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  • Make an image transparent in IE to show non-transparent background

    - by Select0r
    Hi, I'm trying to get this thing to work in IE (any version - works in FF, Opera, Safari, Chrome ...): I have a DIV with a background-image. The DIV also contains an image that should be transparent onMouseOver. The expected behaviour now is that the DIV-background would shine through the transparent image (which it does in all browsers but IE). Instead it looks like the image is getting transparent but on a white background, I can't see the DIV's background through the image. Here's some code: <div><a href="#" class"dragItem"><img /></a></div> And some CSS: .dojoDndItemOver { cursor : pointer; filter : alpha(opacity = 50); opacity : 0.5; -moz-opacity : 0.5; -khtml-opacity : 0.5; } .dragItem:hover { filter : alpha(opacity = 30); opacity : 0.3; -moz-opacity : 0.3; -khtml-opacity : 0.3; background : none; } All of this is embedded in a Dojo Drag-n-Drop-system, so dojoDndItemOver will automatically be set to the DIV on MouseOver, dragItem is set to the href around the image (using the same class on the image directly doesn't work at all as IE doesn't support "hover" on other items that href). Any ideas? Or is it an IE-speciality to just "simulate" transparency on images by somehow just greying them out instead of providing real transparency and showing whatever is beneath?

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  • py2app, pyObjc & macports compilation errors

    - by Neewok
    Hi, I'm currently writing a small python app that embeds cherrypy and django using py2app. It worked well until I tried to include pyobjc in my project, since my app needed a small GUI (which consists of a small icon in the top menu bar + a drop down menu). I can run my python script without any problem (I'm using python 2.6 with macports), but I can't launch the application bundle generated by py2app. A dialog box appears with the following message: ImportError: dlopen(/Users/denis/tlon/standalone/mac/dist/django_cherry.app/Contents/Resources/lib/python2.6/lib-dynload/CoreFoundation/_inlines.so, 2): no suitable image found. Did find: /Users/denis/tlon/standalone/mac/dist/django_cherry.app/Contents/Resources/lib/python2.6/lib-dynload/CoreFoundation/_inlines.so: mach-o, but wrong architecture I did a quick : sudo port -u install py26-pyobjc +universal but for some reason macports tries to build openssl, with which compilation fails each time. It seems the problem is related to zLib - this is what appears in the logs : :info:build ld: warning: in /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib, file is not of required architecture ...And here is the output of file /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib : /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib: Mach-O universal binary with 2 architectures /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit dynamically linked shared library x86_64 /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib (for architecture i386): Mach-O dynamically linked shared library i386 Nothing looks wrong to me. I'm a bit stuck here. I don't even understand what openssl has to do with pyObjc, but it looks like I can't go anywhere if I don't manage to compile it. Macports really suck sometimes :/ EDIT I manage to fix Macports issue, but not py2app one. If I get it right, py2app try to create a 32-bits app, while Core Foundation files on Snow Leopard are for 64 bits architectures. Damn. Either I build this on Leopard, either I have to find a way to create a 64bit app with py2app, but then Snow Leopard only.

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  • ASP.NET Applications Requests/Sec suddenly jumps to a value of about 70 million/sec. on 8 core web

    - by Subhrajit Roy
    We are doing performance testing of an ASP.NET web application with VSTS 2008. We start with 2000 users and slowly ramp up to 5000 users (reaches this user load at around 2.5 hours after the tests start, after this we stay at this user load). The total test duration is of about 6 hours During these runs we have found that the counter Requests/Sec (under category ASP.NET applications) suddenly spikes to a values of 36-72 millions !!!. This keeps on happening intermittently i.e we see this issue once in every 3 performance runs that we give on the same application. In our testing environment we have 4 web servers and interestingly enough we have found that this issue occurs only in the 8 core web servers. Summarizing ... Issue : The counter Requests/Sec (under category ASP.NET Applications) suddenly jumps to a value of about 70 million/sec. on 8 core web servers. This results in an increase in SQL server connections opened by the application. Response time goes for a toss. Error rates also show similar behaviour. However the counter ISAPI Extention Requests/sec does not show any abnormal increase. The graph of this counter almost overlaps with that of counter Requests/Sec till the time of the appearance of the spike.When the spike appears , this counter (ISAPI Extention Requests/sec) actually shows a drop. Test Settings : Performance test run with Visual Studio Team System 2008. Soak test run for 6 hours. Maximum user load 5000 users. This is load is attained at about 2.5 hours into the run and mainted for remaining duration.(i.e for around 3.5 more hrs) This issue is reproducible though happens intermittently. (i.e occurs one in three or four runs) Test Environment : Web site deployed on 4 Web Servers (Windows Server 2003). Of these 2 are 4 core machines and the remaining 2 are 8 core ones. .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 installed on all 4 web servers. Application hosted on IIS 6.0 run in Worker process isolation mode.

