Search Results

Search found 9634 results on 386 pages for 'proxy pattern'.

Page 333/386 | < Previous Page | 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340  | Next Page >

• How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

  - by Gary McGill

  DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

  Read the article

• WCF events in server-side

  - by Eisenrich

  Hi all, I'm working on an application in WCF and want to receive events in the server side. I have a web that upon request needs to register a fingerprint. The web page request the connection of the device and then every second for 15 seconds requests the answer. The server-side code is apparently "simple" but doesn't work. Here is it: [ServiceContract] interface IEEtest { [OperationContract] void EEDirectConnect(); } class EETest : IEEtest { public void EEDirectConnect() { CZ ee = new CZ(); // initiates the device dll ee.Connect_Net("192.168.1.200", 4011); ee.OnFinger += new _IEEEvents_OnFingerEventHandler(ee_OnFinger); } public void ee_OnFinger() { //here i have a breakpoint; } } every time I put my finger, it should fire the event. in fact if I static void Main() { EETest pp = new EETest(); pp.EEDirectConnect(); } It works fine. but from my proxy it doesn't fire the event. do you have any tips, recommendations, or can you see the error? Thanks everyone.

  Read the article

• Codemetric optimized httpwebrequest in C#

  - by Omegavirus

  Hello, the problem is the httpwebrequest method in my c# program. visual studio gives it a metric of 60, thats pretty lame.. so how can i program it more efficient? (: my actual code: public string httpRequest(string url) { HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.Method = "GET"; request.Proxy = WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy; request.MediaType = "HTTP/1.1"; request.ContentType = "text/xml"; request.UserAgent = "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; de; rv:1.9.2.12) Gecko/20101026 Firefox/3.6.12"; HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); StreamReader streamr = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8); String sresp = streamr.ReadToEnd(); streamr.Close(); return sresp; } thanks for helping. ;)

  Read the article

• Prevent Ninject from calling Initialize multiple times when binding to several interfaces

  - by Ahe

  Hi We have a concrete singleton service which implements Ninject.IInitializable and 2 interfaces. Problem is that services Initialize-methdod is called 2 times, when only one is desired. We are using .NET 3.5 and Ninject 2.0.0.0. Is there a pattern in Ninject prevent this from happening. Neither of the interfaces implement Ninject.IInitializable. the service class is: public class ConcreteService : IService1, IService2, Ninject.IInitializable { public void Initialize() { // This is called twice! } } And module looks like this: public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { this.Singleton<Iservice1, Iservice2, ConcreteService>(); } } where Singleton is an extension method defined like this: public static void Singleton<K, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K { module.Bind<K>().To<T>().InSingletonScope(); } public static void Singleton<K, L, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K, L { Singleton<K, T>(module); module.Bind<L>().ToMethod(n => n.Kernel.Get<T>()); } Of course we could add bool initialized-member to ConcreteService and initialize only when it is false, but it seems quite a bit of a hack. And it would require repeating the same logic in every service that implements two or more interfaces. Thanks for all the answers! I learned something from all of them! (I am having a hard time to decide which one mark correct). We ended up creating IActivable interface and extending ninject kernel (it also removed nicely code level dependencies to ninject, allthough attributes still remain).

  Read the article

• Strip parity bits in C from 8 bits of data followed by 1 parity bit

  - by dubnde

  I have a buffer of bits with 8 bits of data followed by 1 parity bit. This pattern repeats itself. The buffer is currently stored as an array of octets. Example (p are parity bits): 0001 0001 p000 0100 0p00 0001 00p01 1100 ... should become 0001 0001 0000 1000 0000 0100 0111 00 ... Basically, I need to strip of every ninth bit to just obtain the data bits. How can I achieve this? This is related to another question asked here sometime back. This is on a 32 bit machine so the solution to the related question may not be applicable. The maximum possible number of bits is 45 i.e. 5 data octets This is what I have tried so far. I have created a "boolean" array and added the bits into the array based on the the bitset of the octet. I then look at every ninth index of the array and through it away. Then move the remaining array down one index. Then I've got only the data bits left. I was thinking there may be better ways of doing this.

  Read the article

• SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication.

