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  • Problem inserting Pygames on a wxPython panel using Boa Constructor

    - by Kohwalter
    Hello, im new in Python so im hoping to to get some help to figure out what is going wrong. Im trying to run a Pygames from within wxPython panel (made on Boa Constructor). To do that i followed the instructions on the http://wiki.wxpython.org/IntegratingPyGame but still it isn't working. Here is the Panel code that was used to make the integration: class PG_panel(wx.Panel): def __init__(self, ID, name, parent, mypos, mysize): # pygame is imported in this class # make it globally available global pygame #self.Fit() wx.Panel.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=(16, 96), size=mysize) # pygame uses SDL, set the environment variables os.environ['SDL_WINDOWID'] = str(self.GetHandle()) os.environ['SDL_VIDEODRIVER'] = 'windib' # do the pygame stuff after setting the environment variables import pygame pygame.display.init() # create the pygame window/screen screen = pygame.display.set_mode(464, 464) #(424,450) # start the thread instance self.thread = PG_thread(screen) self.thread.start() def __del__(self): self.thread.stop() And im trying to use that panel on an interface from Boa Constructor, here is the code: class frmMain(wx.Frame): def _init_ctrls(self, prnt): # generated method, don't edit wx.Frame.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAIN, name='frmMain', parent=prnt, pos=wx.Point(660, 239), size=wx.Size(815, 661), style=wx.DEFAULT_FRAME_STYLE, title='Grupo 1 - Jogo de Damas') self._init_utils() self.SetClientSize(wx.Size(799, 623)) self.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(225, 225, 225)) self.SetMinSize(wx.Size(784, 650)) self.Center(wx.BOTH) self.SetMenuBar(self.menuBar1) #here begins my code mysize = (464, 464) mypos = (16, 96) self.panelTabuleiro = PG_panel(wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, 'panelTabuleiro', self, mypos, mysize) The original that was auto-made by the Boa Constructor is the following: self.panelTabuleiro = wx.Panel(id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=wx.Point(16, 96), size=wx.Size(464, 464), style=wx.TAB_TRAVERSAL) self.panelTabuleiro.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(232, 249, 240)) self.panelTabuleiro.SetThemeEnabled(True) self.panelTabuleiro.SetHelpText('Tabuleiro') The error that it gives is: Type error: in method 'new_Panel', expected argument 1 of type 'wxWindow*1 Exception AttributeError: "'PG_panel' object has no attribute 'thread' in ignored Any thoughts ? I appreciate any help. Thank you.

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  • Druapl & Regular PHP Integration

    - by user333128
    I'm building a new website which has one core application and many content pages. Content pages are mostly dynamic and I require a way to manage this dynamic content on a regular basis. The core application's main functionality is a 3 step process or reading user data (input page), reading data from MySQL (product page) and submitting an application to an email address (application page). Ideally I would like to build the core application in regular PHP and leverage Drupal for its content management capabilities. Can Drupal and regular PHP be integrated as I suggest easily? My feeling is that coding the core application as a Drupal module(s) will add layers of complexity that could be difficult to code from the outset and maintain later on as the system matures - so I would really like to just use regular PHP. Let me explain where dynamic content (managed by the CMS) intersects with the core application: Dynamic content such as FAQ data is used both on the 'normal' help pages and also within a mini-feed displayed within core application pages down a right hand side column. In this column, 3 random questions are pulled from the database and displayed as a feed. When users click on FAQ question they are not taken away from the core application product page but are instead shown data in a pop-up window displaying the question and answer. In addition, users can browse other questions and answers through a simple navigation menu within this popup. There are 3 such like feeds as I describe above that I require on the core application product page. So, what is the ideal solution here in terms of 'keeping things simple' for both the management of dynamic content and the ease of coding the core application? Can 'regular PHP' and Drupal co-exist 'peacefully'? If so, how is this technically possible? Because there is some content managed by Drupal contained within core application pages, can the core application still be coded in regular PHP? Any advice / suggestions? Thank you! Jim.

