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  • Javascript Selectbox refresh necessary in YUI 3, when selecting none?

    - by Jasie
    Hi all, I'm using YUI 3 to let someone click "Select All" or "Select None" and then have the selectbox select all the items or unselect all of them, respectively. Here's my code: // This selects all Y.on('click',function (e) { selectBoxNode.get("options").each(function () { this.removeAttribute('selected'); this.setAttribute('selected','selected'); }); }, selectAllNode ); // This selects none Y.on('click',function (e) { selectBoxNode.get("options").each(function () { this.setAttribute('selected','false'); this.removeAttribute('selected'); }); selectBoxNode.('selectedIndex',-1); }, selectNoneNode ); selectAllLink, selectNoneLink, and selectBoxNode are self-evident, properly returned Nodes. Update: selectAll works, I had to manually remove the 'selected' attribute for each and re-add it. The selectNoneLink doesn't work: it unselects only the elements that weren't before selected... although DOM inspection shows that the selectedIndex attribute is indeed changed to -1, so maybe it needs a refresh? Any help would be appreciated. If this happens in all frameworks, that would be nice to know as well. Thanks!

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  • Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

    - by Chris Lawlor
    Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

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  • Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

    - by Jack
    Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

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  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

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  • WPF DataGridRow Template - how to achieve Selected event

    - by user1809972
    I would like to override the DataGridRow template depending on the datatype of object bound to the grid. If the type is label, it just shows a Label. Otehrwise, it shows the cells. Follwing is the xaml. <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsLabel, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type DataGridRow}"> <Grid> <Label HorizontalAlignment="Center" Padding="3,3,3,3" FontWeight="Bold" Content="{Binding Id}"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </DataTrigger> The grid looks ok. But, when the Label is clicked, it doesnt raise the Selection changed event for the DataGridRow. How do I achieve this behaviour? This label should just behave as any other DataGridRow(with the default template). Thanks

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  • what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

    - by Michael Mao
    This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

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  • Why does my MPMoviePlayerController disappear when I press play?

    - by Digital Robot
    I have a MPMoviePlayerController in a view, something like myMovie = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] initWithContentURL:URLfilme]; if (myMovie) { [myMovie setRepeatMode:MPMovieRepeatModeNone]; [myMovie setShouldAutoplay: NO]; [myMovie setScalingMode:MPMovieScalingModeAspectFit]; myMovie.view.frame = vFilme.bounds; [vFilme addSubview:[myMovie view]]; } The movie appears fine, I can scrub it, but when I press play, boooom, it vanishes. I have tried to retain myMovie but nothing changed. I have tried to play a video fullscreen and even using MPMoviePlayerViewController and is still disappears once I tap on play. Even the video player sample by Apple is not working. Is this a bug or what? EDIT Things are getting more interesting. If instead of playing the video manually by tapping on the play button I insert two timers, one to play the video and another one to pause it after 3 seconds, what I see is this: when the play is fired the video disappears and when the pause is fired the video reappears but when it does it has no controls. It is totally frozen, but the app continues to run normally. It is not anything related to video encoding, because I have tried with different videos, including one shot on the iPhone 4 and another shot on 3GS.

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  • In .NET, how do I prevent, or handle, tampering with form data of disabled fields before submission?