  - by Shao

  SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication. From: http://wiki.pylonshq.com/display/pylonscookbook/Simple+Homegrown+Authentication Note: a. Project follows the MVC pattern. b. Only a user with a valid username and password is allowed submit something. Design: a. Have a base controller from which all controllers are derived from. b. Before any of the actions in the derived controllers are called the system calls a before action in the base controller. c. In each controller user hardcodes the actions that need to be verified in an array. d. The before action first looks in the array that has the actions that are protected and sees if a user is logged in or not by peaking into the session. If a user is present then user is allowed to submit otherwise user is redirected to login page. What do you think?

  Read the article

• Transaction Isolation Level of Serializable not working for me

  - by Shahriar

  I have a website which is used by all branches of a store and what it does is that it records customer purchases into a table called myTransactions.myTransactions table has a column named SerialNumber.For each purchase i create a record in the transactions table and assign a serial to it.The stored procedure that does this calls a UDF function to get a new serialNumber before inserting the record.Like below : Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2,Value3,...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) end Create function getTransactionNSerialNumber as begin RETURN isnull(SELECT TOP (1) SerialNumber FROM myTransactions READUNCOMMITTED ORDER BY SerialNumber DESC),0) + 1 end The website is being used by so many users in different stores at the same time and it is creating many duplicate serialNumbers(same SerialNumbers).So i added a Sql transaction with ReadCommitted level to the transaction and i still got duplicate transaction numbers.I changed it to SERIALIZABLE in order to lock the resources and i not only got duplicate transaction numbers(!!HOW!!) but i also got sporadic deadlocks between the same stored procedure calls.This is what i tried : (With ommissions of try catch blocks and rollbacks) Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRASNACTION ins insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2 , Value3, ...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) COMMIT TRANSACTION ins SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION READCOMMITTED end I even copied the function that gets the serial number directly into the stored procedure instead of the UDF function call and still got duplicate serialNumbers.So,How can a stored procedure line create something Like the c# lock() {} block. By the way,i have to implement the transaction serial number using the same pattern and i can't change the serialNumber to any other identity field or whatever.And for some reasons i need to generate the serialNumber inside the databse and i can't move SerialNumber generation to application level. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Empty data problem - data layer or DAL?

  - by luckyluke

  I designing the new App now and giving the following question a lot of thought. I consume a lot of data from the warehouse, and the entities have a lot of dictionary based values (currency, country, tax-whatever data) - dimensions. I cannot be assured though that there won't be nulls. So I am thinking: create an empty value in each of teh dictionaries with special keyID - ie. -1 do the ETL (ssis) do the correct stuff and insert -1 where it needs to let the DAL know that -1 is special (Static const whatever thing) don't care in the code to check for nullness of dictionary entries because THEY will always have a value But maybe I should be thinking: import data AS IS let the DAL do the thinking using empty record Pattern still don't care in the code because business layer will have what it needs from DAL. I think is more of a approach thing but maybe i am missing something important here... What do You think? Am i clear? Please don't confuse it with empty record problem. I do use emptyCustomer think all the time and other defaults too.

  Read the article

• Frameworks to manage dates (effective date and expiry dates)

  - by user214626

  Hello, We have an object that can has an effective date and expiry date.(Ex. i want to maintain the price of a commodity for a time period) Business Rules - Effective date is always a valid date (a datestamp) but, expiry date can be null to indicate that the object is active throughout. Also, both effective and expiry date can be set to some valid dates. Are there any frameworks that manage objects such that the objects are consistent,i.e there are no overlaps of the validity periods ? Ex. class XBOX { double price; Date effectiveDate; Date expiryDate; } XBOX x1 = new XBOX(400$, '2007-01-01','2008-12-31' ); XBOX x2 = new XBOX(200$, '2009-01-01',null ); Assume that we get a new rate from '2010-01-01' and a new XBOX object has to be created (to persist). Is there a framework/pattern that can do the following, so that the XBOX is consistent. x2.setExpiryDate('2009-12-31') XBOX x3 = new XBOX(150$, '2010-01-01',null ); Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• mocking collection behavior with Moq