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  • C# Recursion SumOfOnlyNeg Elements

    - by Chris
    Hello, A array gets filled up with random elements (negative and positive). Now i want to calculate the sum of ONLY the postive elements. Iterative there is no problem, but in the recursion version i can only get the sum of both negative and postive. How can i "check" in the recursive version that it only sums up the Postive elements? Best Regards. Iterative version: public int IterSomPosElem(int[] tabel, int n) { n = 0; for (int i = 0; i < tabel.Length; i++) { if (tabel[i] >= 0) { n += tabel[i]; } } return n; } Recursive version atm (sums up all the elements insteed, of only the positive) public int RecuSomPosElem(int[] tabel, int n) { if(n == 1) return tabel[0]; //stopCriterium else { return (tabel[n - 1] + RecuSomPosElem(tabel, n - 1)); // how to check, so it only sums up the postive elements and "ignores" the negative elements. } }

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  • Matlab fft function

    - by CTZStef
    The code below is from the Matlab 2011a help about fft function. I think there is a problem here : why do they multiply t(1:50) by Fs, and then say it's time in millisecond ? Certainly, it happens to be true in this very particular case, but change the value of Fs to, say, 2000, and it won't work anymore, obviously because of this factor of 2. Right ? Quite misleading, isn't it ? What do I miss ? Fs = 1000; % Sampling frequency T = 1/Fs; % Sample time L = 1000; % Length of signal t = (0:L-1)*T; % Time vector % Sum of a 50 Hz sinusoid and a 120 Hz sinusoid x = 0.7*sin(2*pi*50*t) + sin(2*pi*120*t); y = x + 2*randn(size(t)); % Sinusoids plus noise plot(Fs*t(1:50),y(1:50)) title('Signal Corrupted with Zero-Mean Random Noise') xlabel('time (milliseconds)') Clearer with this : fs = 2000; % Sampling frequency T = 1 / fs; % Sample time L = 1000; % Length of signal t2 = (0:L-1)*T; % Time vector f = 50; % signal frequency s2 = sin(2*pi*f*t2); figure, plot(fs*t2(1:50),s2(1:50)); % NOT good figure, plot(t2(1:50),s2(1:50)); % good

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  • MouseListener fired without checking JCheckBox

    - by Morinar
    This one is pretty crazy: I've got an AppSight recording (for those not familiar, it's a recording of what they did including keyboard/mouse input + network traffic, etc) of a customer reproducing a bug. Basically, we've got a series of items listed on the screen with JCheckBox-es down the left side. We've got a MouseListener set for the JPanel that looks something like this: private MouseAdapter createMouseListener() { return new MouseAdapter(){ public void mousePressed( MouseEvent e ) { if( e.getComponent() instanceof JCheckBox ) { // Do stuff } } }; } Based on the recording, it appears very strongly that they click just above one of the checkboxes. After that, it's my belief that this listener fired and the "Do stuff" block happened. However, it did NOT check the box. The user then saw that the box was unchecked, so they clicked on it. This caused the "Do stuff" block to fire again, thus undoing what it had done the first time. This time, the box was checked. Therefore, the user thinks that the box is checked, and it looks like it is, but our client thinks that the box is unchecked as it was clicked twice. Is this possible at all? For the life of me, I can't reproduce it or see how it could be possible, but based on the recording and the data the client sent to the server, I can't see any other logical explanation. Any help, thoughts, and or ideas would be much appreciated.