    - by David
    Hi, If a disabled drop-down list is dynamically rendered to the page, it is still possible to use Firebug, or another tool, to tamper with the submitted value, and to remove the "disabled" HTML attribute. This code: protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { var ddlTest = new DropDownList() {ID="ddlTest", Enabled = false}; ddlTest.Items.AddRange(new [] { new ListItem("Please select", ""), new ListItem("test 1", "1"), new ListItem("test 2", "2") }); Controls.Add(ddlTest); } results in this HTML being rendered: <select disabled="disabled" id="Properties_ddlTest" name="Properties$ddlTest"> <option value="" selected="selected">Please select</option> <option value="1">test 1</option> <option value="2">test 2</option> </select> The problem occurs when I use Firebug to remove the "disabled" attribute, and to change the selected option. On submission of the form, and re-creation of the field, the newly generated control has the correct value by the end of OnLoad, but by OnPreRender, it has assumed the identity of the submitted control and has been given the submitted form value. .NET seems to have no way of detecting the fact that the field was originally created in a disabled state and that the submitted value was faked. This is understandable, as there could be legitimate, client-side functionality that would allow the disabled attribute to be removed. Is there some way, other than a brute force approach, of detecting that this field's value should not have been changed? I see the brute force approach as being something crap, like saving the correct value somewhere while still in OnLoad, and restoring the value in the OnPreRender. As some fields have dependencies on others, that would be unacceptable to me.

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  • Tree data in MySql database table

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I have a table that uses Adjacency list model for hierarchy storage. My most relevant columns in this table are therefore: ItemId // is auto_increment ParentId Level ParentTrail // in the form of "parentId/../parentId/itemId" then I created a before insert tigger, that populates columns Level and ParentTrail. Since the last column also includes current item's ID I had to use a trick in my trigger because auto_increment columns are not available in the before insert trigger. So I get that value from the information_schema.tables table. All works fine, until I try to write an update trigger, that would update my item and its descendants when the item changes its parent (ParentId has changed). But I can't make an update on my table inside the update trigger. All I can do is to change current record's values but not other's. I could use a separate table for hierarchy data, but that would mean that I would also have to create a view that would combine these two tables (1:1 relation) and I would like to avoid this is at all possible. Is there a way to have all these in the same table so that these fields (Level and ParetTrail) set/update themselves automagically using triggers?

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  • Taking my ASP.NET from my local comp to the server

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Hi All, So I have been developing a small ASP.NET web app in C# for my company over the past few weeks and now I am trying to push it onto our Rackspace server. First step was to create a virtual directory because we want it to be www.ourdomain.com/appname/ and most of the stuff on ourdomain.com is currently in classic ASP. So I did this and then uploaded my stuff to the new folder. I *think* I did this at least semi-right because the error message I am getting is that nice puke color (ASP.NET style instead of classic ASP style) -- problem is it is generic and just saying runtime error. I tried just copy/pasting <customErrors mode="On" /> into the web.config file in the /appname/ directory but nothing changed So the actual questions are: How can I get a more descriptive error, when I was developing locally I just pushed the "play button" in VS2010 and it would either show me the app or tell me where I screwed up Is there anything else I'm doing wrong that may be causing this? If there's things I need to check lemme know!

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  • Arrow keys and changing control's focus hang the application

    - by sthay
    I have a usercontrol that contains a FlowLayoutPanel (topdown flow) with a bunch of radiobuttons. The control exposes a CheckedChanged event that fires whenever one of the radiobuttons's check changed. My form contains the usercontrol and a textbox. I subscribe the usercontrol's CheckedChanged event and depending on which radiobutton gets checked, I either disable the textbox or put a focus inside the textbox. All this works fine with mouseclick when changing the radiobutton's check state. However, this will hang indefinitely when using the arrow keys. I don't understand why the difference. The following are steps to reproduce the behavior I'm seeing: Create a usercontrol and drop a FlowLayoutPanel control and set its FlowDirection = TopDown. Then add two radiobuttons to the FlowLayoutPanel. Provide an event handler in the usercontrol public event EventHandler CheckedChanged { add { radioButton2.CheckedChanged += value; } remove { radioButton2.CheckedChanged -= value; } } Create a windows form and drop the above user control. Add a textbox and set Enabled to False. Subscribe to the usercontrol's CheckedChanged event as follows private void userControl11_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { textBox1.Select(); } Run. Notice that if you use the mouse to click between the radiobuttons, thing works fine; but it will crash if you use the up/down arrow keys.

