Search Results

Search found 9516 results on 381 pages for 'duplicate resource'.

Page 333/381 | < Previous Page | 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340  | Next Page >

  • JRuby app throws exception in Spring

    - by mat3001
    I am trying to run a JRuby app in Spring. I use Eclipse to run it. But it doesn't compile. Does anybody know what's going on here? Exception in thread "Launcher:/oflaDemo" [INFO] [Launcher:/oflaDemo] org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory - Destroying singletons in org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory@4a009ab0: defining beans [placeholderConfig,web.context,web.scope,web.handler,demoService.service]; parent: org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory@f5d8d75 [INFO] [Launcher:/installer] org.red5.server.service.Installer - Installer service created org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'web.scope' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/red5-web.xml]: Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.TypeMismatchException: Failed to convert property value of type [org.springframework.scripting.jruby.JRubyScriptFactory] to required type [org.red5.server.api.IScopeHandler] for property 'handler'; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Cannot convert value of type [org.springframework.scripting.jruby.JRubyScriptFactory] to required type [org.red5.server.api.IScopeHandler] for property 'handler': no matching editors or conversion strategy found at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:480) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory$1.run(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:409) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) I don't have a lot of experience with Spring, so I would really appreciate hits. If you're familiar with red5 - yes it's the oflademo app supplied by red5.

    Read the article

  • Python: why does this code take forever (infinite loop?)

    - by Rosarch
    I'm developing an app in Google App Engine. One of my methods is taking never completing, which makes me think it's caught in an infinite loop. I've stared at it, but can't figure it out. Disclaimer: I'm using http://code.google.com/p/gaeunitlink text to run my tests. Perhaps it's acting oddly? This is the problematic function: def _traverseForwards(course, c_levels): ''' Looks forwards in the dependency graph ''' result = {'nodes': [], 'arcs': []} if c_levels == 0: return result model_arc_tails_with_course = set(_getListArcTailsWithCourse(course)) q_arc_heads = DependencyArcHead.all() for model_arc_head in q_arc_heads: for model_arc_tail in model_arc_tails_with_course: if model_arc_tail.key() in model_arc_head.tails: result['nodes'].append(model_arc_head.sink) result['arcs'].append(_makeArc(course, model_arc_head.sink)) # rec_result = _traverseForwards(model_arc_head.sink, c_levels - 1) # _extendResult(result, rec_result) return result Originally, I thought it might be a recursion error, but I commented out the recursion and the problem persists. If this function is called with c_levels = 0, it runs fine. The models it references: class Course(db.Model): dept_code = db.StringProperty() number = db.IntegerProperty() title = db.StringProperty() raw_pre_reqs = db.StringProperty(multiline=True) original_description = db.StringProperty() def getPreReqs(self): return pickle.loads(str(self.raw_pre_reqs)) def __repr__(self): return "%s %s: %s" % (self.dept_code, self.number, self.title) class DependencyArcTail(db.Model): ''' A list of courses that is a pre-req for something else ''' courses = db.ListProperty(db.Key) def equals(self, arcTail): for this_course in self.courses: if not (this_course in arcTail.courses): return False for other_course in arcTail.courses: if not (other_course in self.courses): return False return True class DependencyArcHead(db.Model): ''' Maintains a course, and a list of tails with that course as their sink ''' sink = db.ReferenceProperty() tails = db.ListProperty(db.Key) Utility functions it references: def _makeArc(source, sink): return {'source': source, 'sink': sink} def _getListArcTailsWithCourse(course): ''' returns a LIST, not SET there may be duplicate entries ''' q_arc_heads = DependencyArcHead.all() result = [] for arc_head in q_arc_heads: for key_arc_tail in arc_head.tails: model_arc_tail = db.get(key_arc_tail) if course.key() in model_arc_tail.courses: result.append(model_arc_tail) return result Am I missing something pretty obvious here, or is GAEUnit acting up?

    Read the article

  • How to cache code in PHP?