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  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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  • Populating JavaScript Array from JSP List

    - by tkeE2036
    Ok so perhaps someone can help me with a problem I'm trying to solve. Essentially I have a JSP page which gets a list of Country objects (from the method referenceData() from a Spring Portlet SimpleFormController, not entirely relevant but just mentioning in case it is). Each Country object has a Set of province objects and each province and country have a name field: public class Country { private String name; private Set<Province> provinces; //Getters and setters } public class Province { private String name; //Getters and setters } Now I have two drop down menus in my JSP for countries and provinces and I want to filter the provinces by country. I've been following this tutorial/guide to make a chain select in JavaScript. Now I need a dynamic way to create the JavaScript array from my content. And before anyone mentions AJAX this is out of the question since our project uses portlets and we'd like to stay away from using frameworks like DWR or creating a servlet. Here is the JavaScript/JSP I have so far but it is not populating the Array with anything: var countries = new Array(); <c:forEach items="${countryList}" var="country" varStatus="status"> countries[status.index] = new Array(); countries[status.index]['country'] = ${country.name}; countries[status.index]['provinces'] = [ <c:forEach items="${country.provinces}" var="province" varStatus="provinceStatus"> '${province.name}' <c:if test="${!provinceStatus.last}"> , </c:if> </c:forEach> ]; </c:forEach> Does anyone know how to create an JavaScript array in JSP in the case above or what the 'best-practice' would be considered in this case? Thanks in advance!

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  • Limit foreign key choices in select in an inline form in admin

    - by mightyhal
    Edited :-) Hopefully a bit clearer now. The logic is of the model is: A Building has many Rooms A Room may be inside another Room (a closet, for instance--ForeignKey on 'self') A Room can only in inside of another Room in the same building (this is the tricky part) Here's the code I have: #spaces/models.py from django.db import models class Building(models.Model): name=models.CharField(max_length=32) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Room(models.Model): number=models.CharField(max_length=8) building=models.ForeignKey(Building) inside_room=models.ForeignKey('self',blank=True,null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.number and: #spaces/admin.py from ex.spaces.models import Building, Room from django.contrib import admin class RoomAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): pass class RoomInline(admin.TabularInline): model = Room extra = 2 class BuildingAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines=[RoomInline] admin.site.register(Building, BuildingAdmin) admin.site.register(Room) The inline will display only rooms in the current building (which is what I want). The problem, though, is that for the inside_room drop down, it displays all of the rooms in the Rooms table (including those in other buildings). In the inline of rooms, I need to limit the inside_room choices to only rooms which are in the current building being displayed by the main form. I can't figure out a way to do it with either a limit_choices_to in the model, nor can I figure out how exactly to override the admin's inline formset properly (I feel like I should be somehow create a custom inline form, pass the building_id of the main form to the custom inline, then limit the queryset for the field's choices based on that--but I just can't wrap my head around how to do it). Maybe this is too complex for the admin site, but it seems like something that would be generally useful... Thanks again for your help!

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  • Unable to read in my custom .config section

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, NOTE: this is very very similar to this SO question, but I need some more help. i'm trying to make the following section in my .config file, but i get an exception when trying to access this section. .config file <configSections> <section name="foos" type="Ackbar.Mvc.Models.Foo.FooCollection, Ackbar.Mvc" requirePermission="false"/> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <foos> <add name="aaa" something="zzz"/> <add name="bbb" something="yyy"/> <add name="ccc" something="xxx"/> </foos> Ok, so this means i need to make two classes classes public class FooCollection : ConfigurationElementCollection { ... with my custom overrides, etc. ... } and public class FooElement : ConfigurationElement { [ConfigurationProperty("Name", IsRequired = true)] public string Name { .. } [ConfigurationProperty("Something ", IsRequired = true)] public string Something { .. } [ConfigurationProperty("IsDefault ", IsRequired = false, DefaultValue = false)] public bool IsDefault { .. } } Kewl. Now, when i do the following .... var whatever = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("foos") is throws the following exception :- An error occurred creating the configuration section handler for foos: Type 'Ackbar.Mvc.Models.Foos.FooCollection' does not inherit from 'System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler'. Can someone please help me? I don't want to wrap the collection INSIDE a parent section. Cheers :)