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  • Android NDK import-module / code reuse

    - by Graeme
    Morning! I've created a small NDK project which allows dynamic serialisation of objects between Java and C++ through JNI. The logic works like this: Bean - JavaCInterface.Java - JavaCInterface.cpp - JavaCInterface.java - Bean The problem is I want to use this functionality in other projects. I separated out the test code from the project and created a "Tester" project. The tester project sends a Java object through to C++ which then echo's it back to the Java layer. I thought linking would be pretty simple - ("Simple" in terms of NDK/JNI is usually a day of frustration) I added the JNIBridge project as a source project and including the following lines to Android.mk: NDK_MODULE_PATH=.../JNIBridge/jni/" JNIBridge/jni/JavaCInterface/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_STATIC_LIBRARY) JNITester/jni/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) $(call import-module, JavaCInterface) This all works fine. The C++ files which rely on headers from JavaCInterface module work fine. Also the Java classes can happily use interfaces from JNIBridge project. All the linking is happy. Unfortunately JavaCInterface.java which contains the native method calls cannot see the JNI method located in the static library. (Logically they are in the same project but both are imported into the project where you wish to use them through the above mechanism). My current solutions are are follows. I'm hoping someone can suggest something that will preserve the modular nature of what I'm trying to achieve: My current solution would be to include the JavaCInterface cpp files in the calling project like so: LOCAL_SRC_FILES := FunctionTable.cpp $(PATH_TO_SHARED_PROJECT)/JavaCInterface.cpp But I'd rather not do this as it would lead to me needing to update each depending project if I changed the JavaCInterface architecture. I could create a new set of JNI method signatures in each local project which then link to the imported modules. Again, this binds the implementations too tightly.

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  • Optimize a MySQL count each duplicate Query

    - by Onema
    I have the following query That gets the city name, city id, the region name, and a count of duplicate names for that record: SELECT Country_CA.City AS currentCity, Country_CA.CityID, globe_region.region_name, ( SELECT count(Country_CA.City) FROM Country_CA WHERE City LIKE currentCity ) as counter FROM Country_CA LEFT JOIN globe_region ON globe_region.region_id = Country_CA.RegionID AND globe_region.country_code = Country_CA.CountryCode ORDER BY City This example is for Canada, and the cities will be displayed on a dropdown list. There are a few towns in Canada, and in other countries, that have the same names. Therefore I want to know if there is more than one town with the same name region name will be appended to the town name. Region names are found in the globe_region table. Country_CA and globe_region look similar to this (I have changed a few things for visualization purposes) CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Country_CA` ( `City` varchar(75) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `RegionID` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CountryCode` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CityID` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY (`City`,`RegionID`), KEY `CityID` (`CityID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; AND CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `globe_region` ( `country_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_name` varchar(50) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`country_code`,`region_code`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; The query on the top does exactly what I want it to do, but It takes way too long to generate a list for 5000 records. I would like to know if there is a way to optimize the sub-query in order to obtain the same results faster. the results should look like this City CityID region_name counter sheraton 2349269 British Columbia 1 sherbrooke 2349270 Quebec 2 sherbrooke 2349271 Nova Scotia 2 shere 2349273 British Columbia 1 sherridon 2349274 Manitoba 1

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  • Change title of UINavigationBar

    - by Lemmy
    I've created a view-based application. I've placed a Navigation Bar on the view and two buttons. I'd like to change the title of the nav bar after pressing the buttons. In IB I've connected the buttons with the corresponding actions. Debugging shows that the actions are getting called but the title of the nav bar is not changed. Kindly help! // // NavBarViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface NavBarViewController : UIViewController { } -(IBAction) clickedOne: (id)sender; -(IBAction) clickedTwo: (id)sender; @end // // NavBarViewController.m #import "NavBarViewController.h" @implementation NavBarViewController -(IBAction) clickedOne: (id)sender { self.navigationItem.title = @"1"; } -(IBAction) clickedTwo: (id)sender { self.navigationItem.title = @"2"; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } - (void)viewDidUnload { // Release any retained subviews of the main view. // e.g. self.myOutlet = nil; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