    - by Janis Peisenieks
    I am creating a custom form building system, which includes various tokens. These tokens are found using Regular Expressions, and depending on the type of toke, parsed. Some require simple replacement, some require cycles, and so forth. Now I know, that RegExp is quite resource and time consuming, so I would like to be able to parse the code for the form once, creating a php code, and then save the PHP code, for next uses. How would I go about doing this? So far I have only seen output caching. Is there a way to cache commands like echo and cycles like foreach()? Because of misunderstandings, I'll create an example. Unparsed template data: Thank You for Your interest, [*Title*] [*Firstname*] [*Lastname*]. Here are the details of Your order! [*KeyValuePairs*] Here is the link to Your request: [*LinkToRequest*]. Parsed template: "Thank You for Your interest, <?php echo $data->title;?> <?php echo $data->firstname;?> <?php echo $data->lastname;?>. Here are the details of Your order! <?php foreach($data->values as $key=>$value){ echo $key."-".$value }?> Here is the link to Your request: <?php echo $data->linkToRequest;?>. I would then save the parsed template, and instead of parsing the template every time, just pass the $data variable to the already parsed one, which would generate an output.

    Read the article

  • Database cache that I'm not aware of?

    - by Martin
    I'm using asp.net mvc, linq2sql, iis7 and sqlserver express 2008. I get these intermittent server errors, primary key conflicts on insertion. I'm using a different setup on my development computer so I can't debug. After a while they go away. Restarting iis helps. I'm getting the feeling there is cache somewhere that I'm not aware of. Can somebody help me sort out these errors? Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.EnquiryType' with unique index 'IX_EnquiryType'. Edits regarding Venemos answer Is it possible that another application is also accessing the same database simultaneously? Yes there is, but not this particular table and no inserts or updates. There is one other table with which I experience the same problem but it has to do with a different part of the model. How often an in what context do you create a new DataContext instance? Only once, using the singleton pattern. Are the primary keys generated by the database or by the application? Database. Which version of ASP.NET MVC and which version of .NET are you using? RC2 and 3.5.

    Read the article

  • Is boost shared_ptr <XXX> thread safe?

    - by sxingfeng
    I have a question about boost :: shared_ptr. There are lots of thread. class CResource { xxxxxx } class CResourceBase { public: void SetResource(shared_ptr<CResource> res) { m_Res = res; } shared_ptr<CResource> GetResource() { return m_Res; } private: shared_ptr<CResource> m_Res; } CResourceBase base; //---------------------------------------------- Thread A: while (true) { ...... shared_ptr<CResource> nowResource = base.GetResource(); nowResource.doSomeThing(); ... } Thread B: shared_ptr<CResource> nowResource; base.SetResource(nowResource); ... //----------------------------------------------------------- If thread A do not care the nowResource is the newest . Will this part of code have problem? I mean when ThreadB do not SetResource completely, Thread A get a wrong smart point by GetResource? Another question : what does thread-safe mean? If I do not care about whether the resource is newest, will the shared_ptr nowResource crash the program when the nowResource is released or will the problem destroy the shared_point?

    Read the article

  • Relatively simple task: How do I pass back the selected item from one activity to another?

    - by Brian D
    I have two activities: one displays an image and a button, the other displays a photo gallery. I want to be able to select any of the images in the gallery and then display them on the first activity in place of the default image. public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.gallery); Gallery g = (Gallery) findViewById(R.id.gallery); g.setAdapter(new ImageAdapter(this)); g.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView parent, View v, int position, long id) { Toast.makeText(PhotoGallery.this, "Position: " + id, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Intent intent=new Intent(); intent.putExtra("PictureID", position); setResult(RESULT_OK, intent); finish(); } }); } Am I even close here? I'm not quite sure what to do with any string or int I would attach to the Intent -- can I attach the object itself? I'd much rather pass back at minimum the string name of the resource (image), but the only thing I can seem to figure out right now is how to pass back the position of the picture ... not a great solution. I can clarify more if necessary -- thanks.