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  • Experience migrating legacy Cobol/PL1 to Java

    - by MadMurf
    ORIGINAL Q: I'm wondering if anyone has had experience of migrating a large Cobol/PL1 codebase to Java? How automated was the process and how maintainable was the output? How did the move from transactional to OO work out? Any lessons learned along the way or resources/white papers that may be of benefit would be appreciated. EDIT 7/7: Certainly the NACA approach is interesting, the ability to continue making your BAU changes to the COBOL code right up to the point of releasing the JAVA version has merit for any organization. The argument for procedural Java in the same layout as the COBOL to give the coders a sense of comfort while familiarizing with the Java language is a valid argument for a large organisation with a large code base. As @Didier points out the $3mil annual saving gives scope for generous padding on any BAU changes going forward to refactor the code on an ongoing basis. As he puts it if you care about your people you find a way to keep them happy while gradually challenging them. The problem as I see it with the suggestion from @duffymo to Best to try and really understand the problem at its roots and re-express it as an object-oriented system is that if you have any BAU changes ongoing then during the LONG project lifetime of coding your new OO system you end up coding & testing changes on the double. That is a major benefit of the NACA approach. I've had some experience of migrating Client-Server applications to a web implementation and this was one of the major issues we encountered, constantly shifting requirements due to BAU changes. It made PM & scheduling a real challenge. Thanks to @hhafez who's experience is nicely put as "similar but slightly different" and has had a reasonably satisfactory experience of an automatic code migration from Ada to Java. Thanks @Didier for contributing, I'm still studying your approach and if I have any Q's I'll drop you a line.

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  • Javascript: Controlling the order that event handlers / listeners are exeucted in

    - by LRE
    Once again the IE Monster has hit me with an odd problem. I'm writing some changes into an asp.net site I inherited a while back. One of the problems is that in some pages there are several controls that add javascript functions as handlers to the onload event (using YUI if that matters). Some of those event handlers assume certain other functions have been executed. This is well and good in Firefox and IE7 as the handlers seem to execute in order of registration. IE8 on the other hand does this backwards. I could go with some kind of double-checking approach but given the controls are present in several pages I feel that'd create even more dependencies. So I've started cooking up my own queue class that I push the functions to and can control their execution order. Then I'll register an onload handler that instructs the queue to execute in my preferred order. I'm part way through that and have started wondering 2 things: Am I going OTT? Am I reinventing the wheel? Anyone have any insights? Any clean solutions that allow me to easily enforce execution order?

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  • javascript class calling XMLHttpRequest internally, then handling onreadystatechange

    - by Radu M
    this thing almost works: function myClass(url) { this.source = url; this.rq = null; this.someOtherProperty = "hello"; // open connection to the ajax server this.start = function() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { this.rq = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (this.rq.overrideMimeType) this.rq.overrideMimeType("text/xml"); } else this.rq = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); try { this.rq.onreadystatechange = connectionEvent; this.rq.open("GET", this.source, true); this.rq.send(null); this.state = 1; } catch (err) { // some error handler here } } function connectionEvent() { alert("i'm here"); alert("this doesnt work: " + this.someOtherProperty); } } // myClass so it's nothing more than having the XMLHttpRequest object as a member of my class, instead of globally defined, and invoking it in the traditional way. however, inside my connectionEvent callback function, the meaning of "this" is lost, even though the function itself is scoped inside myClass. i also made sure that the object that i instantiate from myClass is kept alive long enough (declared global in the script). in all the examples of using javascript classes that i saw, "this" was still available inside the inner functions. for me, it is not, even if i take my function outside and make it a myClass.prototype.connectionEvent. what am i doing wrong? thank you.

