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  • mod_rewrite: no access to real files and directories

    - by tshabalala
    Hello. I use mod_rewrite/.htaccess for pretty URLs. I forward all the requests to my index.php, like this: RewriteRule ^/?([a-zA-Z0-9/-]+)/?$ /index.php [NC,L] The index.php then handles the requests. I'm also using this condition/rule to eliminate trailing slashes (or rather rewrite them to the URL without a trailing slash, with a 301 redirect; I'm doing this to avoid duplicate content and because I like no trailing slashes better): RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^\.localhost$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ http://%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] This works well, except that I now get an infinite loop when trying to access a (real) directory (the rewrite rule removes the trailing slash, the server adds it again, ...). I solved this by setting the DirectorySlash directive to Off: DirectorySlash Off I don't know how good this solution is, I don't feel too confident about it tbh. Anyway, what I'd like to do is completely ignore "real" files and directories, since I don't need them and I only use pretty URLs with "virtual" files/directories anyway. This would allow me to avoid the DirectorySlash workaround/hack too. Is this possible? Thanks!

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  • Is it possible to have WAMP run httpd.exe as user [myself] instead of local SYSTEM?

    - by Olivier H
    Hello! I run a django application over apache with mod_wsgi, using WAMP. A certain URL allows me to stream the content of image files, the paths of which are stored in database. The files can be located whether on local machine or under network drive (\my\network\folder). With the development server (manage.py runserver), I have no trouble at all reading and streaming the files. With WAMP, and with network drive files, I get a IOError : obviously because the httpd instance does not have read permission on said drive. In the task manager, I see that httpd.exe is run by SYSTEM. I would like to tell WAMP to run the server as [myself] as I have read and write permissions on the shared folder. (eventually, the production server should be run by a 'www-admin' user having the permissions) Mapping the network shared folder on a drive letter (Z: for instance) does not solve this at all. The User/Group directives in httpd.conf do not seem to have any kind of influence on Apache's behaviour. I've also regedited : I tried to duplicate the HKLM[...]\wampapache registry key under HK_CURRENT_USER\ and rename the original key, but then the new key does not seem to be found when I cmd this > httpd.exe -n wampapache -k start or when I run WAMP. I've run out of ideas :) Has anybody ever had the same issue?

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  • Indexing table with duplicates MySQL/SQL Server with millions of records

    - by Tesnep
    I need help in indexing in MySQL. I have a table in MySQL with following rows: ID Store_ID Feature_ID Order_ID Viewed_Date Deal_ID IsTrial The ID is auto generated. Store_ID goes from 1 - 8. Feature_ID from 1 - let's say 100. Viewed Date is Date and time on which the data is inserted. IsTrial is either 0 or 1. You can ignore Order_ID and Deal_ID from this discussion. There are millions of data in the table and we have a reporting backend that needs to view the number of views in a certain period or overall where trial is 0 for a particular store id and for a particular feature. The query takes the form of: select count(viewed_date) from theTable where viewed_date between '2009-12-01' and '2010-12-31' and store_id = '2' and feature_id = '12' and Istrial = 0 In SQL Server you can have a filtered index to use for Istrial. Is there anything similar to this in MySQL? Also, Store_ID and Feature_ID have a lot of duplicate data. I created an index using Store_ID and Feature_ID. Although this seems to have decreased the search period, I need better improvement than this. Right now I have more than 4 million rows. To search for a particular query like the one above, it looks at 3.5 million rows in order to give me the count of 500k rows. PS. I forgot to add view_date filter in the query. Now I have done this.

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  • Separate "Year" to several worksheets according to one column....