    Read the article

  • Unobstrusive pseudo-classes and attribute selectors emulation in IE

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm trying to emulate some pseudo-classes and attribute selectors in Internet Explorer 6 and 7, such as :focus, :hover or [type=text]. So far, I've managed to add a class name to the affected elements: $("input, textarea, select") .hover(function(){ $(this).addClass("hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("hover"); }) .focus(function(){ $(this).addClass("focus"); }) .blur(function(){ $(this).removeClass("focus"); }); $("input[type=text]").each(function(){ $(this).addClass("text"); }); However, I'm still forced to duplicate selector in my style sheets: textarea:focus, textarea.focus{ } And, to make things worse, IE6 seems to ignore all the selectors when it finds an attribute: input[type=text], input.text{ /* IE6 ignores this */ } And, of course, IE6 ignores selectors with multiple classes: input.text.focus{ /* IE6 ignores this */ } So I'm likely to end up with this mess: input[type=text]{ /* Rules here */ } input.text{ /* Same rules again */ } input[type=text]:focus{ } input.text_and_focus{ } input.text_and_hover{ } input.text_and_focus_and_hover{ } My question: is there any way to read the rules or computed style defined for a CSS selector and apply it to certain elements, so I only need to maintain one set of standard CSS?

    Read the article

  • Transferring HashMap between client and server using Sockets (JAVA)

    - by sar
    I am working on a JAVA project in which there are multiple terminals. These terminals act as client and servers. For example if there are 3 terminals A,B and C.Then at any given point in time one of them say A, will be a client making broadcast request. The other two terminals, B and C, will reply. I am using sockets to make them communicate. Once the reply is received from all the other terminals A will check the pool of channels to see if any one of the channel is free. It takes up the free channel and making it availabilty false. The channelpool is implemented using HashMAp: HashMap channelpool = new HashMap(); channelpool = 1=true, 2=true, 3=false, 4=true, 5=true, 6=true, 7=true, 8=true, 9=true, 10=true So initially all the channels are true, any terminal can take any channel. But once the channel is taken it is set to false for the period of use and then reset to true. Now this Hashmap has to be shared among the distributed terminals. Also it should be kept up to date. I can not used a shared resource among the terminals to store the HashMap.Can someone tell me an easy way to transfer the HashMap between the terminals. I will appreciate if someone could point me to a website which discusses this.

    Read the article

  • How to pass a Lambda Expression as method parameter with EF

    - by Registered User
    How do I pass an EF expression as a method argument? To illustrate my question I have created a pseudo code example: The first example is my method today. The example utilizes EF and a Fancy Retry Logic. What I need to do is to encapsulate the Fancy Retry Logic so that it becomes more generic and does not duplicate. In the second example is how I want it to be, with a helper method that accepts the EF expression as an argument. This would be a trivial thing to do with SQL, but I want to do it with EF so that I can benefit from the strongly typed objects. First Example: public static User GetUser(String userEmail) { using (MyEntities dataModel = new MyEntities ()) { var query = FancyRetryLogic(() => { (dataModel.Users.FirstOrDefault<User>(x => x.UserEmail == userEmail))); }); return query; } } Second Example: T RetryHelper<T>(Expression<Func<T, TValue>> expression) { using (MyEntities dataModel = new (MyEntities ()) { var query = FancyRetryLogic(() => { return dataModel.expression }); } } public User GetUser(String userEmail) { return RetryHelper<User>(<User>.FirstOrDefault<User>(x => x.UserEmail == userEmail)) }

    Read the article

  • Can't find momd file: Core Data problems

    - by thekevinscott
    Aw geez! I screwed something up! I'm a Core Data noob, working on my first iOS app. After much Stack Overflowing I'm using this code: NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"CoreData" ofType:@"momd"]; if (!path) { path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"CoreData" ofType:@"mom"]; } NSAssert(path != nil, @"Unable to find Resource in main bundle"); CoreData is the name of my app. I've tried to put in initial data into the app by finding the path to the sqlite file in my iPhone simulator, and then going and inserting into that sqlite file. But at some point, I moved the sqlite (thinking it would create a fresh copy), deleted the app from the simulator, and the sqlite file is gone. I'm not sure if I'm leaving out some part of the process (this was a few hours ago) but the end result is that everything is screwed up. How do I resubstantiate this sqlite / momd file? "Clean" and "Clean all targets" are grayed out. I'm happy to post the relevant code from my app that would help shed some light on this problem but there's tons of code relating to Core Data which I don't understand, so I'm not sure what part to post! Any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I open a JBoss vfs:/ URL?