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  • PHP Simple DOM Parser

    - by Junior Coder
    Hi guys I'm using this wonderful class here to do a bit of code embed filtering: http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/. It extends the PHP DOM document class. Pretty much what I am doing is parsing a string through this class that contains embed code, i grab the unique bits of information eg id, width, height send through a handler function which inserts the id, width, height etc into my predefined "safe" template and reinsert my safe template in the place of the embed code the user has put in. May seem a backward way of doing it but it's the way it has to be done :) All of that works fine. Problem is when there is more than just embed code contained in the string, as I can't just replace the embed code i can only replace the entire string which wipes the rest of the tags etc string. For example if there were a p tag that would be wiped. So my question is how using this class can i just replace the certain part of the string? Spent the last few days trying to work this out and need some more input. It appears the class can do this so i'm stumped. Here's a basic version of what i have so far :) // load the class $html = new simple_html_dom(); // load the entire string containing everything user entered here $return = $html->load($string); // check for embed tags if($html->find('embed') == true { foreach($html->find('embed') as $element) { // send it off to the function which returns a new safe embed code $element = create_new_embed($parameters); // this is where i somehow i need to save the changes and send it back to $return } } Any input would be gratefully appreciated. If i have explained my problem well enough please let me know :)

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  • Trigger element's onclick method with JQuery [ASP.NET]

    - by blu
    I have an ASP.NET server control that inherits from CheckBoxList that renders the controls with a UL and LIs. The control is set to AutoPostBack. Markup: <div id="foo"> <ul> <li> <input type="checkbox" onclick="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(..." ... /> <label ... /> </li> </ul> </div> I would like to trigger the JavaScript that is rendered on the CheckBox when the parent LI is clicked. Here is what I have so far: $("#foo li").click(function() { $(this).find("input:eq(0)").trigger("click"); }); This fires a postback in FF 3.x but the event handler in the codebehind is not fired. In IE 7 a script error comes up and the browser just kind of hangs there for a bit then reloads the page. How should I be doing this?

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  • Reliable strtotime() result for different languages

    - by Maksee
    There was always a strange bug in Joomla when adding new article with back-end displayed with a language other than English (for me it's Russian). The field "Finish Publishing" started to be current date instead of "Never" equivalent in Russian. For a site in php4 finally found that strtotime function returns different results for arbitrary words. For "Never" it always -1 and joomla relies on this result in the JDate implementation. But in other case it sometimes returns a valid date. For russian translation of Never (???????) it is the case, but also for single "N" it is the case, so if one decided to change the string to some other he or she would face the same issue. So the code below <?php echo "Res:".strtotime("N")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Nev")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Neve")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Never")."<br>"; ?> Outputs: Res:1271120400 Res:-1 Res:-1 Res:-1 So what are the solutions would be in this case? I would like not to write language-specific date.php handler, but to modify date method of JDate class, but what are language-neutral changes would be in order to detect invalid string. Thank you

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  • Objective-C memory model

    - by TofuBeer
    I am attempting to wrap my head around one part of the Objective-C memory model (specifically on the iPhone, so no GC). My background is C/C++/Java, and I am having an issue with the following bit of code (also wondering if I am doing this in an "Objective-C way" or not): - (NSSet *) retrieve { NSMutableSet *set; set = [NSMutableSet new]; // would normally fill the set in here with some data return ([set autorelease]); } - (void) test { NSSet *setA; NSSet *setB; setA = [self retrieve]; setB = [[self retrieve] retain]; [setA release]; [setB release]; } start EDIT Based on comments below, the updated retrieve method: - (NSSet *) retrieve { NSMutableSet *set; set = [[[NSMutableSet alloc] initWithCapacity:100] autorelease]; // would normally fill the set in here with some data return (set); } end EDIT The above code gives a warning for [setA release] "Incorrect decrement of the reference count of an object is not owned at this point by the caller". I though that the "new" set the reference count to 1. Then the "retain" call would add 1, and the "release" call would drop it by 1. Given that wouldn't setA have a reference count of 0 at the end and setB have a reference count of 1 at the end? From what I have figured out by trial and error, setB is correct, and there is no memory leak, but I'd like to understand why that is the case (what is wrong with my understanding of "new", "autorelease", "retain", and "release").

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  • How can I call from my PC through my cisco ip phone?