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  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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  • php.ini on goDaddy

    - by Afrosimon
    Hey all, I've got a little problem on a goDaddy server. I have a php script (ajaxCRUD) in which there's an upload field, and I can't get it to accept file over the default limit. I always get this (when I output the $_FILE[$fieldname]) : array(5) { ["name"]=> string(13) "children2.mp3" ["type"]=> string(0) "" ["tmp_name"]=> string(0) "" ["error"]=> int(1) ["size"]=> int(0) } Things I tried : Added a parameter in the HTML form ([...]name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="10000000"[...]) Changed the php5.ini at the root of the server, to no avail. After a phpinfo(), no differences are seen, even though the phpinfo clearly indicate it is reading the same php5.ini : [...]/html/php5.ini. Here is what I added in this file : upload_tmp_dir = ./temp upload_max_filesize = 20M Anything under 2M (the default value) is okay, so there's no problem with the upload path or file permission. I don't have any more idea for the moment, do any of you has one?

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  • read the currency format

    - by user485783
    perhaps for some people this is easy, but I want to learn There are 2 currency formats: first currency format is 1,123,123.12 and this format may be like $1,123,123.12 or 1,123,123.12€ and second currency format is 1.123.123,12 and this may be such $1.123.123,12 or 1.123.123,12€ so the difference is the placement of dots and commas The above format will be $this->value('one of the currency format insert here'); e.g. $this->value('$1,123,123.12'); or $this->value('1.123.123,12€'); that I want to know is the code if (first currency format) {use blah .. blah ..} elseif (second currency format) {use blah .. blah ..} else {/ / unsupported format} so how the code to identify whether the entry is input the first currency format or second currency format? thanks for the your pointers and ideas. UPDATED: I apologize for mistake in giving examples When I tried to test the code I have a little confused because it seems not working then I changed my prevoious parts, so that $value['amount'] it may be use first currency format 1,123,123.12 and this format may be like $1,123,123.12 or 1,123,123.12€ and second currency format 1.123.123,12 and this may be such $1.123.123,12 or 1.123.123,12€ then the value['amount'] will identify first with code like the following conditional class curr_format { private bla...bla..1 private bla...bla..2 var etc.. public function curr_format ($bla...,$and_bla..) { //then make conditional is here if (first currency format) {//use blah .. blah ..} elseif (second currency format) {//use blah .. blah ..} else {/ / unsupported format} //another codes.. at the end output as look like: $identify = new curr_format(); echo $identify->curr_format($value['amount'],$else_statement);

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  • Obfuscating ASP.Net dll breaks web application.

    - by uriDium
    I wouldn't usually bother to obfuscate a web application DLL but right now I have to share some server space with someone who might have a conflict of interest and might be tempted to steal the deal and decompile it. Not an ideal solution I know but hey. So I am using VS 2005, a web deployment project (which compiles into a single DLL) and Dotfuscator community edition. When I obfuscate the DLL the web application breaks and I get some message like Could not load type 'Browse' from assembly MyAssembly So I searched around and found that if I disable renaming then it should fix it. Which it does. But now when I look at the DLL using .Net reflector I can see everything again. So this seems kind of pointless. Is there a way to get this to work? Is there a better way to protect my DLL from someone I have to share a server with? UPDATE: I figured out my problem. All the classnames have changed but now all my <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="mycode.aspx.cs" Inherits="mycode" % is incorrect because mycode no longer exists. It is now aef or something. Is there any tool out there that will also change the names of the Codefile and Inherits tags?

