Search Results

Search found 11954 results on 479 pages for 'gets'.

Page 333/479 | < Previous Page | 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340  | Next Page >

• "Unrecognized configuration section connectionStrings" in app.exe.config

  - by Richard Bysouth

  Hi On a Terminal Server install of my WinForms app, one of my clients gets the following exception on startup: "Unrecognized configuration section connectionStrings" This is occurring in myapp.exe.config but I can't figure out why. Runs perfectly everywhere else, only difference between this install and any other is the connection string. I've searched around, but can only find this issue relating to ASP.NET apps and issues in web.config. Any ideas what could be broken in the config of this WinForms app though? Is it indicating a problem further up in machine.config? FYI the top part of myapp.exe.config is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="applicationSettings" type="System.Configuration.ApplicationSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=jjjjjjjjjj"> <section name="MyApp.Settings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=jjjjjjjj" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> <sectionGroup name="userSettings" type="System.Configuration.UserSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=jjjjjjjjj"> <section name="MyApp.Settings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=jjjjjjjjjj" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyApp.DataAccessLayer.Settings.MyConnectionString" connectionString="$$$$$$" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> ... thanks Richard

  Read the article

• UIButton: how to center an image and a text using imageEdgeInsets and titleEdgeInsets?

  - by R31n4ld0_

  Hello, guys. If I put only an image in a button and set the imageEdgeInsets more close to the top, the image stays centered and all works as expected: [button setImage:image forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button setImageEdgeInsets:UIEdgeInsetsMake(-15.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0)]; If I put only a text in a button and set titleEdgeInsets more close to the bottom, the text stays centered and all works as expected: [distractionButton setTitle:title forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [distractionButton setTitleEdgeInsets:UIEdgeInsetsMake(0.0, 0.0, -30, 0.0)]; But, if i put the 4 lines together one interfere with other and both lost the center alignment. All my images has 30 pixels widht, and if i put 30 in the left parameter of UIEdgeInsetMake for setTitleEdgeInsets, the text is centered again. The problem is that the image never gets centered because appears that it is dependent of the button.titleLabel size. I already tried many calculations with button size, image size, titleLabel size and never get both perfectly centered. Someone already have the same problem? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• jQuery AutoComplete Plugin not working for JSON Response (sValue.substring is not a function)

  - by Sunday Ironfoot

  I'm trying to use the autocomplete plugin for jQuery (this one http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete). My server is returning JSON string, which I'm trying to process on the client via AutoComplete plugin's 'parse' and 'formatItem' parameters, like so: $(document).ready(function() { $('.searchBox input.textbox').autocomplete('/DoSearch.aspx', { mustMatch: false, autoFill: true, minChars: 1, dataType: 'json', parse: function(data) { var array = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { array[array.length] = { data: data[i], value: data[i].ID, result: data[i].ID }; } return array; }, formatItem: function(row, i, n) { return row.ID + ': ' + row.Title; } }); }); When I run this I get a 'sValue.substring is not a function' error thrown in Firebug. However, if I stick breakpoints on formatItem and parse function, they are hit as expected and contain valid data it seems. Here is an exact copy 'n' paste of the JSON text that gets returned from the server: [{"ID":140177,"Title":"Food Handling","Code":"J01.576.423.200"},{"ID":140178,"Title":"Food Handling","Code":"J01.576.423.200"},{"ID":140179,"Title":"Brain Infarction","Code":"C10.228.140.300.301.200"},{"ID":140180,"Title":"Cerebral Hemorrhage","Code":"C10.228.140.300.535.200"},{"ID":140182,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140183,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140184,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140186,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140188,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140189,"Title":"Sulfonylurea Compounds","Code":"D02.886.590.795"}] Please help, I've already searched Google and StackOverflow for help, but can't find anyone having else this error, cheers!