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  • Best practices for (over)using Azure queues

    - by John
    Hi, I'm in the early phases of designing an Azure-based application. One of the things that attracts me to Azure is the scalability, given the variability of the demand I'm likely to expect. As such I'm trying to keep things loosely coupled so I can add instances when I need to. The recommendations I've seen for architecting an application for Azure include keeping web role logic to a minimum, and having processing done in worker roles, using queues to communicate and some sort of back-end store like SQL Azure or Azure Tables. This seems like a good idea to me as I can scale up either or both parts of the application without any issue. However I'm curious if there are any best practices (or if anyone has any experiences) for when it's best to just have the web role talk directly to the data store vs. sending data by the queue? I'm thinking of the case where I have a simple insert to do from the web role - while I could set this up as a message, send it on the queue, and have a worker role pick it up and do the insert, it seems like a lot of double-handling. However I also appreciate that it may be the case that this is better in the long run, in case the web role gets overwhelmed or more complex logic ends up being required for the insert. I realise this might be a case where the answer is "it depends entirely on the situation, check your perf metrics" - but if anyone has any thoughts I'd be very appreciative! Thanks John

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  • is it possible to write a program which prints its own source code utilizing a "sequence-generating-

    - by guest
    is it possible to write a program which prints its own source code utilizing a "sequence-generating-function"? what i call a sequence-generating-function is simply a function which returns a value out of a specific interval (i.e. printable ascii-charecters (32-126)). the point now is, that this generated sequence should be the programs own source-code. as you see, implementing a function which returns an arbitrary sequence is really trivial, but since the returned sequence must contain the implementation of the function itself it is a highly non-trivial task. this is how such a program (and its corresponding output) could look like #include <stdio.h> int fun(int x) { ins1; ins2; ins3; . . . return y; } int main(void) { int i; for ( i=0; i<size of the program; i++ ) { printf("%c", fun(i)); } return 0; } i personally think it is not possible, but since i don't know very much about the underlying matter i posted my thoughts here. i'm really looking forward to hear some opinions!

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  • NUnit - Multiple properties of the same name? Linking to requirements

    - by Ryan Ternier
    I'm linking all our our System Tests to test cases and to our Requirements. Every requirement has an ID. Every Test Case / System Tests tests a variety of requirements. Every module of code links to multiple requirements. I'm trying to find the best way to link every system test to its driving requirements. I was hoping to do something like: [NUnit.Framework.Property("Release", "6.0.0")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50082")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50084")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50085")] [TestCase(....)] public void TestSomething(string a, string b...) However, that will break because Property is a Key-Value pair. The system will not allow me to have multiple Properties with the same key. The reason I'm wanting this is to be able to test specific requirements in our system if a module changes that touches these requirements. Rather than run over 1,000 system tests on every build, this would allow us to target what to test based on changes done to our code. Some system tests run upwards of 5 minutes (Enterprise healthcare system), so "Just run all of them" isn't a viable solution. We do that, but only before promoting through our environments. Thoughts?

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

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  • Compilig + testing an Android library with the JDK?

    - by Jarle Hansen
    Hi all, I am creating a library for Android that others can include in their own project. So far I have been working on it as a normal Java project with JDK 1.6 setup as system library. This works just fine in Eclipse when I add the android.jar. The issue comes when I try to my build script. I am running Gradle and doing a normal compile and test build cycle. My thoughts were that it does not matter if I compile it with a normal JDK, since this is not a standalone application. The benefits by creating a normal Java project is that Gradle does support this much better. My project also does not contain any UI at all. However, the problem is that of course android.jar and the JDK contains lots of the same classes and I think that this is what messes up my build script. Everything crashes when running the tests (the tests are in the same project under src/test/java). My question is, how should I create this project that is meant to be included in Android projects as a third party library? Should I create it as an Android project in Eclipse even though I am only creating a library that does not use any of the UI features? Also, should the tests be in a separate project? Thanks for all responses!