    - by skiphoppy
    We are upgrading our application from JBoss 4 to JBoss 6. A couple of pieces of our application get delivered to the client in an unusual way: jars are looked up inside of our application and sent to the client from a servlet, where the client extracts them in order to run certain support functions. In JBoss 4 we would look these jars up with the classloader and find a jar:// URL which would be used to read the jar and send its contents to the client. In JBoss 6 when we perform the lookup we get a vfs:/ URL. I understand that this is from the org.jboss.vfs package. Unfortunately when I call openStream() on this URL and read from the stream, I immediately get an EOF (read() returns -1). What gives? Why can't I read the resource this URL refers to? I've tried trying to access the underlying VFS packages to open the file through the JBoss VFS API, but most of the API appears to be private, and I couldn't find a routine to translate from a vfs:/ URL to a VFS VirtualFile object, so I couldn't get anywhere. I can try to find the file on disk within JBoss, but that approach sounds very failure prone on upgrade. Our old approach was to use Java Web Start to distribute the jars to the client and then look them up within Java Web Start's cache to extract them. But that broke on every minor upgrade of Java because the layout of the cache changed.

    Read the article

  • Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

    - by mannish
    I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Deploy to web container, bundle web container or embed web container...

    - by Jason
    I am developing an application that needs to be as simple as possible to install for the end user. While the end users will likely be experience Linux users (or sales engineers), they don't really know anything about Tomcat, Jetty, etc, nor do I think they should. So I see 3 ways to deploy our applications. I should also state that this is the first app that I have had to deploy that had a web interface, so I haven't really faced this question before. First is to deploy the application into an existing web container. Since we only deploy to Suse or RedHat this seems easy enough to do. However, we're not big on the idea of multiple apps running in one web container. It makes it harder to take down just one app. The next option is to just bundle Tomcat or Jetty and have the startup/shutdown scripts launch our bundled web container. Or 3rd, embed.. This will probably provide the same user experience as the second option. I'm curious what others do when faced with this problem to make it as fool proof as possible on the end user. I've almost ruled out deploying into an existing web container as we often like to set per application resource limits and CPU affinity, which I believe would affect all apps deployed into a web container/app server and not just a specific application. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 - Custom route doesn't find controller action

    - by mcfroob
    For some reason my application isn't routing to my controller method correctly. I have a routelink like this in my webpage - <%= Html.RouteLink("View", "Blog", new { id=(item.BlogId), slug=(item.Slug) }) %> In global.asax.cs I have the following routes - routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "MoreBlogs", "Blog/Page/{page}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Blog", "Blog/View/{id}/{slug}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View"} ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); And then I have a class BlogController that has a method - public ActionResult View(int id, string slug) { ... etc. } I put a breakpoint in the first line of the View method but it's not getting hit at all. I checked with a route debugger for the format localhost/Blog/View/1/test and it matched my custom route. All I'm getting is a 404 while running this, I can't work out why the route won't post to the view method in my controller - any ideas?

    Read the article

  • codeigniter mulitple LIKE db query using associative array- but all from the same column name...?

    - by Inigo
    Hi, I'm trying to query my database using codeigniter's active record class. I have a number of blog posts stored in a table. The query is for a search function, which will pull out all the posts that have certain categories assigned to them. So the 'category' column of the table will have a list of all the categories for that post in no particular order, separated by commas, like so: Politics,History,Sociology.. etc. If a user selects, say, Politics and History, The titles of all the posts that have BOTH these categories should be returned. Right? So, the list of categories queried will be the array $cats. I thought this would work- foreach ($cats as $cat){ $this->db->like('categories',$cat); } By Producing this- $this-db-like('categories','Politics'); $this-db-like('categories','History'); (Which would produce- 'WHERE categories LIKE '%Politics%' AND categories LIKE '%History%') But it doesn't work, it seems to only produce the first statement. The problem I guess is that the column name is the same for each of the chained queries. There doesn't seem to be anything in the CI user guide about this (http://codeigniter.com/user_guide/database/active_record.html) as they seem to assume that each chained statement is going to be for a different column name. Does anyone know how I could do this? Thanks! edit- Of course it is not possible to use an associative array in one statement as it would have to contain duplicate keys- in this case every key would have to be 'categories'...