    - by HACHI
    hello! This task is driving me mad... please help! Instead of manually type in the data, i have used VBA to find the year range, put into one column and delete all duplicate ones. But since excel could give more than 20 years, it would be tedious to do all the filtering manually. AND, now i need excel to separate the rows that contain the specific year range in any one the three columns and put them into a new sheet. e.g. The years that excel could find in the three columns(F:H) are ( 2001,2003,2006,2010, 2012,2020.....2033).. and they are pasted in column "S" in sheet 1. How could i tell excel create new sheets for the years ( sheets 2001, sheets 2003, sheet2006....),search through column (F:H) in sheet 1 to see if ANY of those columns contain that year, and paste them into the new sheet. To be more specific, in the newly created "Sheet 2001", the entire row where column(F:H) contains "2001" should be pasted. and in the newly created "Sheet 2033", the entire row where column(F:H) contains "2033" should be pasted.. Enclosed please find the reference. http://www.speedyshare.com/files/23851477/Book32.xls I have got sheet "2002" and "2003" here as results but for the real one i will need more years' sheets (as many as how many excel could extract in the previous stage; as shown in column L ) ...... I think this task should be quite usual (extracting by date), but i couldn't google the result....Pleas help!!I am very clueless about how to do LOOPING.. so please advice and give in more details! Thanks

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  • Algorithm to determine if array contains n...n+m?

    - by Kyle Cronin
    I saw this question on Reddit, and there were no positive solutions presented, and I thought it would be a perfect question to ask here. This was in a thread about interview questions: Write a method that takes an int array of size m, and returns (True/False) if the array consists of the numbers n...n+m-1, all numbers in that range and only numbers in that range. The array is not guaranteed to be sorted. (For instance, {2,3,4} would return true. {1,3,1} would return false, {1,2,4} would return false. The problem I had with this one is that my interviewer kept asking me to optimize (faster O(n), less memory, etc), to the point where he claimed you could do it in one pass of the array using a constant amount of memory. Never figured that one out. Along with your solutions please indicate if they assume that the array contains unique items. Also indicate if your solution assumes the sequence starts at 1. (I've modified the question slightly to allow cases where it goes 2, 3, 4...) edit: I am now of the opinion that there does not exist a linear in time and constant in space algorithm that handles duplicates. Can anyone verify this? The duplicate problem boils down to testing to see if the array contains duplicates in O(n) time, O(1) space. If this can be done you can simply test first and if there are no duplicates run the algorithms posted. So can you test for dupes in O(n) time O(1) space?

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  • codeigniter cron job with http access

    - by user1313850
    Sorry if this is a duplicate question...I've searched around and found similar advice but nothing that helps my exact problem. And please excuse the noob questions, CRON is a new thing for me. I have a codeigniter script that scrapes the html DOM of another site and stores some of that in a database. I'd like to run this script at a regular interval. This has lead me to looking into cron jobs. The page I have is at myserver.com/index.php/update I realize I can run a cron job with curl and run this page. If I want to be a bit more secure I can put a string at the end like: myserver.com/index.php/update/asdfh2784fufds And check for that in my CI controller. This seems like it would be mostly secure, but doesn't seem like the "right" way to do things. I've looked into running CI from the command line, and can execute basic pages like: php index.php mycontroller But when I try to do: php index.php update It doesn't work. I suspect this is because it needs to use HTTP to scrape the DOM of the outside page. So, my question: How do I securely run a codeigniter script with a cron job that needs HTTP access?

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  • Netbeans, JPA Entity Beans in seperate projects. Unknown entity bean class

    - by Stu
    I am working in Netbeans and have my entity beans and web services in separate projects. I include the entity beans in the web services project however the ApplicaitonConfig.java file keeps getting over written and removing the entries I make for the entity beans in the associated jar file. My question is: is it required to have both the EntityBeans and the WebServices share the same project/jar file? If not what is the appropriate way to include the entity beans which are in the jar file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="2.1" xmlns="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_2_1.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="jdbc/emrPool" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.eclipse.persistence.jpa.PersistenceProvider</provider> <jta-data-source>jdbc/emrPool</jta-data-source> <exclude-unlisted-classes>false</exclude-unlisted-classes> <properties> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="none"/> <property name="eclipselink.cache.shared.default" value="false"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> Based on Melc's input i verified that that the transaction type is set to JTA and the jta-data-source is set to the value for the Glassfish JDBC Resource. Unfortunately the problem still persists. I have opened the WAR file and validated that the EntityBean.jar file is the latest version and is located in the WEB-INF/lib directory of the War file. I think it is tied to the fact that the entities are not being "registered" with the entity manager. However i do not know why they are not being registered.

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  • Devise password reset issue (new_user?)