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  • Facebook style messaging system schema design

    - by Jamie
    Hi all, I'm looking to implement a facebook style messaging system (thread messages) into a site of mine. Do you think this schema markup looks okay? Doctrine schema.yml: UserMessage: tableName: user_message actAs: [Timestampable] columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } sender_id : { type: integer(10), notnull: true } sender_read: { type: boolean, default: 1 } subject: { type: string(255), notnull: true } message: { type: string(1000), notnull: true } hash: { type: string(32), notnull: true } relations: UserMessageRecipient as Recipient: type: many local: id foreign: message_id UserMessageReply as Reply: type: many local: id foreign: message_id UserMessageReply: tableName: user_message_reply columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } user_message_id as message_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } message: { type: string(1000), notnull: true } sender_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } relations: UserMessage as Message: local: message_id foreign: id type: one UserMessageRecipient: tableName: user_message_recipient actAs: [Timestampable] columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } user_message_id as message_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } recipient_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } recipient_read: { type: boolean, default: 0 } When I a new reply is made,i'll make sure the boolean for "recipient_read" for each recipient is set to false and of course i'll make sure sender_read is set to false too. I'm using a hash for the URL: http://example.com/user/messages/aadeb18f8bdaea49882ec4d2a8a3c062 (As the id will be starting from 1, i don't wish to have http://example.com/user/messages/1. Yeah, I could start incrementing from a bigger number, but i'd prefer to start at 1.) Is this a good way to go about it? Your thoughts and suggestions would be hugely appreciated. Thanks guys!

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  • Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

    - by Randolpho
    The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

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  • Best practices for encrytping continuous/small UDP data

    - by temp
    Hello everyone, I am having an application where I have to send several small data per second through the network using UDP. The application need to send the data in real-time (on waiting). I want to encrypt these data and insure that what I am doing is as secure as possible. Since I am using UDP, there is no way to use SSL/TLS, so I have to encrypt each packet alone since the protocol is connectionless/unreliable/unregulated. Right now, I am using a 128-bit key derived from a passphrase from the user, and AES in CBC mode (PBE using AES-CBC). I decided to use a random salt with the passphrase to derive the 128-bit key (prevent dictionary attack on the passphrase), and of course use IVs (to prevent statistical analysis for packets). However I am concerned about few things: Each packet contains small amount of data (like a couple of integer values per packet) which will make the encrypted packets vulnerable to known-plaintext attacks (which will result in making it easier to crack the key). Also, since the encryption key is derived from a passphrase, this will make the key space way less (I know the salt will help, but I have to send the salt through the network once and anyone can get it). Given these two things, anyone can sniff and store the sent data, and try to crack the key. Although this process might take some time, once the key is cracked all the stored data will be decrypted, which will be a real problem for my application. So my question is, what is the best practices for sending/encrypting continuous small data using a connectionless protocol (UDP)? Is my way the best way to do it? ...flowed? ...Overkill? ... Please note that I am not asking for a 100% secure solution, as there is no such thing. Cheers

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  • Launch app with specific locale

    - by hermo
    Changing the locale for a device is done in the settings, and can't be done by an app AFAIK. I know how to force my own app to a specific locale, described e.g. here: http://www.tutorialforandroid.com/2009/01/force-localize-application-on-android.html So now to my question. Can I force, programatically, the local of an activity that isn't mine? I can imagine 2 ways this could be possible: Specifying the locale in an Intent used to start the activity. Access and manipulate the configuration of running activities (in the same way as I can modify my own activities' configurations). Any thoughts? Is it possible? Is it reasonable? I guess 2. would be more direct, but require some kind of permission (e.g. the modified atcitiy must allow it in the manifest file). But I'd settle for 1. or similar. What I want is to be able to see certain apps in a different language, but rather not change the system locale. E.g. the Android Market, that only displays comments in one language. Can't think of other things right now. Can't find much written on Locale in the documentation, what is and isn't possible. But hoping some undocumented feature might enable this :)

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  • Load page for validation but do not display it to user in ASP.NET

    - by Kevin
    We have a site requiring users pay $2 to view the details of a record. We occasionally get complaints because we send them to the payment page, and once they pay it turns out the record isn't valid, or it was lost, or the data couldn't be generated. So we want to add in a check to ensure the page constructs properly before the user is required to pay for it. However, we don't want the user to have access to the page until they pay for it. Is there anything in ASP.NET 3.5 or just general web design that would allow something like this? The data on the record is real time and computed on a backend server before sent to the client. Occasionally this computation fails for whatever reason. Our alternative is to call all of the loading methods and validate the data, then redirect them to the payment page. The problem is A) this will be a relatively involved process rewriting all of these methods to return validation information, and B) it still doesn't guarentee us the page will load properly. Any thoughts?