  - by Stephen Patten

  Hello, I've read through some of the discussions on the Moq user group and have failed to find an example and have been so far unable to find the scenario that I have. Here is my question and code: // 6 periods var schedule = new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>() { new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(1).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(2).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(3).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(4).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(5).ToString()) }; // Now the proxy is correct with the schedule helper.Setup(h => h.GetPlanPeriods(It.IsAny<String>(), schedule)); Then in my tests I use Periods but the Mocked _PaymentPlanHelper never populates the collection, see below for usage: public IEnumerable<PaymentPlanPeriod> Periods { get { if (CanCalculateExpression()) _PaymentPlanHelper.GetPlanPeriods(this.ToString(), _PaymentSchedule); return _PaymentSchedule; } } Now if I change the mocked object to use another overloaded method of GetPlanPeriods that returns a List like so : var schedule = new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>() { new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(1).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(2).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(3).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(4).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(5).ToString()) }; helper.Setup(h => h.GetPlanPeriods(It.IsAny<String>())).Returns(new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>(schedule)); List<PaymentPlanPeriod> result = new _PaymentPlanHelper.GetPlanPeriods(this.ToString()); This works as expected. Any pointers would be awesome, as long as you don't bash my architecture... :) Thank you, Stephen

  Read the article

• In C#, what thread will Events be handled in?

  - by Ben

  Hi, I have attempted to implement a producer/consumer pattern in c#. I have a consumer thread that monitors a shared queue, and a producer thread that places items onto the shared queue. The producer thread is subscribed to receive data...that is, it has an event handler, and just sits around and waits for an OnData event to fire (the data is being sent from a 3rd party api). When it gets the data, it sticks it on the queue so the consumer can handle it. When the OnData event does fire in the producer, I had expected it to be handled by my producer thread. But that doesn't seem to be what is happening. The OnData event seems as if it's being handled on a new thread instead! Is this how .net always works...events are handled on their own thread? Can I control what thread will handle events when they're raised? What if hundreds of events are raised near-simultaneously...would each have its own thread? Thank in advance! Ben

  Read the article

• Thread implemented as a Singleton

  - by rocknroll

  Hi all, I have a commercial application made with C,C++/Qt on Linux platform. The app collects data from different sensors and displays them on GUI. Each of the protocol for interfacing with sensors is implemented using singleton pattern and threads from Qt QThreads class. All the protocols except one work fine. Each protocol's run function for thread has following structure: void <ProtocolClassName>::run() { while(!mStop) //check whether screen is closed or not { mutex.lock() while(!waitcondition.wait(&mutex,5)) { if(mStop) return; } //Code for receiving and processing incoming data mutex.unlock(); } //end while } Hierarchy of GUI. 1.Login screen. 2. Screen of action. When a user logs in from login screen, we enter the action screen where all data is displayed and all the thread's for different sensors start. They wait on mStop variable in idle time and when data arrives they jump to receiving and processing data. Incoming data for the problem protocol is 117 bytes. In the main GUI threads there are timers which when timeout, grab the running instance of protocol using <ProtocolName>::instance() function Check the update variable of singleton class if its true and display the data. When the data display is done they reset the update variable in singleton class to false. The problematic protocol has the update time of 1 sec, which is also the frame rate of protocol. When I comment out the display function it runs fine. But when display is activated the application hangs consistently after 6-7 hours. I have asked this question on many forums but haven't received any worthwhile suggestions. I Hope that here I will get some help. Also, I have read a lot of literature on Singleton, multithreading, and found that people always discourage the use of singletons especially in C++. But in my application I can think of no other design for implementation. Thanks in advance A Hapless programmer

  Read the article

• WPF Textbox & Borders - curious resizing behavior

  - by CitizenParker

  The following XAML produces a window with strange behavior around the textbox: <Window x:Class="WpfSandbox.CuriousExample" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="CuriousExample" Height="300" Width="300"> <DockPanel Margin="15"> <TextBox BorderThickness="1" BorderBrush="#FF000000"></TextBox> </DockPanel> </Window> What happens, at least during my limited testing, is that the textbox renders with an inset border pattern (top/left is black, right/bottom is grey). However, when you resize to any position except the original, the entire textbox border goes to black. Whenever you return the window to the exact number of on-screen pixels the form had when it first loaded, it's inset again. I'm guessing it isn't pixel snapping as I can easily correct the problem with this code: <Window x:Class="WpfSandbox.CuriousExample" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="CuriousExample" Height="300" Width="300"> <DockPanel Margin="15"> <Border BorderThickness="1" BorderBrush="#FF000000"> <TextBox BorderThickness="0" ></TextBox> </Border> </DockPanel> </Window> Anyone care to venture an explanation as to what I'm seeing? Or is it all in my head? Like I said, the above workaround can resolve this problem - just trying to understand what is happening here. Thanks, -Scott

  Read the article

• How do I unit test a finalizer?

