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  • How to make += operator keep the object reference?

    - by orloffm
    Say, I have a class: class M { public int val; And also a + operator inside it: public static M operator +(M a, M b) { M c = new M(); c.val = a.val + b.val; return c; } } And I've got a List of the objects of the class: List<M> ms = new List(); M obj = new M(); obj.val = 5; ms.Add(obj); Some other object: M addie = new M(); addie.val = 3; I can do this: ms[0] += addie; and it surely works as I expect - the value in the list is changed. But if I want to do M fromList = ms[0]; fromList += addie; it doesn't change the value in ms for obvious reasons. But intuitively I expect ms[0] to also change after that. Really, I pick the object from the list and then I increase it's value with some other object. So, since I held a reference to ms[0] in fromList before addition, I want still to hold it in fromList after performing it. Are there any ways to achieve that?

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  • loading google maps drawing manager object

    - by psychok7
    So i am using Google Maps Drawing Manager to draw some polygons and i am saving the lat e long coordinates to my database. Now my question is, after i load that to my array, how can i rebuild the saved polygon back into my map? I can't seem to find a code to understand that. this is what i have now : window.initialize_2 = function () { var mapOptions = { center: new google.maps.LatLng(-34.397, 150.644), zoom: 8, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = maplimits; var drawingManager = new google.maps.drawing.DrawingManager({ drawingMode: google.maps.drawing.OverlayType.MARKER, drawingControl: true, drawingControlOptions: { position: google.maps.ControlPosition.TOP_CENTER, drawingModes: [ google.maps.drawing.OverlayType.POLYGON] }, markerOptions: { icon: 'images/beachflag.png' }, polygonOptions: { fillColor: '#ffff00', fillOpacity: 10, strokeWeight: 5, clickable: true, editable: true, zIndex: 1 } }); var coord_listener = google.maps.event.addListener(drawingManager, 'polygoncomplete', function (polygon) { var coordinates = (polygon.getPath().getArray()); console.log(coordinates); window.poly = polygon; }); //delete shape google.maps.event.addListener(drawingManager, 'overlaycomplete', function (e) { if (e.type != google.maps.drawing.OverlayType.MARKER) { // Switch back to non-drawing mode after drawing a shape. drawingManager.setDrawingMode(null); // Add an event listener that selects the newly-drawn shape when the user // mouses down on it. var newShape = e.overlay; newShape.type = e.type; google.maps.event.addListener(newShape, 'click', function () { setSelection(newShape); }); setSelection(newShape); } }); // Clear the current selection when the drawing mode is changed, or when the // map is clicked. google.maps.event.addListener(drawingManager, 'drawingmode_changed', clearSelection); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', clearSelection); drawingManager.setMap(map); }

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  • Alternative to 'Dispatch for ASP' deployment plug-in?

    - by Django Reinhardt
    Hi there, we've recently stumbled across the excellent Dispatch for ASP deployment plug in. It looks great apart from one thing: It doesn't work with Visual Studio 2010, at least for us, anyway. (It's supposed to work fine.) (Yes, we've tried everything: We've managed to get Dispatch working for another FTP site, but not the main one we regularly deploy to. We have managed to connect to our main site through FileZilla FTP, so the site itself is configured correctly. All settings have been triple checked, but the software still throws up weird errors (always to do with its internal libraries).) So does anyone know of any other comparable FTP-based, deployment plug-ins for Visual Studio? Here's what Dispatch does (and so any suggested replacement must do): Monitor any altered files in the project. When a file is changed, it's added to a list of files to be deployed. To deploy these files to the live site, all we need to do is click "Upload" and the plugin will connect via FTP to our live site and upload all the files. We can filter out any filenames we don't want to be monitored/uploaded (e.g. .cs or web.config or /Images/, etc.) I think that's all the features that we need. Thanks for any suggestions!