  Read the article

• Deployed Qt5 Application Doesn't Print or Show Print Dialog

  - by MustacheMcLimey

  I'm experiencing Qt4 to Qt5 troubles. In my application when the user clicks the print button two things should happen, one is that a PDF gets written to disk (which still works fine in the new version, so I know that some of the printing functions are working properly) and the other is that a QPrintDialog should exec() and then send to a connected printer. I see the dialog when I launch from my development machine. The application launches on the deployed machine, but the QPrintDialog never shows and the document never prints. I am including print support. QT += core gui network webkitwidgets widgets printsupport I have been using Process Explorer to see what DLLs the application uses on my development machine, and I believe that everything is present. My application bundle includes: {myAppPath}\MyApp[MyApp.exe, Qt5PrintSupport.dll, ...] {myAppPath}\plugins\printsupport\windowsprintersupport.dll {myAppPath}\plugins\imageformats[ qgif.dll, qico.dll,qjpeg.dll, qmng.dll, qtga.dll, qtiff.dll, qwbmp.dll ] The following is the relevant code snippet: void PrintableForm::printFile() { //Writes the PDF to disk in every environment pdfCopy(); //Paper Copy only works on my dev machine QPrinter paperPrinter; QPrintDialog printDialog(&paperPrinter,this); if( printDialog.exec() == QDialog::Accepted ) { view->print(&paperPrinter); } this->accept(); } My first thought is that the relevant DLLs are not being found come print time, and that means that my application file system is incorrect, but I have not found anything that shows me a different file structure. Am I on the right track or is there something else wrong with this setup?

  Read the article

• Rotating an Image in Silverlight without cropping

  - by Tim Saunders

  I am currently working on a simple Silverlight app that will allow people to upload an image, crop, resize and rotate it and then load it via a webservice to a CMS. Cropping and resizing is done, however rotation is causing some problems. The image gets cropped and is off centre after the rotation. WriteableBitmap wb = new WriteableBitmap(destWidth, destHeight); RotateTransform rt = new RotateTransform(); rt.Angle = 90; rt.CenterX = width/2; rt.CenterY = height/2; //Draw to the Writeable Bitmap Image tempImage2 = new Image(); tempImage2.Width = width; tempImage2.Height = height; tempImage2.Source = rawImage; wb.Render(tempImage2,rt); wb.Invalidate(); rawImage = wb; message.Text = "h:" + rawImage.PixelHeight.ToString(); message.Text += ":w:" + rawImage.PixelWidth.ToString(); //Finally set the Image back MyImage.Source = wb; MyImage.Width = destWidth; MyImage.Height = destHeight; The code above only needs to rotate by 90° at this time so I'm just setting destWidth and destHeight to the height and width of the original image.

  Read the article

• How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 response code with generic XmlHttpRequest?

  - by Anthony

  So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

  Read the article

• flushing database cache in SWI-Prolog

  - by JPro

  We are using swi-prolog to run our testcases. Whenever the test starts, I am opening the connection to MYSQL database and storing the Name of the Test hat is being done and then closing the DB. These tests run for about 2 days continuously. After the tests are done, the results basically gets stored in folder in the server. There is a predicate in another prolog file that is called to update the results to the MYSQL database. The code is simple, I use odbc library and just call odbc_* predicates to connect and update the mysql by issuing direct queries. The actual problem is : If I try to call the Predicate from the same Prolog window, where the test just got completed, I get an error as updating to the DB server. Although I do not get any error in the connection. If I close the session of that prolog with halt and closing all the open prolog windows , then open an other complete new instance of Prolog and run the predicate the update goes well. I have a feeling that there is some connection reference to the MySQL DB in Prolog database. Is there any way to clear the database in prolog so that I can run the same predicate without closing any existing prolog windows? Any ideas appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Jmock mock DAO object

  - by Gandalf StormCrow

  Hi all, I wrote a method that retrieves certain list of strings, given a correct string key. Now when I create a list(the one to be retrieved by method descibed in previous sentence) and create test I can easily get results and test passes successfully. Now on the other hand if I save the content of this list to database in 2 columns, key and value I wrote a class which retrieves this items with method inside it. And when I print it out to console the expected results are correct, now I initialize my DAO from application context where inside its bean it gets session and because of DAO works. Now I'm trying to write a test which will mock the DAO, because I'm running test localy not on the server .. so I told jmock to mock it : private MyDAO myDAO; in the setup() myDAO = context.mock(MyDAO.class); I think I'm mocking it correctly or not, how can I mock this data from database? what is the best way? Is there somewhere good Jmock documentation? on their official site its not very good and clear, you have to know what you seek in order to find it, can't discover something cool in the mean time.