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  • Multiple submits in an HTML form

    - by StackOverflowNewbie
    I have an HTML form that needs multiple submit buttons, like this: <input type="submit" name="foo" value="1"/> <input type="submit" name="foo" value="2"/> <input type="submit" name="foo" value="3"/> The problem is that I want it to display on the button something other than what is in the value attribute (in the example above: 1, 2, 3). For example, I want to show "Bar" for the button with value="1". Is this possible? I've considered using the <button> tag, like this: <button name="foo" value="1">Bar</button> The problem with using <button> (from w3schools): If you use the element in an HTML form, different browsers may submit different values. Internet Explorer, prior version 9, will submit the text between the and tags, while other browsers will submit the content of the value attribute. Use the element to create buttons in an HTML form. Thoughts?

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  • Why doesn't the spring @Autowire work with java generics

    - by testing123
    Inspired by spring data awesomeness I wanted to create a abstract RESTController that I could extend for a lot of my controllers. I created the following class: @Controller public abstract class RESTController<E, PK extends Serializable, R extends PagingAndSortingRepository<E, PK>> { @Autowired private R repository; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, params={"id"}) @ResponseBody public E getEntity(@RequestParam PK id) { return repository.findOne(id); } ... } I was hoping that the generics would allow me to @Autowire in the repository but I get the following error: SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet appServlet org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No unique bean of type [org.springframework.data.repository.PagingAndSortingRepository] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 3: [groupRepository, externalCourseRepository, managedCourseRepository] at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.doResolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:800) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.resolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:707) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor$AutowiredFieldElement.inject(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:478) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.InjectionMetadata.inject(InjectionMetadata.java:87) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.postProcessPropertyValues(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:284) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1106) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:294) I understand what the error is telling me, there is more than one match for the @Autowire. I am confused because I thought by creating the following controller it would work: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/managedCourse") public class ManagedCourseController extends RESTController<ManagedCourse, Long, ManagedCourseRepository> { ... } This is easy enough to work around by doing having a method like this in the RESTController: protected abstract R getRepository(); and then doing this in your implementing class: @Autowired private ManagedCourseRepository repository; @Override protected ManagedCourseRepository getRepository() { return repository; } I was just wondering if someone had any thoughts of how I could get this to work.

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  • What changed in the DataGrid that means it won't work anymore?

    - by Jeff Yates
    I have a Silverlight app with a DataGrid containing some custom columns and all was working well. Then I updated to Silverlight 3 tools for VS 2008 SP1 and rebuilt it. Now it has the following problems: Rows aren't added when the collection is modified. The ItemsSource property is (and always has been) set to an ObservableCollection instance, which notifies when its contents change. This worked fine for Silverlight 2. However, in Silverlight 3 to get this working at all, I now have to null and then re-set ItemsSource - this seems like I'm hiding a bigger issue but I can't work out what that might be. I cannot select a row or a cell anymore. If I'm lucky, I can select one whole row before it stops working. I can't edit anything. I suspect this is related to the previous point. I'll post some source when I am able, but first I have to strip it down to the bare minimum. In the meantime, I was hoping someone might have some idea of what may be going on here. My gut feeling on the second two points is that my bindings are no longer working, but that's just a guess and if it is the case, I have no idea which ones. Thanks for any help anyone might be able to provide. Update So, I finally reduced my problem down to a simple works/doesn't work comparison. The problem seems to occur if I override Equals in my element type. As soon as I do that, something happens strangely in the ObservableCollection that contains that type, it seems, and my application breaks. To make it more interesting, there is a check to make sure that duplicate items don't even get close to being added to the collection. I don't exactly know why ObservableCollection needs to compare equality when inserting items (the stack trace indicates it is using IndexAt) but this seems to cause the issue. So, any thoughts?

