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  • Join two tables with same # of row but sorted for NULL

    - by VISQL
    I need to join two tables with the same number of rows. Each table has 1 column. There is NO CONNECTING COLUMN to reference for a join. I need to join them side by side because each table was sorted separately so that numeric values are at the top in descinding order. The Table Earners has income values from say 200K down to 0. I cannot just select using 2 cases, because then I will have my first row with Incomes above 100K, but the first 20 or so entries in the second row are NULL. I want the second row to also be sorted descending. I looked up using ORDER BY within CASE but there is no such thing. I have tried to read about row_number() but none of the examples seem to match or make sense. drop table #20plus select case when Income >= 20000 AND Income < 100000 then Income end as 'mula' into #20plus from Earners order by mula desc drop table #100plus select case when Income >= 100000 then Income end as 'dinero' into #100plus from Earners order by dinero desc Select A.dinero, B.mula FROM #100plus as A JOIN #20plus as B ON A.????? = B.????? Since both A and B are sorted descending, moving all NULL to the bottom, what can I reference to join the two tables? Previous output using one SELECT statement with 2 CASE statements dinero mula 2.12688e+007 NULL 1.80031e+007 NULL 1.92415e+006 NULL … … NULL 93530.7 NULL 91000 NULL 84500 Desired output using one SELECT statement after creating two temp TABLES dinero mula 2.12688e+007 93530.7 1.80031e+007 91000 1.92415e+006 84500 … 82500 NULL 82000 NULL … NULL NULL This is Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I'm super new to this, so please give an answer as clear and simplified as possible. Thank you.

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  • Hiding/blocking tabs using windows forms in c#

    - by Audel
    The thing is that i have a 'log in window' and a 'mainwindow' that is called after pressing the log in button or the "VISITANT" button If pressing the log in button, the whole system will come out, and if i press the VISITANT button, one tab should disappear or be blocked or something. private void visitant(object sender, EventArgs e) { mainwindow menu = new mainwindow(); menu.Show(); //mainwindow.tabPage1.Enabled = false; //attempt1 //mainwindow.tabPage1.Visible = false; //attempt1 //System.Windows.Forms.tabPage1.Enabled = false;//attempt2 //System.Windows.Forms.tabPage1.Visible = false;//attempt2 this.Hide(); } the errors i get for using the attempt1 are Error 1 'System.mainwindow.tabPage1' is inaccessible due to its protection level' Error 2 An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, or property 'System.mainwindow.tabPage1' and the one i get for using the attempt2 is Error 1 The type or namespace name 'tabPage1' does not exist in the namespace 'System.Windows.Forms' (are you missing an assembly reference?) as you probably have guessed "tabPage1" is the tab i need to hide when pressing the visitant button. I can't think of any more details, I will be around to provide any extra information Thanks in advance.

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  • JQuery UI Tabs - replace tab and contents

    - by Tauren
    What is the best way to replace the currently selected tab and its contents? The content is dynamically generated with jquery, not loaded via a URL. I need to do this from outside of any tab code or tab event handler (show, add, etc.). There is a link elsewhere on the page that should do the following when clicked: Change the tab's title Change the tab's className Clear out all elements of the tabcontent div Change the tabcontent div's className Generate new content inside the tabcontent div Note that the only reference this link's click() handler has is to the JQuery tabs object ($Tabs). I can get the selected tab with $Tabs.tabs('option','selected'). But how can I get a reference to the selected tab's tab and panel? Inside of a jquery tab handler (show, add, etc.), I have access to ui.tab and ui.panel, but is there a way to get them from a tabs option? Would it be better to simply remove the currently selected tab and then add a new tab in the same index location? I'd have to put the code to generate the tab content into the add() handler then I suppose.

