Search Results

Search found 9335 results on 374 pages for 'random thoughts'.

Page 316/374 | < Previous Page | 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323  | Next Page >

• Compilig + testing an Android library with the JDK?

  - by Jarle Hansen

  Hi all, I am creating a library for Android that others can include in their own project. So far I have been working on it as a normal Java project with JDK 1.6 setup as system library. This works just fine in Eclipse when I add the android.jar. The issue comes when I try to my build script. I am running Gradle and doing a normal compile and test build cycle. My thoughts were that it does not matter if I compile it with a normal JDK, since this is not a standalone application. The benefits by creating a normal Java project is that Gradle does support this much better. My project also does not contain any UI at all. However, the problem is that of course android.jar and the JDK contains lots of the same classes and I think that this is what messes up my build script. Everything crashes when running the tests (the tests are in the same project under src/test/java). My question is, how should I create this project that is meant to be included in Android projects as a third party library? Should I create it as an Android project in Eclipse even though I am only creating a library that does not use any of the UI features? Also, should the tests be in a separate project? Thanks for all responses!

  Read the article

• Druapl & Regular PHP Integration

  - by user333128

  I'm building a new website which has one core application and many content pages. Content pages are mostly dynamic and I require a way to manage this dynamic content on a regular basis. The core application's main functionality is a 3 step process or reading user data (input page), reading data from MySQL (product page) and submitting an application to an email address (application page). Ideally I would like to build the core application in regular PHP and leverage Drupal for its content management capabilities. Can Drupal and regular PHP be integrated as I suggest easily? My feeling is that coding the core application as a Drupal module(s) will add layers of complexity that could be difficult to code from the outset and maintain later on as the system matures - so I would really like to just use regular PHP. Let me explain where dynamic content (managed by the CMS) intersects with the core application: Dynamic content such as FAQ data is used both on the 'normal' help pages and also within a mini-feed displayed within core application pages down a right hand side column. In this column, 3 random questions are pulled from the database and displayed as a feed. When users click on FAQ question they are not taken away from the core application product page but are instead shown data in a pop-up window displaying the question and answer. In addition, users can browse other questions and answers through a simple navigation menu within this popup. There are 3 such like feeds as I describe above that I require on the core application product page. So, what is the ideal solution here in terms of 'keeping things simple' for both the management of dynamic content and the ease of coding the core application? Can 'regular PHP' and Drupal co-exist 'peacefully'? If so, how is this technically possible? Because there is some content managed by Drupal contained within core application pages, can the core application still be coded in regular PHP? Any advice / suggestions? Thank you! Jim.

  Read the article

• SEO - Does google+other search engines index links within <noscript> tags?

  - by Joe

  I have setup some dropdown menus allowing users to find pages on my website by selecting options across multiple dropdowns: eg. Color of Car, Year This would generate a link like: mysite.xyz/blue/2010/ The only problem is, because this link is dynamically assembled with Javascript, I've also had to assemble each possible combination from the dropdowns into a list like: <noscript> No javascript enabled? Here are all the links: <a href='mysite.xyz/blue/2009/'>mysite.xyz/blue/2009/</a> <a href='mysite.xyz/blue/2010/'>mysite.xyz/blue/2010/</a> <a href='mysite.xyz/red/2009/'>mysite.xyz/red/2009/</a> <a href='mysite.xyz/red/2010/'>mysite.xyz/red/2010/</a> </noscript> My question is, if I put these in a tag like this, will I be penalized or anything by search engines such as Google? I've already been doing so for some navigational stuff which required offsets etc. However, now I would be listing a whole list of links here too. I want to provide them here, moreso so that google can actually index my pages - but for those without javascript, they can still navigate too. Your thoughts? Also.. even though I have some links that appear to have been indexed, I AM NOT 100% SURE, which is why I'm asking :P