    - by Enjoy coding
    Hi gurus, I am trying to call a telephone number fro my PC through my ip phone once my application completes its work. So I am searching for a way to access my ip phone from my PC. Please correct me if I am wrong or missing the obvious. On my PC in office selecting a phone in Microsoft office communicator and making calls from PC through my Cisco IP Phone is disabled. Is there any way i can programmatically call a external phone or mobile number from my PC as my ip phone is connected to my PC. I tried out etQuickDial and Make/Drop calls. But I am not able to find the appropriate way or setup to make calls. I also googled for any libraries and i saw some TAPI but was not able to get correct way. Please help me out with this. My cisco ip phone is 7940. My environment is Windows XP. Please let me know if you need more details. No problems with me even if you propose a solution involving coding or a non coding way of downloading and installing any applications. Thanks in advance. If you dont want me to post it here and If I need to put it in super user or server fault or some where else please direct me appropriately. I did not use any of these two before so I posted this question here.

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  • Enable/disable RequiredValidator on client-side / CustomValidator not firing

    - by Simeon
    I've got a drop-down where the user selects a Country. It is a required "field". Next to it, there is a textfield named State. If the user selects US, then the field State is required. If the user selects e.g. Sweden, the State is not required, since Sweden has no states. Example code: <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="Country"></asp:DropDownList> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ControlToValidate="Country" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="State"></asp:TextBox> <asp:CustomValidator ClientValidationFunction="DoesntGetFiredIfStateIsEmpty" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> <!-- SO, RATHER THIS TOGETHER WITH CONDITIONAL FIRING --> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ControlToValidate="State" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> My question to you is: How can I make this CustomValidator fire validation when it is empty? Or put simplier: How can I make a RequiredValidator fire conditionally? Or simplest: How can I enable/disable a RequiredValidator on client-side?

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  • Thumbnail Provider not working

    - by Dan
    I'm trying to write a Windows Explorer thumbnail handler for our custom file type. I've got this working fine for the preview pane, but am having trouble getting it to work for the thumbnails. Windows doesn't even seem to be trying to call the DllGetClassObject entry point. Before I continue, note that I'm using Windows 7 and unmanaged C++. I've registered the following values in the registry: HKCR\CLSID\<my guid> HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32 (default value being path to my DLL) HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32\ThreadingModel (value = "Apartment") HKCR\.<my ext>\shellex\{E357FCCD-A995-4576-B01F-234630154E96} (value = my guid) I've also tried using the Win SDK sample, and that doesn't work. And also the sample project in this article (http://www.codemonkeycodes.com/2010/01/11/ithumbnailprovider-re-visited/), and that doesn't work. I'm new to shell programming, so not really sure the best way of debugging this. I've tried attaching the debugger to explorer.exe, but that doesn't seem to work (breakpoints get disabled, and none of my OutputDebugStrings get displayed in the output window). Note that I tried setting the "DesktopProcess" in the registry as described in the WinSDK docs for debugging the shell, but I'm still only seeing one explorer.exe in the task manager - so that "may" be why I can't debug it?? Any help with this would be greatly appreciated! Regards, Dan.

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  • Detecting browser capabilities and selective events for mouse and touch

    - by skidding
    I started using touch events for a while now, but I just stumbled upon quite a problem. Until now, I checked if touch capabilities are supported, and applied selective events based on that. Like this: if(document.ontouchmove === undefined){ //apply mouse events }else{ //apply touch events } However, my scripts stopped working in Chrome5 (which is currently beta) on my computer. I researched it a bit, and as I expected, in Chrome5 (as opposed to older Chrome, Firefox, IE, etc.) document.ontouchmove is no longer undefined but null. At first I wanted to submit a bug report, but then I realized: There are devices that have both mouse and touch capabilities, so that might be natural, maybe Chrome now defines it because my OS might support both types of events. So the solutions seems easy: Apply BOTH event types. Right? Well the problem now take place on mobile. In order to be backward compatible and support scripts that only use mouse events, mobile browsers might try to fire them as well (on touch). So then with both mouse and touch events set, a certain handler might be called twice every time. What is the way to approach this? Is there a better way to check and apply selective events, or must I ignore the problems that might occur if browsers fire both touch and mouse events at times?

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  • How to continuously scroll content within a DIV using jQuery?