  - by GraemeF

  I have the following class which is a decorator for an IDisposable object (I have omitted the stuff it adds) which itself implements IDisposable using a common pattern: public class DisposableDecorator : IDisposable { private readonly IDisposable _innerDisposable; public DisposableDecorator(IDisposable innerDisposable) { _innerDisposable = innerDisposable; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } #endregion ~DisposableDecorator() { Dispose(false); } protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (disposing) _innerDisposable.Dispose(); } } I can easily test that innerDisposable is disposed when Dispose() is called: [Test] public void Dispose__DisposesInnerDisposable() { var mockInnerDisposable = new Mock<IDisposable>(); new DisposableDecorator(mockInnerDisposable.Object).Dispose(); mockInnerDisposable.Verify(x => x.Dispose()); } But how do I write a test to make sure innerDisposable does not get disposed by the finalizer? I want to write something like this but it fails, presumably because the finalizer hasn't been called by the GC thread: [Test] public void Finalizer__DoesNotDisposeInnerDisposable() { var mockInnerDisposable = new Mock<IDisposable>(); new DisposableDecorator(mockInnerDisposable.Object); GC.Collect(); mockInnerDisposable.Verify(x => x.Dispose(), Times.Never()); }

  Read the article

• DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

  - by Nathan Loding

  I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

  Read the article

• How to not pass around the container when using IoC in Winforms

  - by L2Type

  I'm new to the world of IoC and having a problem with implementing it in a Winforms application. I have an extremely basic application Winform application that uses MVC, it is one controller that does all the work and a working dialog (obviously with a controller). So I load all my classes in to my IoC container in program.cs and create the main form controller using the container. But this is where I am having problems, I only want to create the working dialog controller when it's used and inside a using statement. At first I passed in the container but I've read this is bad practice and more over the container is a static and I want to unit test this class. So how do you create classes in a unit test friendly way without passing in the container, I was considering the abstract factory pattern but that alone would solve my problem without using the IoC. I'm not using any famous framework, I borrowed a basic one from this blog post http://www.kenegozi.com/Blog/2008/01/17/its-my-turn-to-build-an-ioc-container-in-15-minutes-and-33-lines.aspx How do I do this with IoC? Is this the wrong use for IoC?

  Read the article

• PF, load balanced gateways, and Squid

  - by Santa

  Hi, So I have a FreeBSD router running PF and Squid, and it has three network interfaces: two connected to upstream providers (em0 and em1 respectively), and one for LAN (re0) that we serve. There is some load balancing configured with PF. Basically, it routes all traffic to ports 1-1024 through one interface (em0) and everything else through the other (em1). Now, I have a Squid proxy also running on the box that transparently redirects any HTTP request from LAN to port 3128 in 127.0.0.1. Since Squid redirects this request to HTTP outside, it should follow the load balancing rule through em0, no? The problem is, when we tested it out (by browsing from a computer in the LAN to http://whatismyip.com, it reports the external IP of the em1 interface! When we turn Squid off, the external IP of em0 is reported, as expected. How do I make Squid behave with the load balancing rule that we have set up? Here's the related settings in /etc/pf.conf that I have: ext_if1="em1" # DSL ext_if2="em0" # T1 int_if="re0" ext_gw1="x.x.x.1" ext_gw2="y.y.y.1" int_addr="10.0.0.1" int_net="10.0.0.0/16" dsl_ports = "1024:65535" t1_ports = "1:1023" ... squid=3128 rdr on $int_if inet proto tcp from $int_net \ to any port 80 -> 127.0.0.1 port $squid pass in quick on $int_if route-to lo0 inet proto tcp \ from $int_net to 127.0.0.1 port $squid keep state ... # load balancing pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if1 $ext_gw1) \ proto tcp from $int_net to any port $dsl_ports keep state pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if1 $ext_gw1) \ proto udp from $int_net to any port $dsl_ports pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if2 $ext_gw2) \ proto tcp from $int_net to any port $t1_ports keep state pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if2 $ext_gw2) \ proto udp from $int_net to any port $t1_ports Thanks!