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  • How to publish internal data to the internet - as simple as possible

    - by mlarsen
    We have a .net 2-tier application where a desktop program is talking to a database. We support MS SQL Server 2000, 2005, 2008 and Oracle 9, 10 and 11. The application is sold, not as shrink-wrap, but pretty close. It is quite important for us that the installation and configuration is as easy as possible as installation instructions are usually supplied in written form to the customers internal IT-department. Our application is usually not seen as mission critical for the IT-department, so we need to keep their work down to a minimum. Now we are starting to get wishes for a web application build on top of the same data. The web application will be hosted by us and delivered as a SaaS application. Now the challenge is how to move data back and forth between the web application and the customers internal database. as I see it we have some requirements: We must be ready to handle the situation where the customers database is not accessible from the DMZ. I guess the easiest solution is that all communication is initiated from inside the customers lan. As little firewall configuration as possible. The best is if we can run without any special configuration as long as outgoing traffic from the customers lan are not blocked. If we need something changed in the firewall, we must be able to document that the change is secure. It doesn't have to be real time. Moving data in batches every ten minutes or so is OK. Data moves both ways, but not the same tables, so we don't have to support merges. It would be nice if we don't have to roll our own framework completely. Looking forward to hear your suggestions.

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  • JUnit Test method with randomized nature

    - by Peter
    Hey, I'm working on a small project for myself at the moment and I'm using it as an opportunity to get acquainted with unit testing and maintaining proper documentation. I have a Deck class with represents a deck of cards (it's very simple and, to be honest, I can be sure that it works without a unit test, but like I said I'm getting used to using unit tests) and it has a shuffle() method which changes the order of the cards in the deck. The implementation is very simple and will certainly work: public void shuffle() { Collections.shuffle(this.cards); } But, how could I implement a unit test for this method. My first thought was to check if the top card of the deck was different after calling shuffle() but there is of course the possibility that it would be the same. My second thought was to check if the entire order of cards has changed, but again they could possibly be in the same order. So, how could I write a test that ensures this method works in all cases? And, in general, how can you unit test methods for which the outcome depends on some randomness? Cheers, Pete

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  • Hiding <option>s in IE

    - by Mark
    I wrote this nifty function to filter select boxes when their value is changed... $.fn.cascade = function() { var opts = this.children('option'); var rel = this.attr('rel'); $('[name='+rel+']').change(function() { var val = $(this).val(); var disp = opts.filter('[rel='+val+']'); opts.filter(':visible').hide(); disp.show(); if(!disp.filter(':selected').length) { disp.filter(':first').attr('selected','selected'); } }).trigger('change'); return this; } It looks at the rel property, and if the element indicated by rel changes, then it filters the list to only show the options that have that value... for example, it works on HTML that looks like this: <select id="id-pickup_address-country" name="pickup_address-country"> <option selected="selected" value="CA">Canada </option> <option value="US">United States </option> </select> <select id="id-pickup_address-province" rel="pickup_address-country" name="pickup_address-province"> <option rel="CA" value="AB">Alberta </option> <option selected="selected" rel="CA" value="BC">British Columbia </option> <option rel="CA" value="MB">Manitoba </option>... </select> However, I just discovered it doesn't work properly in IE (of course!) which doesn't seem to allow you to hide options. How can I work around this?

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  • Help Me With This Access Query

    - by yae
    I have 2 tables: "products" and "pieces" PRODUCTS idProd product price PIECES id idProdMain idProdChild quant idProdMain and idProdChild are related with the table: "products". Other considerations is that 1 product can have some pieces and 1 product can be a piece. Price product equal a sum of quantity * price of all their pieces. "Products" table contains all products (p EXAMPLE: TABLE PRODUCTS (idProd - product - price) 1 - Computer - 300€ 2 - Hard Disk - 100€ 3 - Memory - 50€ 4 - Main Board - 100€ 5 - Software - 50€ 6 - CDroms 100 un. - 30€ TABLE PIECES (id - idProdMain - idProdChild - Quant.) 1 - 1 - 2 - 1 2 - 1 - 3 - 2 3 - 1 - 4 - 1 WHAT I NEED? I need update the price of the main product when the price of the product child (piece) is changed. Following the previous example, if I change the price of this product "memory" (is a piece too) to 60€, then product "Computer" will must change his price to 320€ How I can do it using queries? Already I have tried this to obatin the price of the main product, but not runs. This query not returns any value: SELECT Sum(products.price*pieces.quant) AS Expr1 FROM products LEFT JOIN pieces ON (products.idProd = pieces.idProdChild) AND (products.idProd = pieces.idProdChild) AND (products.idProd = pieces.idProdMain) WHERE (((pieces.idProdMain)=5)); MORE INFO The table "products" contains all the products to sell that it is in the shop. The table "pieces" is to take a control of the compound products. To know those who are the products children. For example of compound product: computers. This product is composed by other products (motherboard, hard disk, memory, cpu, etc.)