  Read the article

• Jeditable Datepicker onblur problem

  - by Shobha Deepthi

  Hi, I am using inline editing using Jeditable and datepicker. I have a column in my table which displays Date as a hyperlink. When I click on this it shows me the datepicker. And when a particular date is selected its updated in the backend and the cell now is updated with the changed value. However, am having problem with onblur event while changing month or years. This event gets triggered when I click on "Prev" or "Next" buttons on the datepicker control. This causes an exception when the date is selected. This works fine as long as the date selected is in the current month. I tried all possible solutions listed here: stackoverflow.com/questions/2007205/jeditable-datepicker-causing-blur-when-changing-month If settimeout the control does not change back to a normal hyperlink on closing the datepicker or on a true onblur event. Here's my code, $.editable.addInputType('datepicker', { element : function(settings, original) { var input = $(''); if (settings.width != 'none') { input.width(settings.width); } if (settings.height != 'none') { input.height(settings.height); } input.attr('autocomplete','off'); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin : function(settings, original) { var form = this; settings.onblur = function(e) { t = setTimeout(function() { original.reset.apply(form, [settings, self]); }, 100); }; $(this).find('input').datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, dateFormat: 'dd-M-y', closeAtTop: true, onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger('submit'); } }); }, submit : function(settings, original) { } }); $(function() { $('.edit_eta').editable('update_must_fix_eta.php', { id: 'bugid', name: 'eta', type: 'datepicker', event: 'click', select : true, width: '50px', onblur:'cancel', cssclass : 'editable', indicator : 'Updating ETA, please wait.', style : 'inherit', submitdata:{version:'4.2(4)',tag:'REL_4_2_4',qstr:1} }); }); I tried hacking jeditable.js as mentioned on this link: http://groups.google.com/group/jquery-dev/browse_thread/thread/265340ea692a2f47 Even this does not help. Any help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• WPF: Textbox not firing onTextInput event

  - by Kay Ell

  So basically, I have a bunch of TextBoxes that the user gets to fill out. I've got a button that I want to keep disabled until all the TextBoxes have had text entered in them. Here is a sample XAML TextBox that I'm using: <TextBox Name="DelayedRecallScore" TextInput="CheckTextBoxFilled" Width="24" /> And here is the function that I'm trying to trigger: //Disables the OK button until all score textboxes have content private void CheckTextBoxFilled(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /* foreach (TextBox scorebox in TextBoxList) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(scorebox.Text)) { Ok_Button.IsEnabled = false; return; } } Ok_Button.IsEnabled = true; */ MessageBox.Show("THIS MAKES NO SENSE"); } The MessageBox is not showing up when TextInput should be getting triggered. As an experiment I tried triggering CheckTextBoxFilled() on PreviewTextInput, and it worked fine then, meaning that for whatever reason, the function just isn't getting called. I also have a validation function that is triggered by PreviewTextInput, which works as it should. At first I thought PreviewTextInput might somehow be interfering with TextInput, so I took PreviewTextInput off the TextBox, but that hasn't managed to fix anything. I'm completely befuddled by why this might happen, so any help would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• Silverlight - use a ScrollViewer in a TextBox template

  - by vladhorby

  I'm trying to make a TextBox template and I need to include a ScrollViewer in the template - basically I want to add some content (like line numbers) that needs to scroll along with the normal text. The default template for the TextBox is like this: <Border x:Name="Border" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" CornerRadius="1" Opacity="1"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="ReadOnlyVisualElement" Background="#5EC9C9C9" Opacity="0"/> <Border x:Name="MouseOverBorder" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1"> <ScrollViewer x:Name="ContentElement" BorderThickness="0" IsTabStop="False" Padding="{TemplateBinding Padding}"/> </Border> </Grid> </Border> If I change the ContentElement from ScrollViewer to Border, for example, the TextBox behaves normally - i just lose the scrolling ability. Now, if I wrap the ContentElement with a ScrollViewer, it no longer displays the caret and selection - if you type, it still gets updated though. <Border x:Name="Border" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" CornerRadius="1" Opacity="1"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="ReadOnlyVisualElement" Background="#5EC9C9C9" Opacity="0"/> <Border x:Name="MouseOverBorder" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1"> <ScrollViewer ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" > <Border x:Name="ContentElement" BorderThickness="0" Padding="{TemplateBinding Padding}" /> </ScrollViewer> </Border> </Grid> </Border> Any idea why this happens and how can I fix it?