  Read the article

• POST data getting lost: Content Length = 0

  - by Igor K

  I've been trying to find a solution for ages with no success. On our app, customers submit a form and on the next page we process it. Sometimes though the data never arrives. This seems to happen for just a few of our customers. Seems to happen with IE7 and using a proxy. Here's some headers, note the HTTP_VIA: X-REWRITE-URL: /process.asp?r=699743 APPL_MD_PATH: /LM/W3SVC/31555/ROOT APPL_PHYSICAL_PATH: C:\inetpub\vhosts\mysite.com\httpdocs\ AUTH_PASSWORD: AUTH_TYPE: AUTH_USER: CERT_COOKIE: CERT_FLAGS: CERT_ISSUER: CERT_KEYSIZE: CERT_SECRETKEYSIZE: CERT_SERIALNUMBER: CERT_SERVER_ISSUER: CERT_SERVER_SUBJECT: CERT_SUBJECT: CONTENT_LENGTH: 0 CONTENT_TYPE: application/x-www-form-urlencoded GATEWAY_INTERFACE: CGI/1.1 HTTPS: off HTTPS_KEYSIZE: HTTPS_SECRETKEYSIZE: HTTPS_SERVER_ISSUER: HTTPS_SERVER_SUBJECT: INSTANCE_ID: 31555 INSTANCE_META_PATH: /LM/W3SVC/31555 LOCAL_ADDR: XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX LOGON_USER: PATH_INFO: /process.asp PATH_TRANSLATED: C:\inetpub\vhosts\mysite.com\httpdocs\process.asp QUERY_STRING: r=699743 REMOTE_ADDR: YYY.YYY.YYY.YYY REMOTE_HOST: YYY.YYY.YYY.YYY REMOTE_USER: REQUEST_METHOD: POST SCRIPT_NAME: /process.asp SERVER_NAME: www.mysite.com SERVER_PORT: 80 SERVER_PORT_SECURE: 0 SERVER_PROTOCOL: HTTP/1.1 SERVER_SOFTWARE: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 URL: /process.asp HTTP_CONNECTION: Keep-Alive HTTP_PRAGMA: no-cache HTTP_VIA: 1.1 WEBCACHE-2 HTTP_CONTENT_LENGTH: 0 HTTP_CONTENT_TYPE: application/x-www-form-urlencoded HTTP_ACCEPT: image/gif, image/x-xbitmap, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, application/x-shockwave-flash, application/x-ms-application, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-xpsdocument, application/xaml+xml, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, */* HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE: en-gb HTTP_COOKIE: ASPSESSIONIDQCKSDCTS=FENMPCMDCHEOENGOJPGDGPLN; HTTP_HOST: www.mysite.com HTTP_REFERER: http://www.mysite.com/theform.asp HTTP_USER_AGENT: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 5.1; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022) HTTP_UA_CPU: x86 HTTP_X_REWRITE_URL: /process.asp?r=699743

  Read the article

• Collaborative filtering in MySQL ?

  - by user281434

  Hi I'm trying to develop a site that recommends items(fx. books) to users based on their preferences. So far, I've read O'Reilly's "Collective Intelligence" and numerous other online articles. They all, however, seem to deal with single instances of recommendation, for example if you like book A then you might like book B. What I'm trying to do is to create a set of 'preference-nodes' for each user on my site. Let's say a user likes book A,B and C. Then, when they add book D, I don't want the system to recommend other books based solely other users experience with book D. I wan't the system to look up similar 'preference-nodes' and recommend books based on that. Here's an example of 4 nodes: User1: 'book A'->'book B'->'book C' User2: 'book A'->'book B'->'book C'->'book D' user3: 'book X'->'book Y'->'book C'->'book Z' user4: 'book W'->'book Q'->'book C'->'book Z' So a recommendation system, as described in the material I've read, would recommend book Z to User 1, because there are two people who recommends Z in conjuction with liking C (ie. Z weighs more than D), even though a user with a similar 'preference-node', User2, would be more qualified to recommend book D because he has a more similar interest-pattern. So does any of you have any experience with this sort of thing? Is there some things I should try to read or does there exist any open source systems for this? Thanks for your time! Small edit: I think last.fm's algorithm is doing exactly what I my system to do. Using the preference-trees of people to recommmend music more personally to people. Instead of just saying "you might like B because you liked A"