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  • Perl's use encoding pragma breaking UTF strings

    - by Karel Bílek
    I have a problem with Perl and Encoding pragma. (I use utf-8 everywhere, in input, output, the perl scripts themselves. I don't want to use other encoding, never ever.) However. When I write binmode(STDOUT, ':utf8'); use utf8; $r = "\x{ed}"; print $r; I see the string "í" (which is what I want - and what is 00+ED unicode char). But when I add the "use encoding" pragma like this binmode(STDOUT, ':utf8'); use utf8; use encoding 'utf8'; $r = "\x{ed}"; print $r; all I see is a box character. Why? Moreover, when I add Data::Dumper and let the Dumper print the new string like this binmode(STDOUT, ':utf8'); use utf8; use encoding 'utf8'; $r = "\x{ed}"; use Data::Dumper; print Dumper($r); I see that perl changed the string to "\x{fffd}". Why?

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  • Django install on a shared host, .htaccess help

    - by redconservatory
    I am trying to install Django on a shared host using the following instructions: docs.google.com/View?docid=dhhpr5xs_463522g My problem is with the following line on my root .htaccess: RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /cgi-bin/wcgi.py/$1 [QSA,L] When I include this line I get a 500 error with almost all of my domains on this account. My cgi-bin directory is home/my-username/public_html/cgi-bin/ The wcgi.py file contains: #!/usr/local/bin/python import os, sys sys.path.insert(0, "/home/username/django/") sys.path.insert(0, "/home/username/django/projects") sys.path.insert(0, "/home/username/django/projects/newprojects") import django.core.handlers.wsgi os.chdir("/home/username/django/projects/newproject") # optional os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = "newproject.settings" def runcgi(): environ = dict(os.environ.items()) environ['wsgi.input'] = sys.stdin environ['wsgi.errors'] = sys.stderr environ['wsgi.version'] = (1,0) environ['wsgi.multithread'] = False environ['wsgi.multiprocess'] = True environ['wsgi.run_once'] = True application = django.core.handlers.wsgi.WSGIHandler() if environ.get('HTTPS','off') in ('on','1'): environ['wsgi.url_scheme'] = 'https' else: environ['wsgi.url_scheme'] = 'http' headers_set = [] headers_sent = [] def write(data): if not headers_set: raise AssertionError("write() before start_response()") elif not headers_sent: # Before the first output, send the stored headers status, response_headers = headers_sent[:] = headers_set sys.stdout.write('Status: %s\r\n' % status) for header in response_headers: sys.stdout.write('%s: %s\r\n' % header) sys.stdout.write('\r\n') sys.stdout.write(data) sys.stdout.flush() def start_response(status,response_headers,exc_info=None): if exc_info: try: if headers_sent: # Re-raise original exception if headers sent raise exc_info[0], exc_info[1], exc_info[2] finally: exc_info = None # avoid dangling circular ref elif headers_set: raise AssertionError("Headers already set!") headers_set[:] = [status,response_headers] return write result = application(environ, start_response) try: for data in result: if data: # don't send headers until body appears write(data) if not headers_sent: write('') # send headers now if body was empty finally: if hasattr(result,'close'): result.close() runcgi() Only I changed the "username" to my username...

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  • Manually filling opcode cache for entire app using apc_compile_file, then switching to new release.

    - by Ben
    Does anyone have a great system, or any ideas, for doing as the title says? I want to switch production version of web app-- written in PHP and served by Apache-- from release 1234 to release 1235, but before that happens, have all files already in the opcode cache (APC). Then after the switch, remove the old cache entries for files from release 1234. As far as I can think of there are three easy ways of atomically switching from one version to the next. Have a symbolic link, for example /live, that is always the document root but is changed to point from one version to the next. Similarly, have a directory /live that is always the document root, but use mv live oldversion && mv newversion live to switch to new version. Edit apache configuration to change the document root to newversion, then restart apache. I think it is preferable not to have to do 3, but I can't think of anyway to precompile all php files AND use 1 or 2 to switch release. So can someone either convince me its okay to rely on option 3, or tell me how to work with 1 or 2, or reveal some other option I am not thinking of?