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  • SharpDevelop WIX project: MSBuild Configurations

    - by chezy525
    Using SharpDevelop, I wrote a windows service with a WIX setup project to install/auto-start it. For testing purposes, I've done a number of things I don't want to do in the release version (i.e. add an uninstall shortcut to the desktop). So, my question really boils down to this; how do you handle build configurations within a WiX project? I think I've solved most of my problems after I found this question Passing build parameters to .wxs file to dynamicaly build wix installers. And thus far I've done the following: Added a property that checks the Configuration variable <Product> ... <Property Id="DEBUG">$(var.Configuration) == 'Debug'</Property> ... Separated all of the debug files into unique components and setup as a separate feature with a condition checking the DEBUG property. <Product> ... <Feature> ... <Feature Id="DebugFiles" Level="1"> <ComponentRef Id="UninstallShortcutComponent" /> <Condition Level="0">DEBUG</Condition> </Feature> ... Then, finally, pointing to the correct file based on the configuration, using the Configuration variable <Directory> ... <Component> <File Source="..\mainProject\bin\$(var.Configuration)\main.exe" /> </Component> ... So, now my question is simplified to how to handle files that may not exist under certain build configurations (like .pdb files). Using all of the above (including pointing the file source to the ...\bin\Release\*.pdb, which I know isn't expected to exist) I get a LGHT0103 compiler error, it can't find the file.

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  • Using Reflection.Emit to emit a "using (x) { ... }" block?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I'm trying to use Reflection.Emit in C# to emit a using (x) { ... } block. At the point I am in code, I need to take the current top of the stack, which is an object that implements IDisposable, store this away in a local variable, implement a using block on that variable, and then inside it add some more code (I can deal with that last part.) Here's a sample C# piece of code I tried to compile and look at in Reflector: public void Test() { TestDisposable disposable = new TestDisposable(); using (disposable) { throw new Exception("Test"); } } This looks like this in Reflector: .method public hidebysig instance void Test() cil managed { .maxstack 2 .locals init ( [0] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable disposable, [1] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable CS$3$0000, [2] bool CS$4$0001) L_0000: nop L_0001: newobj instance void LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable::.ctor() L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: nop L_000a: ldstr "Test" L_000f: newobj instance void [mscorlib]System.Exception::.ctor(string) L_0014: throw L_0015: ldloc.1 L_0016: ldnull L_0017: ceq L_0019: stloc.2 L_001a: ldloc.2 L_001b: brtrue.s L_0024 L_001d: ldloc.1 L_001e: callvirt instance void [mscorlib]System.IDisposable::Dispose() L_0023: nop L_0024: endfinally .try L_0009 to L_0015 finally handler L_0015 to L_0025 } I have no idea how to deal with that ".try ..." part at the end there when using Reflection.Emit. Can someone point me in the right direction?

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  • pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • PHP - Select from database the same query

    - by How to PHP
    I created a table that contains the name of the user and his job, and created PHP page that shows me all the users that works doctor, I entered doctor into a variable then I selected from the table where Jobs equal to $doctor, that is great, but I need it to get the same Jobs into a table in the page and the other same jobs into a table in the same page. this is my code that shows only the users works doctor in one table, <html> <h1>Doctors</h1> </html> <?php mysql_connect('localhost','root',''); mysql_select_db('data'); $doctor='doctor'; $query= mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `job` = '$doctor'")or die(mysql_error()); while ($arr = mysql_fetch_array($query)) $name= $arr['name']; echo $name; } ?> That shows me doctors when I put doctor in a variable I want to show all same Jobs in a table. Is there is a way to do this? Thanks :)

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  • Delete ONE SPECIFIC table of a database - leave the rest intact

    - by Jayomat
    Hi, I have a database where I store two different kinds of data. One table is for favorite routes, the other stores the retrieved routes from a server. I can retrieve the routes etc just fine. But after retrieving the first Route, pressing back or HOME, and then retrieving another route, the routes table is filled with all the old routes plus the new ones. So my question: how do I delete ONLY the routes table and not the whole database because I don't want to delete the added favorites....?! I found the following function in the android docs: public int delete (String table, String whereClause, String[] whereArgs) and I tried to implement it, but I must pass a SQLiteDataBase as an argument. But how? I implemented: public void deleteTableRoutes(SQLiteDataBase db){ db.delete("routes", null, null); } But I want to call this function from a different class where I have no reference to the database.. so what do I have to pass as an argument? Or how do I get a reference to my database? I build my database upon the code example of the NotePadExample from the dev docs. How to solve this problem? thanks