    Read the article

  • Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

    - by David Hodgson
    Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

    Read the article

  • unknown exception error in php

    - by fayer
    i wanna catch all exceptions thrown in a script and then check if they have a error code 23000. if they don't i want to rethrow the exception. here is my code: function myException($exception) { /*** If it is a Doctrine Connection Mysql Duplication Exception ***/ if(get_class($exception) === 'Doctrine_Connection_Mysql_Exception' && $exception->getCode() === 23000) { echo "Duplicate entry"; } else { throw $exception; } } set_exception_handler('myException'); $contact = new Contact(); $contact->email = 'peter'; $contact->save(); but i get this error message and i dont know what it means: Fatal error: Exception thrown without a stack frame in Unknown on line 0 i want to be able to rethrow the original error message if it has not the error code 23000. even when i deleted the check errorcode i still get the same message: function myException($exception) { throw $exception; } set_exception_handler('myException'); $contact = new Contact(); $contact->email = 'peter'; $contact->save(); how could i solve this? thanks

    Read the article

  • Why won't EF4 generate a method to support my Function Import?

    - by Deane
    I have a stored proc in my database which returns an integer. I added a Function Import to my model. This appears in the EDMX file: <Function Name="GetTotalEntityCount" Aggregate="false" BuiltIn="false" NiladicFunction="false" IsComposable="false" ParameterTypeSemantics="AllowImplicitConversion" Schema="dbo" /> However, no method actually gets generated for this. It should be top level, right? using (MyContext context = new MyContext()) { context.MyMethodShouldBeRightHere(); } Nothing appears in Intellisense, I've gone through the designer.cs file and there's nothing in there, and reflected the DLL...nothing. The code generator is just not generating any code to support this stored proc. I added another table to my database and updated the model, and that came in, so the model will update, it's just specifically ignoring this stored proc. I've tried everything I can think of, and consulted every resource I can find, and as near as I can tell, I'm doing everything right. I'm using EF4, database-first. (I'm pretty sure on the version, anyway. This shows up in the generated file: Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 )

    Read the article

  • many to many relationship mysql select

    - by zeina
    Let's consider 2 tables "schools" and "students". Now a student may belong to different schools in his life, and a school have many students. So this is a many to many example. A third table "links" specify the relation between student and school. Now to query this I do the following: Select sc.sid , -- stands for school id st.uid, -- stands for student id sc.sname, -- stands for school name st.uname, -- stands for student name -- select more data about the student joining other tables for that from students s left join links l on l.uid=st.uid -- l.uid stands for the student id on the links table left join schools sc on sc.sid=l.sid -- l.sid is the id of the school in the links table where st.uid=3 -- 3 is an example this query will return duplicate data for the user id if he has more than one school, so to fix this I added group by st.uid, yet I also need the list of school name related to the same user. Is there a way to do it with fixing the query I wrote instead of having 2 queries? So as example I want to have Luci of schools ( X, Y, Z, R, ...) etc

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC twitter/myspace style routing

    - by Astrofaes
    Hi guys, This is my first post after being a long-time lurker - so please be gentle :-) I have a website similar to twitter, in that people can sign up and choose a 'friendly url', so on my site they would have something like: mydomain.com/benjones I also have root level static pages such as: mydomain.com/about and of course my homepage: mydomain.com/ I'm new to ASP.NET MVC 2 (in fact I just started today) and I've set up the following routes to try and achieve the above. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("images/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute("About", "about", new { controller = "Common", action = "About" } ); // User profile sits at root level so check for this before displaying the homepage routes.MapRoute("UserProfile", "{url}", new { controller = "User", action = "Profile", url = "" } ); routes.MapRoute("Home", "", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } For the most part this works fine, however, my homepage is not being triggered! Essentially, when you browser to mydomain.com, it seems to trigger the User Profile route with an empty {url} parameter and so the homepage is never reached! Any ideas on how I can show the homepage?