  Read the article

• ASP MVC C#: LINQ Foreign Key Constraint conflicts

  - by wh0emPah

  I'm having a problem with LINQ. I have 2 tables (Parent-child relation) Table1: Events (EventID, Description) Table2: Groups (GroupID, EventID(FK), Description) Now i want to create an Event an and a child. Event e = new Event(); e.Description = "test"; Datacontext.Events.InsertOnSubmit(event) Group g = new Group(); g.Description = "test2"; g.EventID = e.EventID; Datacontext.Groups.InsertOnSubmit(g); Datacontext.SubmitChanges(); When i debug, i can see that after inserting the event. the EventID has gotten a new value (auto increment). But when Datacontext.SubmitChanges(); gets called. I get the following exception "The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY constraint ... I know this can be solved by creating a relation in the LINQ diagram between Events and groups. And then setting the entity itself. But i don't want to load the events everytime i ask a list of groups. All i need is some way that when inserting the group fails, the event insert won't be comitted in the database. Sorry if this is a bit unclear, My english isn't really good. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Ruby on rails generates tests for you. Do those give a false sense of a safety net?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Disclaimer: I have not used RoR, and I have not generated tests. But, I will still dare to post this question. Quality Assurance is theoretically impossible to get 100% right in general (Undecidable problem ;), and it is hard in practice. So many developers do not understand that writing good automated tests is an art, and it is hard. When I hear that RoR generates the tests for you, I get very skeptical. It cannot be that easy. Testing is a general concept; it applies across languages. So does the concept of code contracts, it is similar for languages that support it. Code contracts do not generate themselves. The programmer must add the requirements and the promises manually, after doing some thinking about the algorithm / function. If a human gets it wrong, then the tools will propagate the error. Similarly with testing - it takes human judgement about what should happen. Tests do not write themselves, and we are far from the day when a business analyst can just have a conversation with a computer and tell it informally what the requirements are and have the computer do all the work. There is no magic ... how can RoR generate good tests for you? Please shed some light on this. Opinions are ok, for this is a community wiki. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Wpf ListBox Trigger not working for IsFocused Property.

  - by viky

  I want to style my ListBox and displaying some Border around it, i want to hide this Border when ListBox gets focus, <Trigger Property="IsFocused" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Visibility" TargetName="border" Value="Collapsed"/> </Trigger> Same thing i m using in TextBox also and it is working properly, why this Trigger not working for ListBox? Edit: i am having this Style for my ListBox <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type local:ListBox}"> <Border SnapsToDevicePixels="true" x:Name="Bd" CornerRadius="5" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" Padding="1"> <Grid> <local:ScrollViewer Focusable="false" Padding="{TemplateBinding Padding}"> <ItemsPresenter SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding SnapsToDevicePixels}"/> </local:ScrollViewer> <Border CornerRadius="5" Background="Red" x:Name="border"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" FontWeight="Bold" Foreground="White" Text="{TemplateBinding Message}" FontFamily="Courier New" /> </Border> </Grid> </Border> </DockPanel> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsFocused" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Visibility" TargetName="border" Value="Collapsed"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsEnabled" Value="false"> <Setter Property="Background" TargetName="Bd" Value="{DynamicResource {x:Static SystemColors.ControlBrushKey}}"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="false"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers>

  Read the article

• How to keep relative position of WPF elements on background image

  - by Masterfu

  Hi folks, I am new to WPF, so the answer to the following question might be obvious, however it isn't to me. I need to display an image where users can set markers on (As an example: You might want to mark a person's face on a photograph with a rectangle), however the markers need to keep their relative position when scaling the image. Currently I am doing this by using a Canvas and setting an ImageBrush as Background. This displays the image and I can add elements like a Label (as replacement for a rectangle) on top of the image. But when I set a label like this, it's position is absolute and so when the underlying picture is scaled (because the user drags the window larger) the Label stays at it's absolute position (say, 100,100) instead of moving to the new position that keeps it "in sync" with the underlying image. To cut the matter short: When I set a marker on a person's eye, it shouldn't be on the person's ear after scaling the window. Any suggestions on how to do that in WPF? Maybe Canvas is the wrong approach in the first place? I could keep a collection of markers in code and recalculate their position every time the window gets resized, but I hope there is a way to let WPF do that work for me :-) I am interested in hearing your opinions on this. Thanks

