); $businessName = $business->getBusinessName(); $rows = sizeof($salesDetails); $columns = sizeof($salesDetails[0]); ? Receipt No. Date Issued Business Customer Item Quantity Sub-Total "; for($j = 0; $j ".$salesDetails[$i][$j].""; } $totalPrice += (double)$salesDetails[$i][2]; echo ""; } ? Total Price

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  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

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  • How to draw multiple rectangles using c#

    - by Nivas
    I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect[count] = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect[count] = new Rectangle(rect[count].Left, rect[count].Top, e.X - rect[count].Left, e.Y - rect[count].Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); count++: break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect[count].Top; label1[count].Left = rect[count].Left; label1.Width = rect[count].Width; label1.Height = rect[count].Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect[count]); } } } } } How can i do this.....

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  • Makefile trickery using VPATH and include.

    - by roe
    Hi, I'm playing around with make files and the VPATH variable. Basically, I'm grabbing source files from a few different places (specified by the VPATH), and compile them into the current directory using simply a list of .o-files that I want. So far so good, now I'm generating dependency information into a file called '.depend' and including that. Gnumake will attempt to use the rules defined so far to create the included file if it doesn't exist, so that's ok. Basically, my makefile looks like this. VPATH=A/source:B/source:C/source objects=first.o second.o third.o executable: $(objects) .depend: $(objects:.o=.c) $(CC) -MM $^ > $@ include .depend Now for the real question, can I suppress the generation of the .depend file in any way? I'm currently working in a clearcase environment - sloooow, so I'd prefer to have it a bit more under control when to update the dependency information. It's more or less an academic exercise as I could just wrap the thing in a script which is touching the .depend file before executing make (thus making it more recent than any source file), but it'd interesting to know if I can somehow suppress it using 'pure' make. I cannot remove the dependency to the source files (i.e. using simply .depend:), as I'm depending on the $^ variable to do the VPATH resolution for me. If there'd be any way to only update dependencies as a result of updated #include directives, that'd be even better of course.. But I'm not holding my breath for that one.. :)

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