Search Results

Search found 10878 results on 436 pages for 'changed'.

Page 334/436 | < Previous Page | 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341  | Next Page >

  • A local error has occurred while connecting to AD in Windows 2008 server

    - by Sara
    There's Active directory on windows 2000 advance server, I have a web server on Windows 2008 server Enterprise Edition, the following code works fine in Winsows 2003 server but when I installed Win 2008 server, it gives me the following error, the webserver is not subdomain of the AD server. but they have the same range IP address. A local error has occurred.\r\n"} System.Exception system.DirectoryServices.DirectoryServicesCOMException} I want to Authenticate Via AD from my webserver, I even test the port 389 and it was open(by telnet), I even added port 389 UDP and TCP to firewall of webserver to be sure it is open, even I turned the firewall off but nothing changed. I don't know what's wrong with Windows 2008 server that cannot run my code, I search Internet but I found nothing. any solution would be helpful. Thank you public bool IsAuthenticated(string username, string pwd,string group) { string domainAndUsername = "LDAP://192.xx.xx.xx:389/DC=test,DC=oc,DC=com" ; string usr="CN=" + username + ",CN=" + group; DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry(domainAndUsername, usr, pwd, AuthenticationTypes.Secure ); try { DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(SAMAccountName=" + username + ")"; SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); if (result == null) { return false; } } catch (Exception ex) { return false; } return true; }

    Read the article

  • Use different configurations with Simple Injection

    - by Ruben.Canton
    I'm using the library "Simple Injector" (http://simpleinjector.codeplex.com) and it looks cool and nice. But after building a configuration and use it, now I want to know how to change from one configuration to another. Scenario: Let's imagine I've set up a configuration in the Global Asax and I have the public and global Container there. Now I want to make some tests and I want them to use mock classes so I want to change the configuration. I can, of course, build another configuration and assign it to the global Container created by default, so that every time I run a test the alternative configuration will be set. But on doing that and though I'm in development context the Container is changed for everyone, even for normal requests. I know I'm testing in this context and that shouldn't matter, but I have the feeling that this is not the way for doing this... and I wonder how to change from one configuration to another in the correct way. Note: At Simple Injector documentation says that you can ask questions in stackoverflow so that's why I'm here. =P PD: I'm new in this IoC and DI world so try to be easy with me when explaining it :)

    Read the article

  • Need a SQL statement focus on combination of tables but entries always with uinque ID

    - by Registered User KC
    Hi All, I need SQL code to solve the tables combination problem, described on below: Table old data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/8/2010 1 B 0.1 on 6/8/2010 2 C 0.1 on 6/8/2010 3 D 0.1 on 6/8/2010 4 E 0.1 on 6/8/2010 5 F 0.1 on 6/8/2010 6 G 0.1 on 6/8/2010 7 Table new data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #B entry deleted C 0.3 on 6/18/2010 #version_updated C1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 D 0.1 on 6/18/2010 E 0.1 off 6/18/2010 #status_updated F 0.1 on 6/18/2010 G 0.1 on 6/18/2010 H 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added H1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added the difference of new data and old date: B entry deleted C entry version updated E entry status updated C1/H/H1 entry new added What I want is always keeping the ID - name mapping relationship in old data table no matter how data changed later, a.k.a the name always has a unique ID number bind with it. If entry has update, then update the data, if entry is new added, insert to the table then give a new assigned unique ID. However, I can only use SQL with simple select or update statement then it may too hard for me to write such code, then I hope someone with expertise can give direction, no details needed on the different of SQL variant, a standard sql code as sample is enough. Thanks in advance! Rgs KC

    Read the article

  • Efficient Method for Preventing Hotlinking via .htaccess

    - by Michael Robinson
    I need to confirm something before I go accuse someone of ... well I'd rather not say. The problem: We allow users to upload images and embed them within text on our site. In the past we allowed users to hotlink to our images as well, but due to server load we unfortunately had to stop this. Current "solution": The method the programmer used to solve our "too many connections" issue was to rename the file that receives and processes image requests (image_request.php) to image_request2.php, and replace the contents of the original with <?php header("HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error") ; ?> Obviously this has caused all images with their src attribute pointing to the original image_request.php to be broken, and is also the wrong code to be sending in this case. Proposed solution: I feel a more elegant solution would be: In .htaccess If the request is for image_request.php Check referrer If referrer is not our site, send the appropriate header If referrer is our site, proceed to image_request.php and process image request What I would like to know is: Compared to simply returning a 500 for each request to image_request.php: How much more load would be incurred if we were to use my proposed alternative solution outlined above? Is there a better way to do this? Our main concern is that the site stays up. I am not willing to agree that breaking all internally linked images is the best / only way to solve this. I refuse to tell our users that because of something WE changed they must now manually change the embed code in all their previously uploaded content.