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  • imageconvolution leaves black dot in the upper left corner

    - by Peter O.
    I'm trying to sharp resized images using this code: imageconvolution($imageResource, array( array( -1, -1, -1 ), array( -1, 16, -1 ), array( -1, -1, -1 ), ), 8, 0); When the transparent PNG image is sharpened, using code above, it appears with a black dot in the upper left corner (I have tried different convolution kernels, but the result is the same). After resizing the image looked OK. 1st image is the original one 2nd image is the sharpened one EDIT: What am I going wrong? I'm using the color retrieved from pixel. $color = imagecolorat($imageResource, 0, 0); imageconvolution($imageResource, array( array( -1, -1, -1 ), array( -1, 16, -1 ), array( -1, -1, -1 ), ), 8, 0); imagesetpixel($imageResource, 0, 0, $color); Is imagecolorat the right function? Or is the position correct? EDIT2: I have changed coordinates, but still no luck. I've check the transparency given by imagecolorat (according to this post). This is the dump: array(4) { red => 0 green => 0 blue => 0 alpha => 127 } Alpha 127 = 100% transparent. Those zeroes might cause the problem...

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  • Unable to persist objects in GAE JDO

    - by Basil Dsouza
    Hello Guys, I am completely fresh to both JDO and GAE, and have been struggling to get my data layer to persist any code at all! The issues I am facing may be very simple, but I just cant seem to find any a way no matter what solution I try. Firstly the problem: (Slightly simplified, but still contains all the info necessary) My data model is as such: User: (primary key) String emailID String firstName Car: (primary key) User user (primary key) String registration String model This was the initial datamodel. I implemented a CarPK object to get a composite primary key of the User and the registration. However that ran into a variety of issues. (Which i will save for another time/question) I then changed the design as such: User: (Unchanged) Car: (primary key) String fauxPK (here fauxPK = user.getEmailID() + SEP + registration) User user String registration String model This works fine for the user, and it can insert and retrieve user objects. However when i try to insert a Car Object, i get the following error: "Cannot have a java.lang.String primary key and be a child object" Found the following helpful link about it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2063467/persist-list-of-objects Went to the link suggested there, that explains how to create Keys, however they keep talking about "Entity Groups" and "Entity Group Parents". But I cant seem to find any articles or sites that explain what are "Entity Group"s or an "Entity Group Parents" I could try fiddling around some more to figure out if i can store an object somehow, But I am running sort on patience and also would rather understand and implement than vice versa. So i would appreciate any docs (even if its huge) that covers all these points, and preferably has some examples that go beyond the very basic data modeling. And thanks for reading such a long post :)

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  • How can I design a custom control in Javascript (possibly using jQuery)

    - by Mathieu Pagé
    I'd like to create a custom control in javascript. The goal is to create a building block that has methods, properties and events and render into a div. An example of one such control would be a calendar. It would render into a div, it would have properties that would define how it's displayed and what date is selected or highlighted, it would have methods to change the current month or to select some date and it would raise events when a day is clicked or the current month is changed by a user input. I can think of lots of way to implement this and I'm not sure what is the best way. I seem to remember that it's a bad thing to augment a DOM elements with properties and method, so I ruled that out. A jQuery plugin seems like a good idea, however I'm not sure if it's appropriate to create a plugin for each and every method my control would have so I could then use it like : $('#control').method1(); $('#control').method2(); And if I do use jQuery, where do I store the private data of my control? Another idea I got was to create a new kind of object that would have a reference to a div in which it could render it's elements. So what is the prefered way to do this. If I can I would like to do this as a jQuery plugin, but I'd need guidlines on how to create methods and where to store private data. I've loked at Plugins/Authoring on jQuery website and it did not helped that much in this regard.