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  • Are there pitfalls to using static class/event as an application message bus

    - by Doug Clutter
    I have a static generic class that helps me move events around with very little overhead: public static class MessageBus<T> where T : EventArgs { public static event EventHandler<T> MessageReceived; public static void SendMessage(object sender, T message) { if (MessageReceived != null) MessageReceived(sender, message); } } To create a system-wide message bus, I simply need to define an EventArgs class to pass around any arbitrary bits of information: class MyEventArgs : EventArgs { public string Message { get; set; } } Anywhere I'm interested in this event, I just wire up a handler: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoSomething(); Likewise, triggering the event is just as easy: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.SendMessage(this, new MyEventArgs() {Message="hi mom"}); Using MessageBus and a custom EventArgs class lets me have an application wide message sink for a specific type of message. This comes in handy when you have several forms that, for example, display customer information and maybe a couple forms that update that information. None of the forms know about each other and none of them need to be wired to a static "super class". I have a couple questions: fxCop complains about using static methods with generics, but this is exactly what I'm after here. I want there to be exactly one MessageBus for each type of message handled. Using a static with a generic saves me from writing all the code that would maintain the list of MessageBus objects. Are the listening objects being kept "alive" via the MessageReceived event? For instance, perhaps I have this code in a Form.Load event: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoReload(); When the Form is Closed, is the Form being retained in memory because MessageReceived has a reference to its DoReload method? Should I be removing the reference when the form closes: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived -= (s,e) => DoReload();

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  • What is the Proper approach for Constructing a PhysicalAddress object from Byte Array

    - by Paul Farry
    I'm trying to understand what the correct approach for a constructor that accepts a Byte Array with regard to how it stores it's data (specifically with PhysicalAddress) I have an array of 6 bytes (theAddress) that is constructed once. I have a source array of 18bytes (theAddresses) that is loaded from a TCP Connection. I then copy the 6bytes from theAddress+offset into theAddress and construct the PhysicalAddress from it. Problem is that the PhysicalAddress just stores the Reference to the array that was passed in. Therefore if you subsequently check the addresses they only ever point to the last address that was copied in. When I took a look inside the PhysicalAddress with reflector it's easy to see what's going on. public PhysicalAddress(byte[] address) { this.changed = true; this.address = address; } Now I know this can be solved by creating theAddress array on each pass, but I wanted to find out what really is the best practice for this. Should the constructor of an object that accepts a byte array create it's own private Variable for holding the data and copy it from the original Should it just hold the reference to what was passed in. Should I just created theAddress on each pass in the loop

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  • Using Parameter Values In SQL Statement

    - by Dangerous
    I am trying to write a database script (SQL SERVER 2008) which will copy information from database tables on one server to corresponding tables in another database on a different server. I have read that the correct way to do this is to use a sql statement in a format similar to the following: INSERT INTO <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> SELECT * FROM <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> As there will be several tables being copied, I would like to declare variables at the top of the script to allow the user to specify the names of each server and database that are to be used. These could then be used throughout the script. However, I am not sure how to use the variable values in the actual SQL statements. What I want to achieve is something like the following: DECLARE @SERVER_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerFrom' DECLARE @DATABASE_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' DECLARE @SERVER_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerTo' DECLARE @DATABASE_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' INSERT INTO @SERVER_TO.@DATABASE_TO.dbo.TableName SELECT * FROM @SERVER_FROM.@DATABASE_FROM.dbo.TableName ... How should I use the @ variables in this code in order for it to work correctly? Additionally, do you think my method above is correct for what I am trying to achieve and should I be using NVARCHAR(50) as my variable type or something else? Thanks

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  • Azure Table Storage rejects an entity with a Property whose value is an Interface

    - by Andrew B Schultz
    I have a type called "Comment" that I'm saving to Azure Table Storage. Since a comment can be about any number of other types, I created an interface which all of these types implement, and then put a property of type ICommentable on the comment. So Comment has a property called About of type ICommentable. When I try to save a Comment to Azure Table Storage, if the Comment.About property has a value, I get the worthless invalid input error. However, if there is no value for Comment.About, I have no problem. Why would this be? Comment.About is not the only property that is a reference type. For example, Comment.From is a reference type, but the Comment.About is the only property of a type that is an interface. Fails: var comment = new Comment(); comment.CommentText = "It fails!"; comment.PartitionKey = "TEST"; comment.RowKey = "TEST123"; comment.About = sow1; comment.From = person1; Works: var comment = new Comment(); comment.CommentText = "It works!"; comment.PartitionKey = "TEST"; comment.RowKey = "TEST123"; //comment.About = sow1; comment.From = person1; Thanks!