  Read the article

• Database Structure for CakePHP Models

  - by Michael T. Smith

  We're building a data tracking web app using CakePHP, and I'm having some issues getting the database structure right. We have Companies that haveMany Sites. Sites haveMany DataSamples. Tags haveAndBelongToMany Sites. That is all set up fine. The problem is "ranking" the sites within tags. We need to store it in the database as an archive. I created a Rank model that is setup like this: rank ( id (int), sample_id (int), tag_id (int), site_id (int), rank (int), total_rows) ) So, the question is, how do I create the associations for tag, site and sample to rank? I originally set them as haveMany. But the returned structures don't get me where I'd like to be. It looks like: [Site] => Array ( [Sample] = Array(), [Tag] = Array() ) When I'm really looking for: [Site] => Array ( [Tag] = Array ( [Sample] => Array ( [Rank] => Array ( ...data... ) ) ) ) I think that I may not be structuring the database properly; so if I need to update please let me know. Otherwise, how do I write a find query that gets me where I need to be? Thanks! Thoughts? Need more details? Just ask!

  Read the article

• when to clear or make null asp .net mvc models?

  - by SARAVAN

  HI, I am working in an asp .net mvc application. I am using the model and storing some of the values which i need to preserve between the page posts, in the form of datacontexts. Say my model looks something like this: public SelectedUser SelectedUserDetails { //get and set has //this.datacontext.data.SelectedUser = ..... //return this.datacontext.data..... } Now when this model needs to be cleared? I have many such models with many properties and datacontext. But I don't have an idea on when to clear it. Is there a way or an event that can be triggered automatically when the model is not used for a long time? Oneway I thought is when i navigate away from a page which uses my underlying model, I can clear that model if its no longer used anywhere and initialise it back as needed. But I need to clear almost many models at many points. Is there an automatic way that can clear models when it is no longer used beacuse care can be taken by my code to initialise them when I need them, but I don't know when to clear them when I no longer need them. I need this to get rid of any memory related issues. Any thoughts or comments?

  Read the article

• How to access a web service behind a NAT?

  - by jr

  We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

  Read the article

• Am I encrypting my passwords correctly in ASP.NET

  - by Nick

  I have a security class: public class security { private static string createSalt(int size) { //Generate a random cryptographic number RNGCryptoServiceProvider rng = new RNGCryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] b = new byte[size]; rng.GetBytes(b); //Convert to Base64 return Convert.ToBase64String(b); } /// <summary> /// Generate a hashed password for comparison or create a new one /// </summary> /// <param name="pwd">Users password</param> /// <returns></returns> public static string createPasswordHash(string pwd) { string salt = "(removed)"; string saltAndPwd = string.Concat(pwd, salt); string hashedPwd = FormsAuthentication.HashPasswordForStoringInConfigFile( saltAndPwd, "sha1"); return hashedPwd; } } This works fine, but I am wondering if it is sufficient enough. Also, is this next block of code better? Overkill? static byte[] encrInitVector = new byte[] { 0x12, 0x34, 0x56, 0x78, 0x90, 0xAB, 0xCD, 0xEF }; static string encrKey = "(removed)"; public static string EncryptString(string s) { byte[] key; try { key = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(encrKey.Substring(0, 8)); DESCryptoServiceProvider des = new DESCryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] inputByteArray = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(s); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); CryptoStream cs = new CryptoStream(ms, des.CreateEncryptor(key, encrInitVector), CryptoStreamMode.Write); cs.Write(inputByteArray, 0, inputByteArray.Length); cs.FlushFinalBlock(); return Convert.ToBase64String(ms.ToArray()); } catch (Exception e) { throw e; }

  Read the article

• Hibernate Transient Extends problem

  - by mrvreddy

  @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseAbstract implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; protected String test = //some random value; public String getTest() { return test; } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } @Entity public class Artist extends BaseAbstract { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private Integer id; @override @Transient public String getTest() { return test; } ..... } My question is... when i am trying to do any operation on the artist, along with id and name, test is also getting saved which should not be the case... if i add the same transient on the baseabstract class getTest() method, i see test column NOT getting created(ideally what it should happen) but if i try to override the method with adding annotaion in the sub class it creates the test column... I dont know why this is happening since when hibernate is creating the artist object and checks for annotations, it should see the transient annotation present on the getTest() of artist method...and should not create a column in the database... Let me know if you need any clarification.... Any response on this is greatly appreciated.... Thank you