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  • iOS: display modal view over the top of a UIWebView

    - by Sly
    Is it possible to display a modal view over the top of a UIWebView? I have a UIViewController that loads a WebView. I then want to push a Modal View Controller over the top so that a modal view covers up the WebView temporarily... The WebView is working fine; here's how it's loaded in the View Controller: - (void)loadView { // Initialize webview and add as a subview to LandscapeController's view myWebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]] autorelease]; myWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; myWebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; myWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); myWebView.delegate = self; self.view = myWebView; } If I attempt to load a Modal View controller from within viewDidLoad, however, no modal view appears: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Edit dcftable.html with updated figures NSMutableString *updated_html = [self _updateHTML:@"dcftable"]; // Load altered HTML file as an NSURL request [self.myWebView loadHTMLString:updated_html baseURL:nil]; // If user hasn't paid for dcftable, then invoke the covering modal view if (some_condition) { LandscapeCoverController *landscapeCoverController = [[[LandscapeCoverController alloc] init] autorelease ]; [self presentModalViewController:landscapeCoverController animated:YES]; } } I suspect that there's something that needs to be done with the UIWebView delegate to get it to receive the new modal view...but can't find any discussion or examples of this anywhere...again, the objective is to invoke a modal view that covers over the top of the WebView. Thanks for any thoughts in advance!

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  • Processing a database queue across multiple threads - design advice

    - by rwmnau
    I have a SQL Server table full of orders that my program needs to "follow up" on (call a webservice to see if something has been done with them). My application is multi-threaded, and could have instances running on multiple servers. Currently, every so often (on a Threading timer), the process selects 100 rows, at random (ORDER BY NEWID()), from the list of "unconfirmed" orders and checks them, marking off any that come back successfully. The problem is that there's a lot of overlap between the threads, and between the different processes, and their's no guarantee that a new order will get checked any time soon. Also, some orders will never be "confirmed" and are dead, which means that they get in the way of orders that need to be confirmed, slowing the process down if I keep selecting them over and over. What I'd prefer is that all outstanding orders get checked, systematically. I can think of two easy ways do this: The application fetches one order to check at a time, passing in the last order it checked as a parameter, and SQL Server hands back the next order that's unconfirmed. More database calls, but this ensures that every order is checked in a reasonable timeframe. However, different servers may re-check the same order in succession, needlessly. The SQL Server keeps track of the last order it asked a process to check up on, maybe in a table, and gives a unique order to every request, incrementing its counter. This involves storing the last order somewhere in SQL, which I wanted to avoid, but it also ensures that threads won't needlessly check the same orders at the same time Are there any other ideas I'm missing? Does this even make sense? Let me know if I need some clarification.

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  • PHP Object Creation and Memory Usage

    - by JohnO
    A basic dummy class: class foo { var $bar = 0; function foo() {} function boo() {} } echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; $foo = new foo(); echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; unset($foo); echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; $foo = null; echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; Outputs: $ php test.php 353672 353792 353792 353792 Now, I know that PHP docs say that memory won't be freed until it is needed (hitting the ceiling). However, I wrote this up as a small test, because I've got a much longer task, using a much bigger object, with many instances of that object. And the memory just climbs, eventually running out and stopping execution. Even though these large objects do take up memory, since I destroy them after I'm done with each one (serially), it should not run out of memory (unless a single object exhausts the entire space for memory, which is not the case). Thoughts?