  Read the article

• Milliseconds in DateTime.Now on .NET Compact Framework always zero? [SOLVED]

  - by Marcel

  Hi all, i want to have a time stamp for logs on a Windows Mobile project. The accuracy must be in the range a hundred milliseconds at least. However my call to DateTime.Now returns a DateTime object with the Millisecond property set to zero. Also the Ticks property is rounded accordingly. How to get better time accuracy? Remember, that my code runs on on the Compact Framework, version 3.5. I use a HTC touch Pro 2 device. Based on the answer from MusiGenesis i have created the following class which solved this problem: /// <summary> /// A more precisely implementation of some DateTime properties on mobile devices. /// </summary> /// <devdoc>Tested on a HTC Touch Pro2.</devdoc> public static class DateTimePrecisely { /// <summary> /// Remembers the start time when this model was created. /// </summary> private static DateTime _start = DateTime.Now; /// <summary> /// Remembers the system uptime ticks when this model was created. This /// serves as a more precise time provider as DateTime.Now can do. /// </summary> private static int _startTick = Environment.TickCount; /// <summary> /// Gets a DateTime object that is set exactly to the current date and time on this computer, expressed as the local time. /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> public static DateTime Now { get { return _start.AddMilliseconds(Environment.TickCount - _startTick); } } }

  Read the article

• Is VB Really Case Insensitive?

  - by Otaku

  I'm not trying to start an argument here, but for whatever reason it's typically stated that VB is case insensitive and C languages aren't (and somehow that is a good thing). But here's my question: Where exactly is VB case insensitive? When I type... Dim ss As String Dim SS As String ...into the VS2008 IDE the second one has a warning of "Local variable 'SS' is already declared in the current block". In VBA VBE, it doesn't immediately kick an error, but rather just auto-corrects the case. Am I missing something here with this argument that VB is not case sensitive? (Also, if you know or care to answer, why would that be a bad thing?) EDIT: Why am I even asking this question? I've used VB in many of it's dialects for years now, sometimes as a hobbyist, sometimes for small business-related programs in a workgroup. As of the last 6 months I've been working on a big project, much bigger than I anticipated. Much of the sample source code out there is in C#. I don't have any burning desire to learn C#, but if there are things I'm missing out on that C# offers that VB doesn't (an opposite would be VB.NET offers XML Literals), then I'd like to know more about that feature. So in this case, it's often argued that C languages are case sensitive and that's good and VB is case insensitive and that is bad. I'd like to know A) how exactly is VB case insensitive because every single example in the code editor becomes case sensititive (meaning case gets corrected) whether I want it or not and B) is this compelling enough for me to consider moving to C# if VB.NET case is somehow limiting what I could do with code?

  Read the article

• Force a UIView to redraw immediately, instead of during next run loop

  - by Justin Kent

  I've created a UIImagePicker / camera view, with a toolbar and custom button for taking a snapshot. I can't really change to using the default way because of the custom button, and I'm drawing on top of the view. When you hit the button, I want to take a screenshot using UIGetScreenImage(); however, the toolbar is showing up in the image, even if I hide it first: //hide the toolbar self.toolbar.hidden = YES; // capture the screen pixels CGImageRef screenCap = UIGetScreenImage(); I'm pretty sure this is because even though the toolbar is hidden, it gets redrawn once the function returns and we enter the next run loop - after UIGetScreenImage is called. I tried making the following addition, but it didn't help: //hide the toolbar self.toolbar.hidden = YES; [self.toolbar drawRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 52)]; // capture the screen pixels CGImageRef screenCap = UIGetScreenImage(); I also tried using setNeedsDisplay, but that doesn't work either because once again the draw happens after the current function returns. Any suggestions? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Comet and Simultaneous Ajax request