    Read the article

  • Why do you need "extern C" for in C++ callbacks to C functions?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, I find such examples in Boost code. namespace boost { namespace { extern "C" void *thread_proxy(void *f) { .... } } // anonymous void thread::thread_start(...) { ... pthread_create(something,0,&thread_proxy,something_else); ... } } // boost Why do you actually need this extern "C"? It is clear that thread_proxy function is private internal and I do not expect that it would be mangled as "thread_proxy" because I actually do not need it mangled at all. In fact in all my code that I had written and that runs on may platforms I never used extern "C" and this had worked as-as with normal functions. Why extern "C" is added? My problem is that extern "C" function pollute global name-space and they do not actually hidden as author expects. This is not duplicate! I'm not talking about mangling and external linkage. It is obvious in this code that external linkage is unwanted!

    Read the article

  • How to combine apache requests?

    - by Bruce
    To give you the situation in abstract: I have an ajax client that often needs to retrieve 3-10 static documents from the server. Those 3-10 documents are selected by the client out of about 100 documents in total. I have no way of knowing in advance which 3-10 documents the client will require. Additionally, those 100 documents are generated from database content, and so change over time. It seems messy to me to have to make 10 ajax requests for 10 separate documents. My first thought was to write a jsp that could use the include action. ie in pseudo code for (param in params){ jsp:include page="[param]" } But it turns out the tomcat doesn't just include the html resource, it recompiles it, generating a class file every time, which also seems wasteful. Does any one know of a neat solution for combining apache requests to static files to make one request, rather than several, but without the overhead of, for example, tomcat generating extra class files for each static file and regenerating them each time the static file changes? Thanks! Hopefully my question is clear - it's a bit long-winded.

    Read the article

  • How to structure this Symfony web project?

    - by James William
    I am new to Symfony and am not sure how to best structure my web project. The solution must accommodate 3 use cases: Public access to www.mydomain.com for general use Member only access to member.mydomain.com Administrator access to admin.mydomain.com All three virtual hosts point to the Symfony /web directory Questions: Is this 3 separate applications in my Symfony project (e.g. "frontend", "backend" and "admin" or "public", "member", "admin")? Is this a good approach if there is to be some duplicate code (e.g. generating a member list would be common across all 3 applications, but presented differently)? How would I route to the various applications based on the subdomain when a user accesses *.mydomain.com? Where in Symfony should this routing logic be placed? Or, is this one application with modules for each of the above use cases? EDIT: I do not have access to httpd.conf in apache to specify a default page for virtual hosts. I can only specify a directory for each subdomain using the hostin provider's cPanel.

    Read the article

  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • In SQL Server what is most efficient way to compare records to other records for duplicates with in

    - by Glenn
    We have an SQL Server that gets daily imports of data files from clients. This data is interrelated and we are always scrubbing it and having to look for suspect duplicate records between these files. Finding and tagging suspect records can get pretty complicated. We use logic that requires some field values to be the same, allows some field values to differ, and allows a range to be specified for how different certain field values can be. The only way we've found to do it is by using a cursor based process, and it places a heavy burden on the database. So I wanted to ask if there's a more efficient way to do this. I've heard it said that there's almost always a more efficient way to replace cursors with clever JOINS. But I have to admit I'm having a lot of trouble with this one. For a concrete example suppose we have 1 table, an "orders" table, with the following 6 fields. order_id, customer_id product_id, quantity, sale_date, price We want to look through the records to find suspect duplicates on the following example criteria. These get increasingly harder. 1. Records that have the same product_id, sale_date, and quantity but different customer_id's should be marked as suspect duplicates for review. 2. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, quantity and have sale_dates within five days of each other should be marked as suspect duplicates for review 3. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, but different quantities within 20 units, and sales dates within five days of each other should be considered suspect. Is it possible to satisfy each one of these criteria with a single SQL Query that uses JOINS? Is this the most efficient way to do this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340  | Next Page >