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  • Silverlight 3 data-binding child property doesn't update

    - by sonofpirate
    I have a Silverlight control that has my root ViewModel object as it's data source. The ViewModel exposes a list of Cards as well as a SelectedCard property which is bound to a drop-down list at the top of the view. I then have a form of sorts at the bottom that displays the properties of the SelectedCard. My XAML appears as (reduced for simplicity): <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Cards}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedCard, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.Name}" /> <ListBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.PendingTransactions}" /> </StackPanel> I would expect the TextBlock and ListBox to update whenever I select a new item in the ComboBox, but this is not the case. I'm sure it has to do with the fact that the TextBlock and ListBox are actually bound to properties of the SelectedCard so it is listening for property change notifications for the properties on that object. But, I would have thought that data-binding would be smart enough to recognize that the parent object in the binding expression had changed and update the entire binding. It bears noting that the PendingTransactions property (bound to the ListBox) is lazy-loaded. So, the first time I select an item in the ComboBox, I do make the async call and load the list and the UI updates to display the information corresponding to the selected item. However, when I reselect an item, the UI doesn't change! For example, if my original list contains three cards, I select the first card by default. Data-binding does attempt to access the PendingTransactions property on that Card object and updates the ListBox correctly. If I select the second card in the list, the same thing happens and I get the list of PendingTransactions for that card displayed. But, if I select the first card again, nothing changes in my UI! Setting a breakpoint, I am able to confirm that the SelectedCard property is being updated correctly. How can I make this work???

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  • Parallel.Foreach loop creating multiple db connections throws connection errors?

    - by shawn.mek
    Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication I wanted to get my code running in parallel, so I changed my foreach loop to a parallel foreach loop. It seemed simple enough. Each loop connects to the database, looks up some stuff, performs some logic, adds some stuff, closes the connection. But I get the above error? I'm using my local sql server and entity framework (each loop uses it's own context). Is there some problem with connecting multiple times using the same local login or something? How did I get around this? I have (before trying to covert to a parallel.foreach loop) split my list of objects that I am foreach looping through into four groups (separate csv files) and run four concurrent instances of my program (which ran faster overall than just one, thus the idea for parallel). So it seems connecting to the db shouldn't be a problem? Any ideas? EDIT: Here's before var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); ForEach(cloneIdAndAccessions in allAccessionsFromObs) DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); after var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); Parallel.ForEach(allAccessionsFromObs, cloneIdAndAccessions => DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); Inside the DoWork I use the BioEntities using (var bioEntities = new BioEntities(connectionString)) {...}

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  • Retrieve OpenId FullName from Google

    - by user294711
    I'm using DotNetOpenAuth lib to work with Google(only) OpenId. And I'm retrieving Email without any problem. But I can't get FullName, it is always null. request.AddExtension(new ClaimsRequest { Email = DemandLevel.Require, FullName = DemandLevel.Require }); ClaimsResponse claimsResponse = relyingPartyResponse.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claimsResponse != null) { var email = claimsResponse.Email; var fullName = claimsResponse.FullName; } I googled this problem and found that: Glad you got it working. Google will not give a full name or nickname for their users. They ONLY give email address, and (I think, but perhaps only on a white list) the timezone. It's not a matter of figuring out how to rig your RP so that it works. Google just won't do it yet. – Andrew Arnott Sep 8 at 14:22 stackoverflow.com/questions/1387438/retrieve-openid-user-information-claims-across-providers But it was in Sep 2009, maybe something was changed from that moment... I've found that in http://code.google.com/apis/accounts/docs/OpenID.html: openid.ax.required -- (required) Specifies the attribute being requested. Valid values include: "country", "email", "firstname", "language", "lastname". To request multiple attributes, set this parameter to a comma-delimited list of attributes. So, my question is how can I get FullName (FirstName, LastName) from Google OpenId?