  - by Amitd

  Hi , I am trying to use a COMET solution using ASP.NET . Trouble is i want to implement sending and notification part in the same page. On IE7, whenever i try to send a request ,it just gets queued up. After reading on internet and stackoverflow pages i found that i can only do 2 simultaneous asyn ajax requests per page. So until i close my comet Ajax request,my 2nd request doesnt get completed ,doesnt even go out from the browser. And when i checked with Firefox i just one Ajax comet request running all time..so doesnt that leave me one more ajax request? Also the solution uses IRequiressessionstate for Asynchronous HTTP Handler which i had removed.but still it creates problems on multiple instances of IE7. I had one work around which is stated here http://support.microsoft.com/kb/282402 it means we can increase the request limit from registry by default is 2. By changing "MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server" key in hive "HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings" we can increase the number of requests. Basically i want to broadcast information to multiple clients connected to a server using Comet and the clients can also send messages to the Server. Broadcasting works but the send request back to server doesnt work. Im using IIS 6 and ASP.NET . Are there any more workarounds or ways to send more requests? References : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/561046/how-many-concurrent-ajax-xmlhttprequest-requests-are-allowed-in-popular-browser http://stackoverflow.com/questions/349381/ajax-php-sessions-and-simultaneous-requests http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2412807/jquery-ajax-request-blocked-by-long-running-ajax-request http://stackoverflow.com/questions/898190/jquery-making-simultaneous-ajax-requests-is-it-possible

  Read the article

• Looping Redirect with PyFacebook and Google App Engine

  - by Nick Gotch

  I have a Python Facebook project hosted on Google App Engine and use the following code to handle initialization of the Facebook API using PyFacebook. # Facebook Initialization def initialize_facebook(f): # Redirection handler def redirect(self, url): logger.info('Redirecting the user to: ' + url) self.response.headers.add_header("Cache-Control", "max-age=0") self.response.headers.add_header("Pragma", "no-cache") self.response.out.write('<html><head><script>parent.location.replace(\'' + url + '\');</script></head></html>') return 'Moved temporarily' auth_token = request.params.get('auth_token', None) fbapi = Facebook(settings['FACEBOOK_API_KEY'], settings['FACEBOOK_SECRET_KEY'], auth_token=auth_token) if not fbapi: logger.error('Facebook failed to initialize') if fbapi.check_session(request) or auth_token: pass else: logger.info('User not logged into Facebook') return lambda a: redirect(a, fbapi.get_login_url()) if fbapi.added: pass else: logger.info('User does not have ' + settings['FACEBOOK_APP_NAME'] + ' added') return lambda a: redirect(a, fbapi.get_add_url()) # Return the validated API logger.info('Facebook successfully initialized') return lambda a: f(a, fbapi=fbapi) I'm trying to set it up so that I can drop this decorator on any page handler method and verify that the user has everything set up correctly. The issue is that when the redirect handler gets called, it starts an infinite loop of redirection. I tried using an HTTP 302 redirection in place of the JavaScript but that kept failing too. Does anyone know what I can do to fix this? I saw this similar question but there are no answers.

  Read the article

• gcc: Do I need -D_REENTRANT with pthreads?

  - by stefanB

  On Linux (kernel 2.6.5) our build system calls gcc with -D_REENTRANT. Is this still required when using pthreads? How is it related to gcc -pthread option? I understand that I should use -pthread with pthreads, do I still need -D_REENTRANT? On a side note, is there any difference that you know off between the usage of REENTRANT between gcc 3.3.3 and gcc 4.x.x ? When I use -pthread gcc option I can see that _REENTRANT gets defined. Will omitting -D_REENTRANT from command line make any difference, for example could some objects be compiled without multithreaded support and then linked into binary that uses pthreads and will cause problems? I assume it should be ok just to use: g++ -pthread > echo | g++ -E -dM -c - > singlethreaded > echo | g++ -pthread -E -dM -c - > multithreaded > diff singlethreaded multithreaded 39a40 > #define _REENTRANT 1 We're compiling multiple static libraries and applications that link with the static libraries, both libraries and application use pthreads. I believe it was required at some stage in the past but want to know if it is still required. Googling hasn't returned any recent information mentioning -D_REENTRANT with pthreads. Could you point me to links or references discussing the use in recent version of kernel/gcc/pthread? Clarification: At the moment we're using -D_REENTRANT and -lpthread, I assume I can replace them with just g++ -pthread, looking at man gcc it sets the flags for both preprocessor and linker. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• NSMutableURLRequest wont try to use 3G when 3G is not 'connected' in Reachability enumeration