  Read the article

• Q on Python serialization/deserialization

  - by neil

  What chances do I have to instantiate, keep and serialize/deserialize to/from binary data Python classes reflecting this pattern (adopted from RFC 2246 [TLS]): enum { apple, orange } VariantTag; struct { uint16 number; opaque string<0..10>; /* variable length */ } V1; struct { uint32 number; opaque string[10]; /* fixed length */ } V2; struct { select (VariantTag) { /* value of selector is implicit */ case apple: V1; /* VariantBody, tag = apple */ case orange: V2; /* VariantBody, tag = orange */ } variant_body; /* optional label on variant */ } VariantRecord; Basically I would have to define a (variant) class VariantRecord, which varies depending on the value of VariantTag. That's not that difficult. The challenge is to find a most generic way to build a class, which serializes/deserializes to and from a byte stream... Pickle, Google protocol buffer, marshal is all not an option. I made little success with having an explicit "def serialize" in my class, but I'm not very happy with it, because it's not generic enough. I hope I could express the problem. My current solution in case VariantTag = apple would look like this, but I don't like it too much import binascii import struct class VariantRecord(object): def __init__(self, number, opaque): self.number = number self.opaque = opaque def serialize(self): out = struct.pack('>HB%ds' % len(self.opaque), self.number, len(self.opaque), self.opaque) return out v = VariantRecord(10, 'Hello') print binascii.hexlify(v.serialize()) >> 000a0548656c6c6f Regards

  Read the article

• IUsable: controlling resources in a better way than IDisposable

  - by Ilya Ryzhenkov

  I wish we have "Usable" pattern in C#, when code block of using construct would be passed to a function as delegate: class Usable : IUsable { public void Use(Action action) // implements IUsable { // acquire resources action(); // release resources } } and in user code: using (new Usable()) { // this code block is converted to delegate and passed to Use method above } Pros: Controlled execution, exceptions The fact of using "Usable" is visible in call stack Cons: Cost of delegate Do you think it is feasible and useful, and if it doesn't have any problems from the language point of view? Are there any pitfalls you can see? EDIT: David Schmitt proposed the following using(new Usable(delegate() { // actions here }) {} It can work in the sample scenario like that, but usually you have resource already allocated and want it to look like this: using (Repository.GlobalResource) { // actions here } Where GlobalResource (yes, I know global resources are bad) implements IUsable. You can rewrite is as short as Repository.GlobalResource.Use(() => { // actions here }); But it looks a little bit weird (and more weird if you implement interface explicitly), and this is so often case in various flavours, that I thought it deserve to be new syntactic sugar in a language.

  Read the article

• Problem with grails web app running in production: "No such property: save for class: JsecRole"

  - by Sarah Boyd

  I've got a grails 1.1 web app running great in development but when I try and run it in production with an sqlserver database it crashes in a weird way. The relevant part of my datasource.groovy is as follows: environments { development { dataSource { dbCreate = "create-drop" // one of 'create', 'create-drop','update' url = "jdbc:hsqldb:mem:devDB" } } test { dataSource { dbCreate = "update" url = "jdbc:hsqldb:mem:testDb" } } production { dataSource { dbCreate = "update" driverClassName = "com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver" endUsername = "sa" password = "pw4db" url = "jdbc:sqlserver://localhost:1433;databaseName=ReleasePlanner;selectMethod=cursor" The error message I receive is: Message: No such property: save for class: JsecRole Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: save for class: JsecRole Class: ProjectController At Line: [28] Code Snippet: 27: println "###about to create project roles" 28: userManagerService.createProjectRoles(project) 29: userManagerService.addUserToProject(session.user.id.toString(), project, 'owner') } } } The stacktrace is as follows: org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.InvokerInvocationException: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: save for class: JsecRole at org.jsecurity.web.servlet.JSecurityFilter.doFilterInternal(JSecurityFilter.java:382) at org.jsecurity.web.servlet.OncePerRequestFilter.doFilter(OncePerRequestFilter.java:180) Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: save for class: JsecRole at UserManagerService.createProjectRoles(UserManagerService.groovy:9) at UserManagerService$$FastClassByCGLIB$$6fa73713.invoke(<generated>) at net.sf.cglib.proxy.MethodProxy.invoke(MethodProxy.java:149) at UserManagerService$$EnhancerByCGLIB$$fcf60984.createProjectRoles(<generated>) at UserManagerService$createProjectRoles.call(Unknown Source) at ProjectController$_closure4.doCall(ProjectController.groovy:28) at ProjectController$_closure4.doCall(ProjectController.groovy) ... 2 more Any help is appreciated. Thanks Sarah