    - by rabid_zombie
    When a user's email is inputted into the forgot password form and submitted, I am receiving an error saying login can't be blank. I looked around devise.en.yml for this error message, but can't seem to find it anywhere. Here is my views/devise/passwords/new.html.haml: %div.registration_page %h2 Forgot your password? = form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :url => user_password_path, :html => { :method => :post, :id => 'forgot_pw_form', :class => 'forgot_pw' }) do |f| %div = f.email_field :email, :placeholder => 'Email', :autofocus => true, :autocomplete => 'off' %div.email_error.error %input.btn.btn-success{:type => 'submit', :value => 'Send Instructions'} = render "devise/shared/links" The form is posting to users/password like it should, but I noticed that my forgot password form attaches class = 'new_user'. Here is what my form displays: <form accept-charset='UTF-8' action='/users/password' class='new_user' id='forgot_pw_form' method='post' novalidate='novalidate'></form> My routes for devise (I have custom sessions and registrations controllers): devise_for :users, :controllers => {:sessions => 'sessions', :registrations => 'registrations'} How can I setup devise's forgot password functionality? Why am I receiving this error message and why is that class being added there? I've tried: Adding my own passwords controller and adding new routes for my custom controller. Same error Adding my own class and id to the form. This successfully changes the id and class of the form, but reverts back to class and id of new_user Thanks.

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  • Tracking a fragment of a file in two places with git

    - by mabraham
    Hi, I have code such as void myfunc() { introduction(); while(condition()) { complex(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); } which I wish to duplicate into two versions, viz: void myfuncA() { introduction(); minorchangeA(); while(condition()) { complex(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); } void myfuncB() { introduction(); minorchangeB(); while(condition()) { complex(); modifiedB(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); extracleanupB(); } git claims to track content rather than files, so do I need to tell it that there are chunks here that are common to both myfuncA and myfuncB so that when merging with upstream changes to myfunc that those changes should propagate to both myfuncA and myfuncB? If so, how? The code could be written so that myfuncAB did the correct thing at each point by testing for condition A or B, but that could seriously hinder readability or performance.

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  • How can I write a function template for all types with a particular type trait?

    - by TC
    Consider the following example: struct Scanner { template <typename T> T get(); }; template <> string Scanner::get() { return string("string"); } template <> int Scanner::get() { return 10; } int main() { Scanner scanner; string s = scanner.get<string>(); int i = scanner.get<int>(); } The Scanner class is used to extract tokens from some source. The above code works fine, but fails when I try to get other integral types like a char or an unsigned int. The code to read these types is exactly the same as the code to read an int. I could just duplicate the code for all other integral types I'd like to read, but I'd rather define one function template for all integral types. I've tried the following: struct Scanner { template <typename T> typename enable_if<boost::is_integral<T>, T>::type get(); }; Which works like a charm, but I am unsure how to get Scanner::get<string>() to function again. So, how can I write code so that I can do scanner.get<string>() and scanner.get<any integral type>() and have a single definition to read all integral types? Update: bonus question: What if I want to accept more than one range of classes based on some traits? For example: how should I approach this problem if I want to have three get functions that accept (i) integral types (ii) floating point types (iii) strings, respectively.

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  • Setting Cursor property has no effect (C#)

    - by Knarf Navillus
    Hello, I have a class that I've derived from System.Windows.Forms.Panel, and my application has a main form with one of these panels. On the whole, the panel works great! The only thing I'm having trouble with is setting the cursor. Whether I'm setting it to one of the static members of the Cursors class (Default, WaitCursor, etc.) or setting it to a custom cursor that I've loaded from a resource, the end result is the same: it does nothing. I still see the default mouse pointer, no matter what. This line of code is inside a method of my panel-derived class: this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; I can set a break point there, and see that this line is being hit when I expect it to. I've also created an override for the OnCursorChanged method, and set a breakpoint in there just to see if it's being triggered. I can verify that both breakpoints are being hit when I expect them to. However, the cursor just never changes. There must be something that I'm missing. Does anyone have any ideas? P.S. I also did try setting Current.Cursor as well, however that did not help.

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  • How can I "reset" styles for a given HTML element?