    Read the article

  • Rotate MapView in Android

    - by Matthew B.
    I am writing an Android app where one of the features is that the map will rotate according to the compass (i.e. if the phone is pointing east, the map will be oriented so that the east side of the map is on top). Previous answers that I have found suggested over writing the onDraw() method in mapView, however, the api changed the method to final so it cannot be overwritten. As a result I have tried to overwrite the dispatchDraw() method like so: Note: -compass is a boolean that if true, rotate the view -bearing is a float variable that has the degrees that the view should rotate protected void dispatchDraw(Canvas canvas) { canvas.save(); if (compass) { final float w = this.getWidth(); final float h = this.getHeight(); final float scaleFactor = (float)(Math.sqrt(h * h + w * w) / Math.min(w, h)); final float centerX = w / 2.0f; final float centerY = h / 2.0f; canvas.rotate(bearing, centerX, centerY); canvas.scale(scaleFactor, scaleFactor, centerX, centerY); } super.dispatchDraw(canvas); canvas.restore(); }

    Read the article

  • TFS How does merging work?

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    I have a release branch (RB, starting at C5) and a changeset on trunk (C10) that I now want to merge onto RB. The file has changes at C3 (common to both), one in CS 7 on RB, and one in C9 (trunk) and one in C10). So the history for my changed file looks like this: RB: C5 -> C7 Trunk: C3 -> C9 -> C10 When I merge C10 from trunk to RB, I'd expect to see a merge window showing me C10 | C3 | C7 since C3 is the common ancestor revision and C10 and C7 are the tips of my two branches respectively. However, my merge tool shows me C10 | C9 | C7. My merge tool is configured to show %1(OriginalFile)|%3(BaseFile)|%2(Modified File), so this tells me TFS chose C9 as the base revision. This is totally unexpected and completely contrary to the way I'm used to merges working in Mercurial or Git. Did I get something wrong or is TFS trying to drive me nuts with merging? Is this the default TFS Merge behavior? If so, can you provide insight into why they chose to implement it this way? I'm using TFS 2008 with VS2010 as a Client.

    Read the article

  • trying to read a delimited text file from resources - but it wont run

    - by Bigfatty
    I'm having a problem where instead of reading a text file from the location string, I changed it to read the text file from the resource location and it messes up my program. I've also used the insert snippet method to get most of this code, so it is safe to say I don't know what is going on. Could some one please help? 'reads the text out of a delimited text file and puts the words and hints into to separate arrays ' this works and made the program run ' Dim filename As String = Application.StartupPath + "\ProggramingList.txt" 'this dosnt work and brings back a Illegal characters in path error. dim filename as string = My.Resources.GamesList Dim fields As String() 'my text files are delimited Dim delimiter As String = "," Using parser As New TextFieldParser(filename) parser.SetDelimiters(delimiter) While Not parser.EndOfData ' Read in the fields for the current line fields = parser.ReadFields() ' Add code here to use data in fields variable. 'put the result into two arrays (the fields are the arrays im talking about). one holds the words, and one holds the corresponding hint Programingwords(counter) = Strings.UCase(fields(0)) counter += 1 'this is where the hint is at Programingwords(counter) = (fields(1)) counter += 1 End While End Using

    Read the article

  • Unable to change URL for .NET reference to dynamic web service

    - by Malvineous
    Hi all, I have a web reference added to a C# .NET project. The URL for the web reference needs to change depending on whether I'm building for a development, staging or production environment. I've set the web service to be dynamic, which supposedly means it takes the URL from my app.config file. When I perform a build it overwrites the app.config with the required file which contains the correct URL (different file for each of dev/staging/production.) I then go into the solution properties and make sure the Settings.settings file is updated with the app.config changes. However when I view the properties for the web service, it is still showing the old URL, despite it being dynamic, and supposed to be reading from my settings file (even after closing and reopening the project/solution.) The app.config and the settings file all have the new URL, but the web reference doesn't notice it has changed. If I do a build it ignores the URL in the settings file and tries to connect to the last URL manually typed into the web reference's properties. Typing a URL into these properties correctly updates the app.config and .settings files, so the link is definitely there. I'm a bit new to .NET but it seems to me the purpose of setting the service to be dynamic is so that you can change the URL elsewhere, but when I do this it just gets ignored! Am I doing something wrong?