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  • Guid Primary /Foreign Key dilemma SQL Server

    - by Xience
    Hi guys, I am faced with the dilemma of changing my primary keys from int identities to Guid. I'll put my problem straight up. It's a typical Retail management app, with POS and back office functionality. Has about 100 tables. The database synchronizes with other databases and receives/ sends new data. Most tables don't have frequent inserts, updates or select statements executing on them. However, some do have frequent inserts and selects on them, eg. products and orders tables. Some tables have upto 4 foreign keys in them. If i changed my primary keys from 'int' to 'Guid', would there be a performance issue when inserting or querying data from tables that have many foreign keys. I know people have said that indexes will be fragmented and 16 bytes is an issue. Space wouldn't be an issue in my case and apparently index fragmentation can also be taken care of using 'NEWSEQUENTIALID()' function. Can someone tell me, from there experience, if Guid will be problematic in tables with many foreign keys. I'll be much appreciative of your thoughts on it...

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  • after .htaccess url rewrite, cannot perform logoff in some of the url rewrited page

    - by Patrick
    Recently, I was doing .htaccess url rewrite, make all my php url into html, in some page, the logout button wont work properly. for example, in page ‘quotedetails/Q9999.html’ (rewrited from ‘quotedetails.php?quoteID=Q9999'), when I click logout button in this page, it wont do the trick, but when i use the old php url of this page, it works again, other rewrited pages like index.html (index.php), search.html(search.php), all works perfectly. I use firebug to debug, after I click the logout button, it stays in the same page without redirect me to the index.html, but I saw the the ‘logoff’ params has been passed through, but just dont let me logout and redirect to index page. I’ve changed all the relavent file path to absolute path, still no luck…..help please. I’ve also noticed from firebug, that page cannot get the redirect ‘location’ as I tried in other pages, their response headers come with ‘location: index.html’, but in that no-workin-page, there is no such line called ‘location: index.html’ in its response headers. Here is my .htaccess file, no-workin-pages are related to the first four ReweiteRules Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^reps/all,all.html$ rep.php?repID=all&repName=all RewriteRule ^reps/([A-Z]+),([A-Za-z\sA-Za-z]+).html$ rep.php?repID=$1&repName=$2 RewriteRule ^reps/([A-Za-z]+),([A-Za-z\sA-Za-z]+),([0-9]+).html$ rep.php?repID=$1repName=$2&page=$3 RewriteRule ^quotedetails/(Q[0-9]+).html$ quotedetails.php?quoteID=$1 RewriteRule ^index.html$ index.php RewriteRule ^addquote.html$ addquote.php RewriteRule ^search.html$ search.php RewriteRule ^viewall.html$ viewall.php RewriteRule ^howto.html$ howto.php

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  • need advice on Zend framework Application architecture, or say approach dealing with modules

    - by simple
    Let me start with the things that I did and how am I using some things to get results I have set up modular structure as: application/ /configs /layouts /models /modules /users /profile /frontend /backend /controllers /views .... I write a plugin that does addes changes with FrontController-setModuleControllerDirectoryName() FrontController-addModuleDirectory() and It is all good I have a changed all the directories according weather admin page is requested in the url or not (it is some thing like /admin/some/some) Let's say I have a single layout for anything that is related to Profile viewing , in this case the "Profile" module. The Profile layout is divided into three parts In the layout I was pulling out the Profile/PhotoController 's index action with a action() $this->action('index', 'photo', 'profile'); Then I have faced few issues 1. Can get passed Params inside the Photo Controller when calling ( profile/profile/index); 2. found out that helper Action() is evil cause it starts another dispatching loop =) --- and now I am thinking that my approach on plugging in controllers modules into layout also evil =). anyhow how Should I deal with plugging in some controllers (another module controllers) into the layout ?

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  • asyncore callbacks launching threads... ok to do?