  Read the article

• Round date to 10 minutes interval

  - by Peter Lang

  I have a DATE column that I want to round to the next-lower 10 minute interval in a query (see example below). I managed to do it by truncating the seconds and then subtracting the last digit of minutes. WITH test_data AS ( SELECT TO_DATE('2010-01-01 10:00:00', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual UNION SELECT TO_DATE('2010-01-01 10:05:00', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual UNION SELECT TO_DATE('2010-01-01 10:09:59', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual UNION SELECT TO_DATE('2010-01-01 10:10:00', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual UNION SELECT TO_DATE('2099-01-01 10:00:33', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual ) -- #end of test-data SELECT d, TRUNC(d, 'MI') - MOD(TO_CHAR(d, 'MI'), 10) / (24 * 60) FROM test_data And here is the result: 01.01.2010 10:00:00    01.01.2010 10:00:00 01.01.2010 10:05:00    01.01.2010 10:00:00 01.01.2010 10:09:59    01.01.2010 10:00:00 01.01.2010 10:10:00    01.01.2010 10:10:00 01.01.2099 10:00:33    01.01.2099 10:00:00 Works as expected, but is there a better way? EDIT: I was curious about performance, so I did the following test with 500.000 rows and (not really) random dates. I am going to add the results as comments to the provided solutions. DECLARE t TIMESTAMP := SYSTIMESTAMP; BEGIN FOR i IN ( WITH test_data AS ( SELECT SYSDATE + ROWNUM / 5000 d FROM dual CONNECT BY ROWNUM <= 500000 ) SELECT TRUNC(d, 'MI') - MOD(TO_CHAR(d, 'MI'), 10) / (24 * 60) FROM test_data ) LOOP NULL; END LOOP; dbms_output.put_line( SYSTIMESTAMP - t ); END; This approach took 03.24 s.

  Read the article

• SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

  - by akaphenom

  After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• memcmp,strcmp,strncmp in C

  - by el10780

  I wrote this small piece of code in C to test memcmp() strncmp() strcmp() functions in C. Here is the code that I wrote: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { char *word1="apple",*word2="atoms"; if (strncmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("strncmp result.\n"); if (memcmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("memcmp result.\n"); if (strcmp(word1,word2)==0) printf("strcmp result.\n"); } Can somebody explain me the differences because I am confused with these three functions?My main problem is that I have a file in which I tokenize its line of it,the problem is that when I tokenize the word "atoms" in the file I have to stop the process of tokenizing.I first tried strcmp() but unfortunately when it reached to the point where the word "atoms" were placed in the file it didn't stop and it continued,but when I used either the memcmp() or the strncmp() it stopped and I was happy.But then I thought,what if there will be a case in which there is one string in which the first 5 letters are a,t,o,m,s and these are being followed by other letters.Unfortunately,my thoughts were right as I tested it using the above code by initializing word1 to "atomsaaaaa" and word2 to atoms and memcmp() and strncmp() in the if statements returned 0.On the other hand strcmp() it didn't.It seems that I must use strcmp(). I have done google searches but I got more confused as I have seen sites and other forums to define these three differently.If it is possible for someone to give me correct explanations/definitions so I can use them correctly in my source code,I would be really grateful.

  Read the article

• Ant build script executing <sql> task using java code

  - by Jay

  Any idea, why none of the debugging comments are printed once after executing the ANT build script's SQL task via java code? The java class to execute the sql in build scirpt is public class AntRunnerTest { private Project project; public void executeTask(String taskName) { try { project = new Project(); project.init(); project.setBasedir(new String(".")); ProjectHelper helper = ProjectHelper.getProjectHelper(); project.addReference("ant.projectHelper", helper); helper.parse(project, new File("build-copy.xml")); System.out.println("Before"); project.executeTarget(taskName); System.out.println("After"); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println(ex.getMessage()); } } public static void main(String args[]) { try { AntRunnerTest newInst = new AntRunnerTest(); newInst.executeTask("sql"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println(""+e); } } } I dont see the debug String "After" getting printed in the console. I noticed this issue only when i try to execute a sql task using java code. The ant script has the following simple transaction tag in it. <transaction> <![CDATA[ select now() ]]> </transaction> Any thoughts? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Why doesn't the spring @Autowire work with java generics