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  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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  • Symfony2 Theming form generated by embedded controller action

    - by user1112057
    I am generating the form in embedded controller action. And now i have faced the following problem. The Form Theming is not working in that case. So what i have: The tempalte "page.html.twig" {% block content %} {% render 'MyBundle:Widget:index' %} {% endblock %} The indexAction() creates the form and rendering another template "form.html.twig" which is normally renders a form using form_row, form_rest and so on. So, now i am trying to customize form theming, and here is my problem. When i put the code {% form_theme form _self %} in the page.html.twig, i got an error the the form variable does not exists. And its correct, the form var is created later in the embedded controller. But when i put the theming code in embedded template "form.html.twig", i got another error "Variable "compound" does not exist" {% block form_label %} {% spaceless %} {% if not compound %} {% set label_attr = label_attr|merge({'for': id}) %} {% endif %} {% if required %} {% set label_attr = label_attr|merge({'class': (label_attr.class|default('') ~ ' required')|trim}) %} {% endif %} {% if label is empty %} {% set label = name|humanize %} {% endif %} <label{% for attrname, attrvalue in label_attr %} {{ attrname }}="{{ attrvalue }}"{% endfor %} {% if attr.tooltip is defined %}title="{{ attr.tooltip }}"{% endif %}>{{ label|trans({}, translation_domain) }}{% if required %}<span>*</span>{% endif %}</label> {% endspaceless %} {% endblock form_label %} This part of code was copied from this file https://github.com/symfony/symfony/blob/2.1/src/Symfony/Bridge/Twig/Resources/views/Form/form_div_layout.html.twig So tried someone to do something like this?

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • Private member vector of vector dynamic memory allocation

    - by Geoffroy
    Hello, I'm new to C++ (I learned programming with Fortran), and I would like to allocate dynamically the memory for a multidimensional table. This table is a private member variable : class theclass{ public: void setdim(void); private: std::vector < std::vector <int> > thetable; } I would like to set the dimension of thetable with the function setdim(). void theclass::setdim(void){ this->thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); } I have no problem compiling this program, but as I execute it, I've got a segmentation fault. The strange thing for me is that this piece (see under) of code does exactly what I want, except that it doesn't uses the private member variable of my class : std::vector < std::vector < int > > thetable; thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); By the way, I have no trouble if thetable is a 1D vector. In theclass : std::vector < int > thetable; and if in setdim : this->thetable.assign(1000,2); So my question is : why is there such a difference with "assign" between thetable and this-thetable for a 2D vector? And how should I do to do what I want? Thank-you for your help, Best regards, -- Geoffroy

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  • Handling selection and deselection of objects in a user interface

    - by Dennis
    I'm writing a small audio application (in Silverlight, but that's not really relevant I suppose), and I'm a struggling with a problem I've faced before and never solved properly. This time I want to get it right. In the application there is one Arrangement control, which contains several Track controls, and every Track can contain AudioObject controls (these are all custom user controls). The user needs to be able to select audio objects, and when these objects are selected they are rendered differently. I can make this happen by hooking into the MouseDown event of the AudioObject control and setting state accordingly. So far so good, but when an audio object is selected, all other audio objects need to be deselected (well, unless the user holds the shift key). Audio objects don't know about other audio objects though, so they have no way to tell the rest to deselect themselves. Now if I would approach this problem like I did the last time I would pass a reference to the Arrangement control in the constructor of the AudioObject control and give the Arrangement control a DeselectAll() method or something like that, which would tell all Track controls to deselect all their AudioObject controls. This feels wrong, and if I apply this strategy to similar issues I'm afraid I will soon end up with every object having a reference to every other object, creating one big tightly coupled mess. It feels like opening the floodgates for poorly designed code. Is there a better way to handle this?