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  • LNK2019 Against CArray Add, GetAt, GetSize, all includes are present

    - by David J
    I'm having some issues trying to Compile a DLL, but I just can't see where this linking error is coming from. My LNK2019 is: Exports.obj : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "__declspec(dllimport) public: int __thiscall CArray<struct HWND__ *,struct HWND__ *>::Add(struct HWND__ *)" (__imp_?Add@? $CArray@PAUHWND__@@PAU1@@@QAEHPAUHWND__@@@Z) referenced in function "int __stdcall _Disable(struct HWND__ *,long)" (?_Disable@@YGHPAUHWND__@@J@Z) Disable(...) is... static BOOL CALLBACK _Disable(HWND hwnd, LPARAM lParam) { CArray<HWND, HWND>* pArr = (CHWndArray*)lParam; if(::IsWindowEnabled(hwnd) && ::IsWindowVisible(hwnd)) { pArr->Add(hwnd); ::Enable(hwnd, FALSE); } } This is the first function in Exports.cpp; right above it is #include <afxtempl.h> I have the Windows 7.1 SDK installed (and have tried reinstalling both that and VS2010). The exact same project compiles perfectly fine on other machines, so it can't be the code itself.. I've spent countless errors researching, which led to desperate attempts of just changing random values in the solution file, including different Windows headers, etc. My last resort is getting to be just reinstalling the OS completely (assuming it's actually a problem with the Windows SDK being incorrect or something). Any suggestions at all would be a huge help. EDIT: I've added /showIncludes on the cpp giving issues, and I do see afxtempl.h being included. It's being included multiple times due to other headers including it, but it is there (and it is from the same directory every time): 1> Note: including file: C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\atlmfc\include\afxtempl.h

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  • How do I post a link to the feed of a page via the Facebook Graph API *as* the page?

    - by jsdalton
    I'm working on a plugin for a Wordpress blog that posts a link to every article published to a Facebook Page associated with the blog. I'm using the Graph API and I have authenticated myself, for the time being, via OAuth. I can successfully post a message to the page using curl via a POST request to https://graph.facebook.com/mypageid/feed with e.g. message = "This is a test" and it published the message. The problem is that the message is "from" my user account. I'm an admin on this test page, and when I go to Facebook and post an update from the web, the link comes "from" my page. That's how I'd like this to be set up, because it looks silly if all the shared links are coming from a user account. Is there a way to authenticate myself as a page? Or is there an alternate way to POST to a page feed that doesn't end up being interpreted as a comment from a user? Thanks for any thoughts or suggestions.

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  • Keeping User-Input UITextVIew Content Constrained to Its Own Frame

    - by siglesias
    Trying to create a large textbox of fixed size. This problem is very similar to the 140 character constraint problem, but instead of stopping typing at 140 characters, I want to stop typing when the edge of the textView's frame is reached, instead of extending below into the abyss. Here is what I've got for the delegate method. Seems to always be off by a little bit. Any thoughts? - (BOOL)textView:(UITextView *)textView shouldChangeTextInRange:(NSRange)range replacementText:(NSString *)text { BOOL edgeBump = NO; CGSize constraint = textView.frame.size; CGSize size = [[textView.text stringByAppendingString:text] sizeWithFont:textView.font constrainedToSize:constraint lineBreakMode:UILineBreakModeWordWrap]; CGFloat height = size.height; if (height > textView.frame.size.height) { edgeBump = YES; } if([text isEqualToString:@"\b"]){ return YES; } else if(edgeBump){ NSLog(@"EDGEBUMP!"); return NO; } return YES; } EDIT: As per Max's suggestion below, here is the code that works: - (BOOL)textView:(UITextView *)textView shouldChangeTextInRange:(NSRange)range replacementText:(NSString *)text { CGSize constraint = textView.frame.size; NSString *whatWasThereBefore = textView.text; textView.text = [textView.text stringByReplacingCharactersInRange:range withString:text]; if (textView.contentSize.height >= constraint.height) { textView.text = whatWasThereBefore; } return NO; }

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