  - by Kyle

  I won't bother posting any code because my code works fine when I launch Safari or something that turns on the 3G connection first. When I put it Airport mode, then put back OFF, I will get the behavior of a connection error saying No internet connection with NSMutableURLRequest. I've personally mailed apple about how the Ant gets turned on and off, and they said anything that uses their base CFSocketStream object will turn on the Ant, and I quote: "such as NSURLRequest".. BSD Sockets do not, just so everyone knows.. However, I assumed NSMutableURLRequest would fall into the category of 'Does', but it seems like it doesnt. It never succeeds for me when I cycle Airport or have the phone idle for a long time. It will ALWAYS succeed when I open any other network app first to turn the Ant on. Shall I be forced to do a dummy NSURLRequest call to turn this on; or has anyone been able to get this class working just fine? Remember this is just an implementation of NSMutableURLRequest to upload a file Async, and no other Network operations are performed anywhere; no ads, no version checks, no nothing.

  Read the article

• socket problem with MySQL

  - by Hristo

  This is a recent problem... MySQL was working and a couple of days ago I must have done something. I deleted MySQL and tried reinstalling using the .dmg file. The mysql.sock file never gets created and I get the following error messages: Hristo$ mysql Enter password: ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/mysql/mysql.sock' (2) I also tried stopping Apache and installing but Apache gave me an error... I don't know if this is good or bad: Hristo$ sudo apachectl stop launchctl: Error unloading: org.apache.httpd I tried the MacPorts installation as well but the socket file still didn't get created. I don't really know what to do and I don't want to reinstall Snow Leopard and start from scratch :/ I also tried installing the 32-bit version and same deal. No luck. Finally... I tried doing the source installation but when I get to the configuration step, I get the following error: -bash: ./configure: No such file or directory The file is "mysql-5.1.47-osx10.6-x86_64.tar.gz" so I think it is the proper file for source installation and yes I have a 64 bit system. I don't know what to do anymore. Any ideas? Thanks, Hristo

  Read the article

• FileDialog DoubleClick Behavior

  - by Shaun Hamman

  While developing a WinForms application, I came across what I believe is a bug in the OpenFileDialog and SaveFileDialog controls. A Google search turned up a single other person who noticed the same issue, but neither a solution nor a workaround was provided. You can view this thread at: http://bytes.com/topic/visual-basic-net/answers/389470-open-file-dialog-picturebox-click-event. I have a custom control on my form that handles the MouseDown event. If I doubleclick a file in a FileDialog control while the mouse is over this control (with the dialog between them, obviously), the MouseDown event gets triggered. I don't think this is an issue with my control, because the person I mentioned before noticed this happening with a PictureBox control. It would seem that even though the mouse button was pressed down (for the second click to open the file) while on the dialog box, the event passed through to the form and my control when the dialog closed. I have tried disabling my control while the dialog box is active, but that didn't stop it from capturing the event. I assume this is because the event is passed down after the dialog closes, so my control would be re-enabled. Does anyone know of a way to prevent that click from reaching the form and, in turn, my control? Also, can anyone confirm if this really is a bug in the FileDialog controls, or if I just have some setting configured incorrectly?

  Read the article

• Gmail IMAP OAuth for desktop clients

  - by Sabya

  Recently Google announced that they are supporting OAUth for Gmail IMAP/SMTP. I browsed through their multiple documentations, but still I am confused about if they support OAuth for installed applications. 1. In this documentation they say: Note: Though the OAuth protocol supports the desktop/installed application use case, Google only supports OAuth for web applications. But they also have a document for OAuth for installed applications. 2. When I read the OAuth specification pointed by them, it says (in section 11.7): In many applications, the Consumer application will be under the control of potentially untrusted parties. For example, if the Consumer is a freely available desktop application, an attacker may be able to download a copy for analysis. In such cases, attackers will be able to recover the Consumer Secret used to authenticate the Consumer to the Service Provider. Also I think the disclaimer in point 1 above is about Google Data APIs, and surely IMAP/SMTP is not a part of them. I understand that for installed applications I can have a setup like: Have a small web-app at say example.com for my application. This web-app talks to Google gets the access token. The installed application talks to example.com only to get the access token. Installed application then talks to Google with the access token. I am now confused. Is this the only way?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340  | Next Page >