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  • ADODB.Connection undefined

    - by Wes Groleau
    Reference http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1690622/excel-vba-to-sql-server-without-ssis After I got the above working, I copied all the global variables/constants from the routine, which included Const CS As String = "Driver={SQL Server};" _ & "Server=**;" _ & "Database=**;" _ & "UID=**;" _ & "PWD=**" Dim DB_Conn As ADODB.Connection Dim Command As ADODB.Command Dim DB_Status As Stringinto a similar module in another spreadsheet. I also copied Sub Connect_To_Lockbox() If DB_Status < "Open" Then Set DB_Conn = New Connection DB_Conn.ConnectionString = CS DB_Conn.Open ' problem! DB_Status = "Open" End If End SubI added the same reference (ADO 2.8) The first spreadsheet still works; the seccond at DB_Conn.Open pops up "Run-time error '-214767259 (80004005)': [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified" Removing the references on both, saving files, re-opening, re-adding the references doesn't help. The one still works and the other gets the error. ?!?

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  • C# ref Confusion

    - by Rahat
    I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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  • When I include only the jQuery 1.4 Library, I get an exception, why?

    - by codeninja
    I keep getting this error all over the place where I only have jquery 1.3 or 1.4 included. "setting a property that has only a getter" and a long list of warnings in the Firefox Error Console. What's going on? I can't find any information on this issue =/ <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en-US"> <head> <title>Demo</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="images/favicon.ico"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/common.css" type="text/css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/modules.css" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> </head> Just some Warning snippets: Warning: reference to undefined property a[++e] Source File: /js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js Line: 30 Warning: reference to undefined property a[0] Source File: /js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js Line: 30 Warning: function oa does not always return a value Source File: /js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js Line: 18, Column: 165 Source Code: th;n<r;n++){j=d[n];a.currentTarget=j.elem;a.data=j.handleObj.data;a.handleObj=j.handleObj;if(j.handleObj.origHandler.apply(j.elem,e)===false){b=false;break}}return b}}function pa(a,b){return"live."+(a&&a!=="*"?a+".":"")+b.replace(/\./g,"`").replace(/ /g,

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  • C# - Referencing a type in a dynamically generated assembly

    - by Ashley
    I'm trying to figure out if it's possible when you are dynamically generating assemblies, to reference a type in a previously dynamically generated assembly. For example: using System; using System.CodeDom.Compiler; using System.Reflection; using Microsoft.CSharp; CodeDomProvider provider = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); parameters.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults results = provider.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, @" namespace Dynamic { public class A { } } "); Assembly assem = results.CompiledAssembly; CodeDomProvider provider2 = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters parameters2 = new CompilerParameters(); parameters2.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(assem.FullName); parameters2.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults results2 = provider2.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, @" namespace Dynamic { public class B : A { } } "); if (results2.Errors.HasErrors) { foreach (CompilerError error in results2.Errors) { Console.WriteLine(error.ErrorText); } } else { Assembly assem2 = results2.CompiledAssembly; } This code prints the following on the console: The type or namespace name 'A' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I've tried it lots of different ways, but nothing seems to be working. Am I missing something? Is this even possible?

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  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

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  • Access Flash Symbol Via Code from an .as Class

    - by David
    Hi, I've got a movie clip symbol in my .fla file that I need to reference in an .as file which is in a subfolder in the project. I select the symbol in the library and edit its properties. Its name is bubble; I Export for ActionScript and Export in frame 1. I give it a class name of Bubble. Now I need to go to my .as class, called SomeClass.as There, I need to reference the symbol, because I want to move it from within related code in that .as file. But if I try bubble.x I get an error. If I try var myBubble:Bubble = new Bubble(); I get 'Access of undefined property myBubble'. I was told that I might try 'importing the document class' but how do you import a class which is in the root directory of your app from within a class that's in a subfolder? (Don't know if this would provide the solution anyway)... Tanks.

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  • What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

    - by R..
    mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

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