    - by sbartell
    I'm unfamiliar with asyncore, and have very limited knowledge of asynchronous programming except for a few intro to twisted tutorials. I am most familiar with threads and use them in all my apps. One particular app uses a couchdb database as its interface. This involves longpolling the db looking for changes and updates. The module I use for couchdb is couchdbkit. It uses an asyncore loop to watch for these changes and send them to a callback. So, I figure from this callback is where I launch my worker threads. It seems a bit crude to mix asynchronous and threaded programming. I really like couchdbkit, but would rather not introduce issues into my program. So, my question is, is it safe to fire threads from an async callback? Here's some code... {{{ def dispatch(change): global jobs, db_url # jobs is my queue db = Database(db_url) work_order = db.get(change['id']) # change is an id to the document that changed. # i need to get the actual document (workorder) worker = Worker(work_order, db) # fire the thread jobs.append[worker] worker.start() return main() . . . consumer.wait(cb=dispatch, since=update_seq, timeout=10000) #wait constains the asyncloop. }}}

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  • MsSql Server high Resource Waits and Head Blocker

    - by MartinHN
    Hi I have a MS SQL Server 2008 Standard installation running a database for a webshop. The current size of the database is 2.5 GB. Running on Windows 2008 Standard. Dual Intel Xeon X5355 @ 2.00 GHz. 4 GB RAM. When I open the Activity Monitor, I see that I have a Wait Time (ms/sec) of 5000 in the "Other" category. In the Processes list, all connections from the webshop, the Head Blocker value is 1. I see every day that when I try to access the website, it can take 20-30 secs before it even starts to "work". I know that it is not network latency. (I have a 301 redirect from the same server that is executed instantly). When the first request has been served, it seems as if it's not a sleep anymore and every subsequent request is served instantly with the speed of light. The problem was worse two weeks ago, until I changed every query to include WITH (NOLOCK). But I still experience the problem, and the Wait times in the Activity Monitor is about the same. The largest table (Images) has 32764 rows (448576 KB). Some tables exceed 300000 rows, thought they're much smaller in size than the Images table. I have the default clustered index for every primary key column, only. Any ideas?

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  • [MFC] Creating multiple dialogs in an MFC app with no main Window, they become children of each othe

    - by John
    (title updated) Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000) Running in the debugger, if I manually change pParentWnd back to 0 in CDialog::CreateIndirect, everything works fine... but how do I stop it happening in the first place?

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  • How to query AD to get name email from lan id

    - by Kumar
    I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

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  • Will Apple bundle the Mono Touch runtime with every iPhone?

    - by Zoran Simic
    It strikes me as a good idea for Apple to negotiate with Novell and bundle the Mono Touch runtime (only the runtime of course) into every iPhone and iPod Touch. Perhaps even make it a "one time install" that automatically gets downloaded from the App Store the first time one downloads an app build with Mono Touch, making every subsequent Mono Touch app much lighter to download (without the runtime). Doing so would be similar in a way to adding Bootcamp to OS X: it would make it easier for C# developers to join the party, but that wouldn't mean these developers will all stick to C#... What convinced me to buy a Mac is Bootcamp - I figured I could always install Windows if I didn't like OS X (and I liked the hardware, so no problem there). 6 months later, I'm using OS X full time... Would there be any technical issues in doing so? I see only advantages for all parties, not one disadvantage to anyone (except maybe for the few unfortunate Apple employees who would have to test the crap out of the Mono Touch runtime before bundling it): Novell wins because Mono Touch becomes much more viable (Mono Touch apps become much lighter all of the sudden) Developers win because now there's one more tool in the tool belt Many C# Developers would be very interested by this Apple wins because that would bring even more attention to the platform, more revenue in developer fees, more potential great apps, etc Users win because less space is used by different Apps having copies of the same runtime accumulating on their devices Would there be a major technical obstacle in bundling Mono Touch to iPhone OS? Edit: Changed the title from "Should" to "Will Apple bundle the runtime?", I think the consensus on predicting that means a lot to those considering going with Mono Touch.

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  • Is my objective possible using WCF (and is it the right way to do things?)