    - by Camsoft
    Aim The aim is to a have a container DIV with a fixed height and width and have the HTML content within that DIV automatically scroll vertically continuously. Question Basically I've created the code below using jQuery to scroll (move) the child DIV vertically upwards until its outside the bounding parent box where the animation then completes which triggers an event handler which resets the position of the child DIV and starts the process again. This works fine, so the content scrolls up leaving a blank space and then starts from the bottom again and scrolls up. The problem I have is that the requirements for this is for the content to appear as if it was continuously repeating, see below diagram to better explain this, is there a way to do this? (I don't want to use 3rd party plug ins or libraries other than jQuery): What I have so far The HTML: <div id="scrollingContainer"> <div class="scroller"> <h1>This is a title</h1> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Suspendisse at orci mi, id gravida tellus. Integer malesuada ante sit amet enim pulvinar congue. Donec pulvinar dolor et arcu posuere feugiat id et felis.</p> <p>More content....</p> </div> </div> The CSS: #scrollingContainer{ height: 300px; width: 300px; overflow: hidden; } #scrollingContainer DIV.scroller{ position: relative; } The JavaScript: /** * Scrolls the content DIV */ function scroll() { if($('DIV.scroller').height() > $('#scrollingContainer').height()) { var t = $('DIV.scroller').position().top + $('DIV.scroller').height(); /* Animate */ $('DIV.scroller').animate( { top: '-=' + t + 'px' } , 4000, 'linear', animationComplete); } } function animationComplete() { $(this).css('top', $('#scrollingContainer').height()); scroll(); }

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  • Webservice returning 403 error

    - by user48408
    I'm wondering whether I'm receiving the 403 errors because there are too many attempted connections being made to the webservice. If this is the case how do I get around it? I've tried creating a new instance of InternalWebService each time and disposing of the old one but I get the same problem. I've disabled the firewall and the webservice is located locally at the moment. I beginning to think it may be a problem with the credentials but the control tree is populated via the webservice at some stage. If I browse to the webmethods in my browser I can run them all. I return an instance of the webservice from my login handler loginsession.cs: static LoginSession() { ... g_NavigatorWebService = new InternalWebService(); g_NavigatorWebService.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; ... } public static InternalWebService NavigatorWebService { get { return g_NavigatorWebService; } } I have a tree view control which uses the webservice to populate itself. IncidentTreeViewControl.cs: public IncidentTreeView() { InitializeComponent(); m_WebService = LoginSession.NavigatorWebService; ... } public void Populate() { m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByClientComplete), null); m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByDepartment(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByDepartmentComplete), null); ... } private void IncidentSummaryByClientComplete(IAsyncResult ar) { MyTypedDataSet data = m_WebService.EndGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(ar); //403 ..cont... } I'm getting the 403 on the last line.

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  • SL 3 navigation not working!

    - by Silver Gun
    Hey Guys I converted all my existing Silverlight app UserControls to Pages so I could use the Navigation Framework. Anyway so I created a UserControl called MyFrame, which would host all the pages. In my App.xaml.cs I have the following to make sure that MyFrame is loaded when the App loads: private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { this.RootVisual = new MyFrame(); } My UriMapper class resides in App.xaml and looks like the following: <navcore:UriMapper x:Key="uriMapper"> <navcore:UriMapping Uri="Login" MappedUri="Login.xaml"> </navcore:UriMapper> Within my 'MyFrame' class, I have the following <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <HyperlinkButton Tag="Login" Content="Login" Click="HyperlinkButton_Click" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <navigation:Frame x:Name="ContentFrame" Style="{StaticResource ContentFrameStyle}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> And within the callback for my HyperlinkButton's event handler, I have the following: private void HyperlinkButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ContentFrame.Navigate(new Uri((sender as HyperlinkButton).Tag.ToString(), UriKind.Relative)); } The Login.xaml file is in my root folder (right under Project). This navigation does not seem to work! The exception I get reads like so: Navigation is only supported to relative URIs that are fragments, or begin with '/', or which contain ';component/'. Parameter name: uri The Login page does not load. There is no problem with Login.xaml as when I set this.RootVisual = new Login(); the page loads just fine. I also tried setting the NavigateUri attribute of the HyperlinkButton to "Login." No cigar. I'll appreciate any help! Thanks a lot in advance

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  • Changing URI suffix in Joomla when adding child php pages