  Read the article

• NHibernate Session per Call in WCF - How to Rollback

  - by Corey Coogan

  I've implemented some components to use WCF with both an IoC Container (StructureMap) and the Session per Call pattern. The NHibernate stuff is most taken from here: http://realfiction.net/Content/Entry/133. It seems to be OK, but I want to open a transaction with each call and commit at the end, rather than just Flush() which how its being done in the article. Here's where I am running into some problems and could use some advice. I haven't figured out a good way to rollback. I realize I can check the CommunicationState and if there's an exception, rollback, like so: public void Detach(InstanceContext owner) { if (Session != null) { try { if(owner.State == CommunicationState.Faulted) RollbackTransaction(); else CommitTransaction(); } finally { Session.Dispose(); } } } void CommitTransaction() { if(Session.Transaction != null && Session.Transaction.IsActive) Session.Transaction.Commit(); } void RollbackTransaction() { if (Session.Transaction != null && Session.Transaction.IsActive) Session.Transaction.Rollback(); } However, I almost never return a faulted state from a service call. I would typically handle the exception and return an appropriate indicator on my response object and rollback the transaction myself. The only way I can think of handling this would be to inject not only repositories into my WCF services, but also an ISession so I can rollback and handle the way I want. That doesn't sit well with me and seems kind of leaky. Anyone else handling the same problem?

  Read the article

• Why String.replaceAll() don't work on this String ?

  - by Aloong

  //This source is a line read from a file String src = "23570006,music,**,wu(),1,exam,\"Monday9,10(H2-301)\",1-10,score,"; //This sohuld be from a matcher.group() when Pattern.compile("\".*?\"") String group = "\"Monday9,10(H2-301)\""; src = src.replaceAll("\"", ""); group = group.replaceAll("\"", ""); String replacement = group.replaceAll(",", "#@"); System.out.println(src.contains(group)); src = src.replaceAll(group, replacement); System.out.println(group); System.out.println(replacement); System.out.println(src); I'm trying to replace the "," between \"s so I can ues String.split() latter. But the above just not working , the result is: true Monday9,10(H2-301) Monday9#@10(H2-301) 23570006,music,**,wu(),1,exam,Monday9,10(H2-301),1-10,score, but when I change the src string to String src = "123\"9,10\"123"; String group = "\"9,10\""; It works well true 9,10 9#@10 1239#@10123 What's the matter with the string???

  Read the article

• Can't access CodeBase from a dynamically generated assembly.

  - by Michael Meadows

  I'm trying to create an assembly dynamically in .Net. I can't seem to figure out how to get the CodeBase property to return a value, however. Here's an example: var assemblyName = new AssemblyName { Name = "Whatever", CodeBase = Directory.GetCurrentDirectory() }; var assemblyBuilder = AppDomain.CurrentDomain .DefineDynamicAssembly(assemblyName, AssemblyBuilderAccess.RunAndSave); var moduleBuilder = assemblyBuilder.DefineDynamicModule("WhateverModule", "Whatever.dll"); var typeBuilder = moduleBuilder.DefineType("WhateverType", TypeAttributes.Public); var type = typeBuilder.CreateType(); assemblyBuilder.Save("Whatever.dll"); var codeBase = type.Assembly.CodeBase; // throws the below exception System.NotSupportedException was unhandled Message=The invoked member is not supported in a dynamic assembly. Source=mscorlib StackTrace: at System.Reflection.Emit.InternalAssemblyBuilder.get_CodeBase() at Stupid.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\Users\Walking Disaster\Documents\Visual Studio 10\Projects\Lingual.Proxy\Stupid\Program.cs:line 25 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(RuntimeAssembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340  | Next Page >