    - by David
    I'm writing some software that modifies a Windows Server's configuration (things like MS-DNS, IIS, parts of the filesystem). My design has a server process that builds an in-memory object graph of the server configuration state and a client which requests this object graph. The server would then serialize the graph, send it to the client (presumably using WCF), the server then makes changes to this graph and sends it back to the server. The server receives the graph and proceeds to make modifications to the server. However I've learned that object-graph serialisation in WCF isn't as simple as I first thought. My objects have a hierarchy and many have parametrised-constructors and immutable properties/fields. There are also numerous collections, arrays, and dictionaries. My understanding of WCF serialisation is that it requires use of either the XmlSerializer or DataContractSerializer, but DCS places restrictions on the design of my object-graph (immutable data seems right-out, it also requires parameter-less constructors). I understand XmlSerializer lets me use my own classes provided they implement ISerializable and have the de-serializer constructor. That is fine by me. I spoke to a friend of mine about this, and he advocates going for a Data Transport Object-only route, where I'd have to maintain a separate DataContract object-graph for the transport of data and re-implement my server objects on the client. Another friend of mine said that because my service only has two operations ("GetServerConfiguration" and "PutServerConfiguration") it might be worthwhile just skipping WCF entirely and implementing my own server that uses Sockets. So my questions are: Has anyone faced a similar problem before and if so, are there better approaches? Is it wise to send an entire object graph to the client for processing? Should I instead break it down so that the client requests a part of the object graph as it needs it and sends only bits that have changed (thus reducing concurrency-related risks?)? If sending the object-graph down is the right way, is WCF the right tool? And if WCF is right, what's the best way to get WCF to serialise my object graph?

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  • Apply CSS style to anchor problem

    - by Jake
    Using jquery I have a clicking tab mechanism that are nothing but anchor tags that return false but call javascript functions to run some events on the page. The problem is I am using jquery to apply an opacity style to the active anchor. and the other sibling anchor get a lesser opacity view. My code looks like this $("#menutab li a").click(function(){ $(this).animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); } I would think this code would act only on the clicked element and apply that css style to that element and the other style to the other anchor tags except the clicked one. It kind of does that, but also what it does is leave the earlier clicked element to opacity =1, so if I click an element it sets it opacity to 1 and then if I click another one it sets it opacity to 1 while leave the earlier clicked one to 1 also instead of setting it to .25 like the others. Edit: I changed the above code to: $("#menutab ul li").click(function(){ $(this).children().animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().children().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); }); and now I get the desired effect, except that when the first anchor in the list is clicked doesn't follow the event rules, When the first one is clicked its as if, the click event is not triggered, because no opacity style changes. which I don't understand.

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  • C standard addressing simplification inconsistency

    - by Chris Lutz
    Section §6.5.3.2 "Address and indirection operators" ¶3 says (relevant section only): The unary & operator returns the address of its operand. ... If the operand is the result of a unary * operator, neither that operator nor the & operator is evaluated and the result is as if both were omitted, except that the constraints on the operators still apply and the result is not an lvalue. Similarly, if the operand is the result of a [] operator, neither the & operator nor the unary * that is implied by the [] is evaluated and the result is as if the & operator were removed and the [] operator were changed to a + operator. ... This means that this: int *i = NULL; printf("%p", (void *) (&*i) ); printf("%p", (void *) (&i[10]) ); Should be perfectly legal, printing the null pointer (probably 0) and the null pointer plus 10 (probably 10). The standard seems very clear that both of those cases are required to be optimized. However, it doesn't seem to require the following to be optimized: struct { int a; short b; } *s = 0; printf("%p", (void *) (&s->b) ); This seems awfully inconsistent. I can see no reason that the above code shouldn't print the null pointer plus sizeof(int) (possibly 4). Simplifying a &-> expression is going to be the same conceptually (IMHO) as &[], a simple address-plus-offset. It's even an offset that's going to be determinable at compile time, rather than potentially runtime with the [] operator. Is there anything in the rationale about why this is so seemingly inconsistent?

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  • Should a setter return immediately if assigned the same value?

    - by Andrei Rinea
    In classes that implement INotifyPropertyChanged I often see this pattern : public string FirstName { get { return _customer.FirstName; } set { if (value == _customer.FirstName) return; _customer.FirstName = value; base.OnPropertyChanged("FirstName"); } } Precisely the lines if (value == _customer.FirstName) return; are bothering me. I've often did this but I am not that sure it's needed nor good. After all if a caller assigns the very same value I don't want to reassign the field and, especially, notify my subscribers that the property has changed when, semantically it didn't. Except saving some CPU/RAM/etc by freeing the UI from updating something that will probably look the same on the screen/whatever_medium what do we obtain? Could some people force a refresh by reassigning the same value on a property (NOT THAT THIS WOULD BE A GOOD PRACTICE HOWEVER)? 1. Should we do it or shouldn't we? 2. Why?

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