    - by Sambo
    I am working on an embeddable javascript which inserts HTML elements onto unknown pages. I have no control of the stylesheets of the pages I'll be inserting HTML into. The problem is that the HTML I insert will mistakenly stylized by the page, and I want to prevent that. What's the least verbose and/or resource intensive to go about ensuring the elements I insert are exactly as I'd like them to be? Is there an easy way to clear all styling for a given HTML element and children? In firebug, for instance, you can remove all styling. I feel like there must, and the very least should, be a native way to exempt certain HTML elements from stylesheet rules? Example: var myHTML = $("<div>my html in here</div>"); myHTML.resetAllStyles(); //<--- what would this function do? myHTML.appendTo("body"); I really want to avoid explicitly stating the attributes I want for each element I insert... PS: I have a lot of experience with JS and CSS, so you can assume that I'll understand pretty much anything you're going to tell me.

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  • What do I do about a Java program that spawned two instaces of itself?

    - by user288915
    I have a java JAR file that is triggered by a SQL server job. It's been running successfully for months. The process pulls in a structured flat file to a staging database then pushes that data into an XML file. However yesterday the process was triggered twice at the same time. I can tell from a log file that gets created, it looks like the process ran twice simultaneously. This caused a lot of issues and the XML file that it kicked out was malformed and contained duplicate nodes etc. My question is, is this a known issue with Java JVM's spawning multiple instances of itself? Or should I be looking at sql server as the culprit? I'm looking into 'socket locking' or file locking to prevent multiple instances in the future. This is the first instance of this issue that I've ever heard of. More info: The job is scheduled to run every minute. The job triggers a .bat file that contains the java.exe - jar filename.jar The java program runs, scans a directory for a file and then executes a loop to process if the file if it finds one. After it processes the file it runs another loop that kicks out XML messages. I can provide code samples if that would help. Thank you, Kevin

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  • .htaccess - alias all www-only requests to subdirectory

    - by CodeMoose
    Trying to install the wonderful Concrete5 CMS to use as my main site engine - the problem is it has about 15 different files and directories, and they clutter up my root. I'd really like to move it to a /_concrete/ subdirectory, and still maintain it in the domain root. htaccess has never been my strong suit - after a lot of research and learning, and a lot of error 500s, my frustration is overriding my pride and I'm posting here. Here's exactly what I'm trying to accomplish: Any requests that come through www.domain.com are forwarded to www.domain.com/_concrete/, except in the case of an existing file. The end-user URL shouldn't change - they will still see the site as www.domain.com, even though they're being served www.domain.com/_concrete/. Multiple subdomains exist on this site as sub-folders within the root - thus, only requests coming through www.domain.com should be redirected. Here's the closest I got with my htaccess, which produces an error 500: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?domain\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !^_concrete RewriteRule ^(.*)$ _concrete/$1 [L,QSA] This is the result of 4 hours of sweat and blood (mostly blood), so I have to be close. I'm hoping one of your fine minds can point out a stupid mistake and put this thing to rest swiftly. Thanks for your time! Addendum: I previously posted .htaccess - alias domain root to subfolder a while ago, which got me started. Please don't fall into the trap of thinking it's a duplicate.

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  • f:ajax not working on tomcat7/eclipse

    - by mntgoat
    I have this very simple code which works fine until I add a f:ajax tag. Code that works: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> </h:commandButton> Code that doesn't work: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> <f:ajax event="click" /> </h:commandButton> As far as I can tell the jsf.js file is loaded fine, this is automatically added by the facelet servlet to the head of my rendered document <script type="text/javascript" src="/www/javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces"></script> and I was even able to do a jsf.ajax.request directly from javascript and got the page to rerender something. I am using mojarra 2.1.13, tomcat 7, eclipse juno, java 7. Any thoughts on what I might be doing wrong or how I might be able to troubleshoot this issue? debugging it in javascript didn't help at all. Thanks.