    - by Sleem
    I have added a new directory in my joomla website: http://sitedomain.tld/xxx/ then I have added index.php in that directory here is the code define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', '..' ); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( '../includes/defines.php' ); require_once ( '../includes/framework.php' ); //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark( 'afterLoad' ) : null; /** * CREATE THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $template_name = $mainframe->getTemplate();; $mainframe->initialise(); JPluginHelper::importPlugin('system'); /** * ROUTE THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe->route(); // authorization $Itemid = JRequest::getInt( 'Itemid'); $mainframe->authorize($Itemid); // trigger the onAfterRoute events //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark('afterRoute') : null; //$mainframe->triggerEvent('onAfterRoute'); /** * DISPATCH THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $option = JRequest::getCmd('option'); //$mainframe->dispatch($option); // trigger the onAfterDispatch events //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark('afterDispatch') : null; //$mainframe->triggerEvent('onAfterDispatch'); /** * RENDER THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe->render(); /** * RETURN THE RESPONSE */ var_dump($document->getHeadData()); echo JResponse::toString($mainframe->getCfg('gzip')); sdwdwd wdwd When I view this page in the browser, all the dynamic links like CSS, JS and images were suffixed by the /xxx/ path which make them broken ! How can I drop this suffix or how do I change this suffix from /xxx to / to it points to the original files location? I have tried setting the JDocument::setBase and also tried to play with the JURI object and changed its _path and _uri without any change Thanks

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  • What are the primitive Forth operators?

    - by Barry Brown
    I'm interested in implementing a Forth system, just so I can get some experience building a simple VM and runtime. When starting in Forth, one typically learns about the stack and its operators (DROP, DUP, SWAP, etc.) first, so it's natural to think of these as being among the primitive operators. But they're not. Each of them can be broken down into operators that directly manipulate memory and the stack pointers. Later one learns about store (!) and fetch (@) which can be used to implement DUP, SWAP, and so forth (ha!). So what are the primitive operators? Which ones must be implemented directly in the runtime environment from which all others can be built? I'm not interested in high-performance; I want something that I (and others) can learn from. Operator optimization can come later. (Yes, I'm aware that I can start with a Turing machine and go from there. That's a bit extreme.) Edit: What I'm aiming for is akin to bootstrapping an operating system or a new compiler. What do I need do implement, at minimum, so that I can construct the rest of the system out of those primitive building blocks? I won't implement this on bare hardware; as an educational exercise, I'd write my own minimal VM.

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  • how to fix gateway timeout error in php???

    - by developer
    Iam having a php file that sends text messages on mobile to all the users that i have in my database's particular table. Now the entries are like 2000 or so in number and this number will keep on increasing. On my page there is a small form that selects a list of the users to whom message is to be sent from a drop down and then user writes the text to be sent in a textarea and then on clicking the submit button php script stars sending the messages to mobile numbers. Now while trying to send messages my browser has shown gateway timeout error but the script kept on running and messages are sent to the mobiles but not once but 6 times. I checked my script my query and all the code is correct.This all happened coz of that gateway timeout. Now does this gateway timeout kepts the script running again and again till the browser is not closed?? is this was the reason that a single message was sent 6 times to mobile numbers?? I mean how can i escape my file from getting this gateway error so that one message is sent only one time to a number??

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  • Application get crash while using NSAutoreleasepool inside MKMapview regionDidChangeAnimated method

    - by Ram
    Hi, i am working on a map application, in that i like to drop the pins (as in Zillow apps) when ever user change the map view. I am using following code code. i am try to load the xml data from server using NSAutoreleasepool to do the xml parsing in the background thread. (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView regionDidChangeAnimated:(BOOL)animated{ NSLog(@"inside region did changed "); urlString =[NSString stringWithFormat: @"http://asdfasdasdf.com/asdfasdf/mapxml.php]; [stories1 release]; [mapview removeAnnotations:eventPoints1]; eventPoints1 = [[NSMutableArray array] retain]; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(callParsing) withObject:nil]; } -(void)callParsing{ NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; [self parseXMLFileAtURL:urlString]; [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(droppingPin) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:YES]; [pool drain]; } The above code is working fine, but once i changed the mapview, the appllication get crashed. Anyone can help me to fix the issue? thanks in advance.

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