  - by testing123

  Inspired by spring data awesomeness I wanted to create a abstract RESTController that I could extend for a lot of my controllers. I created the following class: @Controller public abstract class RESTController<E, PK extends Serializable, R extends PagingAndSortingRepository<E, PK>> { @Autowired private R repository; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, params={"id"}) @ResponseBody public E getEntity(@RequestParam PK id) { return repository.findOne(id); } ... } I was hoping that the generics would allow me to @Autowire in the repository but I get the following error: SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet appServlet org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No unique bean of type [org.springframework.data.repository.PagingAndSortingRepository] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 3: [groupRepository, externalCourseRepository, managedCourseRepository] at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.doResolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:800) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.resolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:707) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor$AutowiredFieldElement.inject(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:478) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.InjectionMetadata.inject(InjectionMetadata.java:87) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.postProcessPropertyValues(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:284) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1106) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:294) I understand what the error is telling me, there is more than one match for the @Autowire. I am confused because I thought by creating the following controller it would work: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/managedCourse") public class ManagedCourseController extends RESTController<ManagedCourse, Long, ManagedCourseRepository> { ... } This is easy enough to work around by doing having a method like this in the RESTController: protected abstract R getRepository(); and then doing this in your implementing class: @Autowired private ManagedCourseRepository repository; @Override protected ManagedCourseRepository getRepository() { return repository; } I was just wondering if someone had any thoughts of how I could get this to work.

  Read the article

• [FIXED] Scan file contents into an array of a structure.

  - by ZaZu

  Hello, I have a structure in my program that contains a particular array. I want to scan a random file with numbers and put the contents into that array. This is my code : ( NOTE : This is a sample from a bigger program, so I need the structure and arrays as declared ) The contents of the file are basically : 5 4 3 2 5 3 4 2 #include<stdio.h> #define first 500 #define sec 500 struct trial{ int f; int r; float what[first][sec]; }; int trialtest(trial *test); main(){ trial test; trialtest(&test); } int trialtest(trial *test){ int z,x,i; FILE *fin; fin=fopen("randomfile.txt","r"); for(i=0;i<5;i++){ fscanf(fin,"%5.2f\t",(*test).what[z][x]); } fclose(fin); return 0; } But the problem is, whenever this I run this code, I get this error : (25) : warning 508 - Data of type 'double' supplied where a pointer is required I tried adding do{ for(i=0;i<5;i++){ q=fscanf(fin,"%5.2f\t",(*test).what[z][x]); } }while(q!=EOF); But that didnt work either, it gives the same error. Does anyone have a solution to this problem ?

  Read the article

• C# Recursion SumOfOnlyNeg Elements

  - by Chris

  Hello, A array gets filled up with random elements (negative and positive). Now i want to calculate the sum of ONLY the postive elements. Iterative there is no problem, but in the recursion version i can only get the sum of both negative and postive. How can i "check" in the recursive version that it only sums up the Postive elements? Best Regards. Iterative version: public int IterSomPosElem(int[] tabel, int n) { n = 0; for (int i = 0; i < tabel.Length; i++) { if (tabel[i] >= 0) { n += tabel[i]; } } return n; } Recursive version atm (sums up all the elements insteed, of only the positive) public int RecuSomPosElem(int[] tabel, int n) { if(n == 1) return tabel[0]; //stopCriterium else { return (tabel[n - 1] + RecuSomPosElem(tabel, n - 1)); // how to check, so it only sums up the postive elements and "ignores" the negative elements. } }

  Read the article

• The use of getters and setters for different programming languages [closed]