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  • Why can’t I create a database in an empty ASP MVC 2 project using Project->Add->New Item->SQL Server

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving head first into ASP MVC and am playing around with creating and manipulating a database. I did a search and found this tutorial for creating a database, however when I follow it, I get this error right at the start when trying to add a new database to my fresh, empty ASP MVC 2 project... A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) The only requirement the tutorial mentioned was SQL Server Express, but when I went to download it, it said it was already installed. I'm assuming it was part of the VS 2010 RC I installed and am running. So I don't know what else I need if I am missing something. This is all new to me, so I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here and after I'm done posting this question, I plan to do some more research into the topic of databases and how they work with ASP MVC. In the meantime, I was you could help me answer a couple high level questions... What am I missing/forgetting to do that is causing this error? Any suggestions for good resources/tutorials that focus on using databases with ASP MVC? I've done a lot of database programming in the past, so I'm familiar with the concepts of relational databases and the SQL language. I wish I could find a good resource for learning how to work with them in an ASP dev environment, as well as a good breakdown of all the related technologies used for working with them (i.e. LINQ to SQL). Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I'm going to start researching these questions right now.

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  • refactoring my code. My headers (Header Guard Issues)

    - by numerical25
    I had a post similar to this awhile ago based on a error I was getting. I was able to fix it but since then I been having trouble doing things because headers keep blocking other headers from using code. Honestly, these headers are confusing me and if anyone has any resources that will address these types of issues, that will be helpful. What I essentially want to do is be able to have rModel.h be included inside RenderEngine.h. every time I add rModel.h to RenderEngine.h, rModel.h is no longer able to use RenderEngine.h. (rModel.h has a #include of RenderEngine.h as well). So in a nutshell, RenderEngine and rModel need to use each others functionalities. On top of all this confusion, the Main.cpp needs to use RenderEngine. stdafx.h #include "targetver.h" #define WIN32_LEAN_AND_MEAN // Exclude rarely-used stuff from Windows headers // Windows Header Files: #include <windows.h> // C RunTime Header Files #include <stdlib.h> #include <malloc.h> #include <memory.h> #include <tchar.h> #include "resource.h" main.cpp #include "stdafx.h" #include "RenderEngine.h" #include "rModel.h" // Global Variables: RenderEngine go; rModel *g_pModel; ...code........... rModel.h #ifndef _MODEL_H #define _MODEL_H #include "stdafx.h" #include <vector> #include <string> #include "rTri.h" #include "RenderEngine.h" ........Code RenderEngine.h #pragma once #include "stdafx.h" #include "d3d10.h" #include "d3dx10.h" #include "dinput.h" #include "rModel.h" .......Code......

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  • Where to start to create an HTML website with 2 tables read from csv files using anything but php

    - by CodingIsAwesome
    I want to design a website which displays on loading two tables each with it's respective data from a csv file. Then every minute the website automatically refreshes. This problem seems so simple! But yet the solution eludes me. All of the files will be contained in 1 directory, not on a server but on a local machine. Such as sitting on the desktop. I understand if I use javascript I have to use ADO, and I'm still trying to work out how to use ASP. I am new with both languages. So far the only restriction is that I can't use PHP. So the jist so far as I can think right now is: 1. read the file 2. place the file into an array by splitting at the commas 3. write the array into td's ????? 4. then print all this out into a div ???? I have googled my heart out and can't seem to find what I'm looking for. or even piece together what I'm looking for. Everything with javascript and ADO's leads me to dead ends, I can't find anything on ASP that is helpful. Could someone please write up some sample code for a resource? Or have a better solution?

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  • Visual Studio 2010 is not allowing me to debug my code

    - by Tejs
    So, this interesting issue has been plaguing me for the past couple of hours. Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate no longer attaches the debugger and lets me debug my code. If I use the built in development server, then everything works fine. If I switch to Use Local IIS Web Server (http://localhost/), then all it does it attach to w3wp.exe, but no DLLs or PDBs are loaded for anything. I can go to Debug Windows Modules, and literally nothing is loaded in this window. Conversely, when using the built in development server, the Modules window displays all the DLLs and shows that the symbols for my DLLs have been loaded. Something is obviously amiss. The VS installation is completely bone stock. In IIS, my website is configured with ASP.NET 2.0 (because no 3.5 exists to select from the drop down), along with read / log visits / index this resource options checked on the "Home Directory" tab. Some of my failed ideas: 1) If I attach to process on the iexplore.exe instance where the website is displayed, it loads Internet Explorer's DLLs, but not mine. 2) I've restarted the computer multiple times 3) I've invoked devenv.exe /resetuserdata once 4) I've confirmed that every project is indeed set to debug and not release. 5) Deleted all \bin contents and rebuilt the solution. 6) Deleted entire solution and repulled from Source Control. Can someone tell me what is wrong with this thing? I'm going to have an aneurism from the headache this is causing me.