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  • File Hierarchy system with a web application logic question: List searching

    - by molleman
    I need to search through a list of folders that could have more folders inside it, and add a new folder depending what folder is its parent.(the path is stored as a String for eg = "root/MyCom/home/") Then i fill in a field with a new folder name and add it to the final folder(eg "home/"). Below as you can see , I can navigate to the right location and add the new folder to a current folder, My trouble is that i cannot ensure that currentFolder element is placed back in the list it came from how could i add a folder to a list of folders, that could be within a list of folders,that could be within a list of folders and endless more? YFUser user = (YFUser)getSession().getAttribute(SESSION_USER); Folder newFolder = new Folder(); newFolder.setFolderName(foldername); // this is the path string (root/MyCom/home/) split in the different folder names String folderNames[] = folderLocationString.split("/"); int folderNamesLength = folderNames.length; Folder root = user.getRoot(); Folder currentFolder = root; for(int i=0;i<=folderNamesLength; i++){ // because root is folderNames[i] String folderName = folderNames[i++]; int currentFolderSize = currentFolder.getChildren.getSize(); for(int o=1; o<= currentFolderSize ; o++){ if(currentFolder.getChildren().get(o) instanceof Folder){ if(folderName.equals(currentFolder.getChildren().get(o).getFolderName())){ currentFolder = currentFolder.getChildren().get(o); if (i == counter){ //now i am inside the correct folder and i add it to the list of folders within it //the trouble is knowing how to re add this changed folder back to the list before it currentFolder.getChildren.add(newFolder); } } } } }

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  • JUnit test failing - complaining of missing data that was just inserted

    - by Collin Peters
    I have an extremely odd problem in my JUnit tests that I just can't seem to nail down. I have a multi-module java webapp project with a fairly standard structure (DAO's, service clasess, etc...). Within this project I have a 'core' project which contains some abstracted setup code which inserts a test user along with the necessary items for a user (in this case an 'enterprise', so a user must belong to an enterprise and this is enforced at the database level) Fairly simple so far... but here is where the strangeness begins some tests fail to run and throw a database exception where it complains that a user cannot be inserted because an enterprise does not exist. But it just created the enterprise in the preceding line of code! And there was no errors in the insertion of the enterprise. Stranger yet, if this test class is run by itself everything works fine. It is only when the test is run as part of the project that it fails! And the exact same abstracted code was run by 10+ tests before the one that fails! f I have been banging my head against a wall with this for days and haven't really made any progress. I'm not even sure what information to offer up to help diagnose this. Using JUnit 4.4, Spring 2.5.6, iBatis 2.3.0, Postgresql 8.3 Switching to org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource from org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource changed the problem. Using DriverManagerDataSource the tests work for the first time, but now all of a sudden a lot of data isn't rolled back in the database! It leaves everything behind. All with no errors Tests fail when run via Eclipse & Maven Please ask for any info which may help me solve my problem!

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  • Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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  • apache proxy module gives 403 forbidden error

    - by naiquevin
    I am trying to use the apache's proxy module for working with xmpp on ubuntu desktop. For this i did the following things - 1) enabled mod_proxy by creating a symlink of proxy.conf, proxy.load and proxy_http.load from /etc/apache2/mods-available/ in the mods-enabled directory. 2) Added the following lines to the vhost <Proxy http://mydomain.com/httpbind> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass /httpbind http://mydomain.com:7070/http-bind/ ProxyPassReverse /httpbind http://mydomain.com:7070/http-bind/ I am new to using the proxy module but what i can make from the above lines is that requests to http://mydomain.com/httpbind will be forwarded to http://mydomain.com:7070/http-bind/. Kindly correct if wrong. 3) added rule Allow from .mydomain.com in /mods-available/proxy.conf Now i try to access http://mydomain.com/httpbind and it shows 403 Forbidden error.. What am i missing here ? Please help. thanks Edit : The problem got solved when i changed the following code in mods_available/proxy.conf <Proxy *> AddDefaultCharset off Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from mydomain.com </Proxy> to <Proxy *> AddDefaultCharset off Order deny,allow #Deny from all Allow from all </Proxy> Didnt get what was wrong with the initial code though

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