  - by leonhart88

  So I know there are a lot of questions on getters and setters in general, but I couldn't find something exactly like my question. I was wondering if people change the use of get/set depending on different languages. I started learning with C++ and was taught to use getters and setters. This is what I understand: In C++ (and Java?), a variable can either be public or private, but we cannot have a mix. For example, I can't have a read-only variable that can still be changed inside the class. It's either all public (can read and change it), or all private (can't read and can only change inside the class). Because of this (and possibly other reasons), we use getters and setters. In MATLAB, I can control the "setaccess" and "getaccess" properties of variables, so that I can make things read-only (can directly access the property, but can't overwrite it). In this case, I don't feel like I need a getter because I can just do class.property. Also, in Python it is considered "Pythonic" to not use getters/setters and to only put things into properties if needed. I don't really understand why its OK to have all public variables in Python, because that's opposite of what I learned when I started with C++. I'm just curious what other people's thoughts are on this. Would you use getters and setters for all languages? Would you only use it for C++/Java and do direct access in MATLAB and Python (which is what I am currently doing)? Is the second option considered bad? For my purposes, I am only referring to simple getters and setters (just return/set the value and do not do anything else). Thanks!

  Read the article

• Mutually beneficial IP/copyright clauses for contract-based freelance work

  - by Nathan de Vries

  I have a copyright section in the contract I give to my clients stating that I retain copyright on any works produced during my work for them as an independent contractor. This is most definitely not intended to place arbitrary restrictions on my clients, but rather to maintain my ability to decide on how the software I create is licensed and distributed. Almost every project I work on results in at least one part of it being released as open source. Every project I work on makes use of third-party software released in the same fashion, so returning the favour is something I would like to continue doing. Unfortunately, the contract is not so clear when it comes to defining the rights of the client in the use of said software. I mention that the code will be licensed to them, but do not mention specifics about exclusivity, ability to produce derivatives etc. As such, a client has raised concerns about the copyright section of my contract, and has suggested that I reword it such that all copyrights are transferred entirely to the client on final payment for the project. This will almost certainly reduce my ability to distribute the software I have created; I would much prefer to find a more mutually beneficial agreement where both our concerns are appeased. Are there any tried and true approaches to licensing software in this kind of situation? To summarise: I want to maintain the ability to license (parts of) the software under my own terms, independently of my relationship with the client; with some guarantee to the client that no trade-secrets or critical business logic will be shared; giving them the ability to re-use my code in their future projects; but not necessarily letting them sell it (I'm not sure about this, though...what happens if they sell their business and the software along with it?) I realise that everyone's feedback is going to be prefixed with "IANAL", however I appreciate any thoughts you might have on the matter.

  Read the article

• Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

  - by jim

  Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

  Read the article

• jQuery form zip code to state function

  - by Dakota R.

  I'm trying to convert a preexisting javascript function into a jQuery function. The function comes from http://javascript.internet.com/forms/zip-to-state.html and aims to convert a user-entered zip code into a state. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2, with all the necessary plugins, but I'm not very familiar with jQuery syntax and how to convert this from plain ol' Javascript syntax. The setState function takes two parameters, the zip code element and the state element, so I'm trying to do something like this: $('$zip_code').change( function () { setState($(this), $('#state')); }); Any thoughts on this syntax? Thanks, Dakota function getState(zip) { if ((parseInt(zipString.substr(zip / 4, 1), 16) & Math.pow(2, zip % 4)) && (zip.length == 5)) for (var i = 0; i < stateRange.length; i += 7) if (zip <= 1 * stateRange.substr(i, 5)) return stateRange.substr(i + 5, 2); return null; } function setState(txtZip, optionBox) { if (txtZip.value.length != 5 || isNaN(txtZip.value / 4)) { optionBox.options[0].selected = true; alert("Please enter a 5 digit, numeric zip code."); return; } var state = getState(txtZip.value); for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == state) return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == "XX") return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; }

  Read the article

• Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

  - by Randolpho

  The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

  Read the article

• What are these stray zero-byte files extracted from tarball? (OSX)