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  • How to drop/restart a client connection to a flaky socket server

    - by Steve Prior
    I've got Java code which makes requests via sockets from a server written in C++. The communication is simply that the java code writes a line for a request and the server then writes a line in response, but sometimes it seems that the server doesn't respond, so I've implemented an ExecutorService based timeout which tries to drop and restart the connection. To work with the connection I keep: Socket server; PrintWriter out; BufferedReader in; so setting up the connection is a matter of: server = new Socket(hostname, port); out = new PrintWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(server.getOutputStream())); in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream())); If it weren't for the timeout code the request/receive steps are simply: String request="some request"; out.println(request); out.flush(); String response = in.readLine(); When I received a timeout I was trying to close the connection with: in.close(); out.close(); socket.close(); but one of these closes seems to block and never return. Can anyone give me a clue why one of these would block and what would be the proper way to abandon the connection and not end up with resource leak issues?

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  • Handling primary key duplicates in a data warehouse load

    - by Meff
    I'm currently building an ETL system to load a data warehouse from a transactional system. The grain of my fact table is the transaction level. In order to ensure I don't load duplicate rows I've put a primary key on the fact table, which is the transaction ID. I've encountered a problem with transactions being reversed - In the transactional database this is done via a status, which I pick up and I can work out if the transaction is being done, or rolled back so I can load a reversal row in the warehouse. However, the reversal row will have the same transaction ID and so I get a primary key violation. I've solved this for now by negating the primary key, so transaction ID 1 would be a payment, and transaction ID -1 (In the warehouse only) would be the reversal. I have considered an alternative of generating a BIT column, where 0 is normal and 1 is reversal, then making the PK the transaction ID and the BIT column. My question is, is this a good practice, and has anyone else encountered anything like this? For reference, this is a payment processing system, so values will not be modified, so there will only ever be transactions and reversals.

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  • Custom API requirement

    - by Jonathan.Peppers
    We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • ESPN API - How can I retrieve college basketball conferences using the Teams API?

    - by nomad
    The support forums on ESPN.com recommend using Stack Overflow with the ESPN tag. That's why I'm here. I'm trying to obtain a list of all NCAA college basketball teams using ESPN's Teams API. I started with this GET request: http://api.espn.com/v1/sports/basketball/mens-college-basketball/teams?apikey=MY_API_KEY That gave me a list of teams, but many of them are missing. For example, there is no Nebraska. So then I thought that maybe I need to get a list of teams by conference. So I read this in the documentation: GROUPS: Allows for filtering by "group" or division, e.g. AL East, NFC South, etc. For group IDs and their corresponding values, make a request to http://developer.espn.com/v1/{resource}/leagues. Not applicable to golf and tennis. So then I try to make a request to `http://developer.espn.com/v1/basketball/mens-college-basketball/leagues?apikey=MY_API_KEY' and it says the page does not exist. Is this a bug or user error?

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  • Receiving 404 error when trying to get to MVC application in local IIS

    - by Corey Sunwold
    I have an existing web site setup on my local IIS built with web forms setup in this format: -MainSite -Application1 -Application2 -Application3 There are separate applications in each location, so MainSite has an application, and Application1 has another application and so on. This way development on different applications in the same site can be broken out. I want to add a new Application that is MVC instead of web forms. I created a new MVC project which runs in Cassini just fine, but when I create a new IIS application for it and point it to the MVC project I am unable to navigate to it in the browser and get a 404 error. I am expecting to be able to navigate to http://MainSite/NewMVCApplication/. I want the root of NewMVCApplication to point to my Contacts Controller. My global.asax in the new MVC application currently looks like this: public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Root", // Route name "", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Contacts", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } }

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