  - by Scott M

  I'm extracting a folder from a tarball, and I see these zero-byte files showing up in the result (where they are not in the source.) Setup (all on OS X): On machine one, I have a directory /My/Stuff/Goes/Here/ containing several hundred files. I build it like this tar -cZf mystuff.tgz /My/Stuff/Goes/Here/ On machine two, I scp the tgz file to my local directory, then unpack it. tar -xZf mystuff.tgz It creates ~scott/My/Stuff/Goes/, but then under Goes, I see two files: Here/ - a directory, Here.bGd - a zero byte file. The "Here.bGd" zero-byte file has a random 3-character suffix, mixed upper and lower-case characters. It has the same name as the lowest-level directory mentioned in the tar-creation command. It only appears at the lowest level directory named. Anybody know where these come from, and how I can adjust my tar creation to get rid of them? Update: I checked the table of contents on the files using tar tZvf: toc does not list the zero-byte files, so I'm leaning toward the suggestion that the uncompress machine is at fault. OS X is version 10.5.5 on the unzip machine (not sure how to check the filesystem type). Tar is GNU tar 1.15.1, and it came with the machine.

  Read the article

• Load page for validation but do not display it to user in ASP.NET

  - by Kevin

  We have a site requiring users pay $2 to view the details of a record. We occasionally get complaints because we send them to the payment page, and once they pay it turns out the record isn't valid, or it was lost, or the data couldn't be generated. So we want to add in a check to ensure the page constructs properly before the user is required to pay for it. However, we don't want the user to have access to the page until they pay for it. Is there anything in ASP.NET 3.5 or just general web design that would allow something like this? The data on the record is real time and computed on a backend server before sent to the client. Occasionally this computation fails for whatever reason. Our alternative is to call all of the loading methods and validate the data, then redirect them to the payment page. The problem is A) this will be a relatively involved process rewriting all of these methods to return validation information, and B) it still doesn't guarentee us the page will load properly. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

  - by macias

  I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

  Read the article

• C# Finding 2 positions 1-dimArray

  - by Chris

  Hello, In a method i am calculating the longest row of elements. The 1-dim array is filled up with random values (0 or 1). The method looks up the longest row (being 0 or 1, whatever is the longest). Meaning in for example: 1110100 --> the longest row would be 3 (3 * 1) 0110000 --> the longest row would be 4 (4 * 0) My problem is i am trying to perform some type of linear search to show the position of the row in the array. The first example has the longest row of 3 elements (3 times 1). For 1110100 the position in the array would be 0 - 2 (index) For 0110000 the position in the array would be 3 - 6 (index) I have been trying with foreaches, for loops etc..but i cannot seem to get the proper indexes of both. Cannot seem to display both positions properly. For the first example the correct output wouldbe: The largest row of same elements of the array consists of 3 elements on the position 0 - 2. The longest row of elements gets of same elements get calculated as the following: public int BerekenDeelrij (int [] table) ( int count = 0; final int value = 0; int largest = 0; foreach (int value in table) ( if (value == last value) counter + +; else ( largest = Math.Max largest (largest, counter); final value = value count = 1; ) ) Math.Max return (largest, counter); ) Best Regards.

  Read the article

• Website. VoteUp or VoteDown Videos. How to restrict users voting multiple times?

  - by DJDonaL3000

  Im working on a website (html,css,javascript, ajax, php,mysql), and I want to restrict the number of times a particular user votes for a particular video. Its similar to the YouTube system where you can voteUp or voteDown a particular video. Each vote involves adding a row to the video.votes table, which logs the time, vote direction(up or down), the client IPaddress( using PHP: $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; ), and of course the ID of the video in question. Adding votes is as simple as; (pseudocode): Javascript:onClick( vote( a,b,c,d ) ), which passes variables to PHP insertion script via ajax, and finally we replace the voteing buttons with a "Thank You For Voting" message. THE PROBLEM: If you reload/refresh the page after voting, you can vote again, and again, and again, you get the point. MY QUESTION: How do you limit the amount of times a particular user votes for a particular video?? MY THOUGHTS: Do you use cookies, and add a new cookie with the id of the video. And check for a cookie before you insert a new vote.? OR Before you insert the vote, do you use the IPaddress and the videoID to see if this same user(IP) has voted for this same video(vidID) in the past 24hrs(mktime), and either allow or dissallow the voteInsertion based on this query? OR Do you just not care? Take the assumption that most users are sane, and have better things to do than refresh pages and vote repeatedly.?? Any suggestions or ideas welcome.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323  | Next Page >