    Read the article

  • Why would a script not like using MySQLi but is fine with MySQL?

    - by Taylor
    I'm having some issues using mysqli to execute a script with SELECT,DELETE,INSERT and UPDATE querys. They work when using norm mysql such as mysql_connect but im getting strange results when using mysqli. It works fine with a lot of the SELECT querys in other scripts but when it comes to some admin stuff it messes up. Its difficult to explain without attaching the whole script. This is the function for modifying... function database_queryModify($sql,&$insertId) { global $databaseServer; global $databaseName; global $databaseUsername; global $databasePassword; global $databaseDebugMode; $link = @mysql_connect($databaseServer,$databaseUsername,$databasePassword); @mysql_select_db($databaseName,$link); $result = mysql_query($sql,$link); if (!$result && $databaseDebugMode) { print "[".$sql."][".mysql_error()."]"; } $insertId = mysql_insert_id(); return mysql_affected_rows(); } and heres what I changed it to for mysqli function database_queryModify($sql,&$insertId) { global $databaseServer; global $databaseName; global $dbUser_feedadmin; global $dbUser_feedadmin_pw; global $databaseDebugMode; $link = @mysqli_connect($databaseServer,$dbUser_feedadmin,$dbUser_feedadmin_pw,$databaseName); $result = mysqli_query($link, $sql); if (!$result && $databaseDebugMode) { print "[".$sql."][".mysqli_error()."]"; } $insertId = mysqli_insert_id(); return mysqli_affected_rows(); } Does that look right? It isn't actually producing an error but its not functioning in the same way as when using mysql. any ideas?

    Read the article

  • C#'s equivalent to VB.Net's DirectCast?

    - by Collin Sauve
    This has probably been asked before, but if it has, I can't find it. Does C# have an equivalent to VB.Net's DirectCast? I am aware that it has () casts and the 'as' keyword, but those line up to CType and TryCast. To be clear, these keywords do the following; CType/() casts: If it is already the correct type, cast it, otherwise look for a type converter and invoke it. If no type converter is found, throw an InvalidCastException. TryCast/"as" keyword: If it is the correct type, cast it, otherwise return null. DirectCast: If it is the correct type, cast it, otherwise throw an InvalidCastException. EDIT: After I have spelled out the above, some people have still responded that () is equivalent, so I will expand further upon why this is not true. DirectCast only allows for either Narrowing or Widening conversions on inheritance tree, it does not support conversions across different branches like () does. ie: C#, this compiles and runs: //This code uses a type converter to go across an inheritance tree double d = 10; int i = (int)d; VB.Net, this does NOT COMPILE 'Direct cast can only go up or down a branch, never across to a different one. Dim d as Double= 10 Dim i as Integer = DirectCast(d, Integer) The equivalent in VB.Net to my C# code is CType: 'This compiles and runs Dim d as Double= 10 Dim i as Integer = CType(d, Integer) (Edit again, I was originally using strings, I changed it to double... sorry)

    Read the article

  • Why does stored procedure invalidate SQL Cache Dependency?

    - by Fabio Milheiro
    After many hours, I finally realize that I am working correctly with the Cache object in my ASP.NET application but my stored procedures stops it from working correctly. This stored procedure works correctly: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[ListLanguages] @Page INT = 1, @ItemsPerPage INT = 10, @OrderBy NVARCHAR (100) = 'ID', @OrderDirection NVARCHAR(4) = 'DESC' AS BEGIN SELECT ID, [Name], Flag, IsDefault FROM dbo.Languages END But this (the one I wanted) doesn't: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[ListLanguages] @Page INT = 1, @ItemsPerPage INT = 10, @OrderBy NVARCHAR (100) = 'ID', @OrderDirection NVARCHAR(4) = 'DESC', @TotalRecords INT OUTPUT AS BEGIN SET @TotalRecords = 10 EXEC('SELECT ID, Name, Flag, IsDefault FROM ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY ' + @OrderBy + ' ' + @OrderDirection + ') as Row, ID, Name, Flag, IsDefault FROM dbo.Languages) results WHERE Row BETWEEN ((' + @Page + '-1)*' + @ItemsPerPage + '+1) AND (' + @Page + '*' + @ItemsPerPage + ')') END I gave the @TotalRecords parameter the value 10 so you can be sure that the problem is not from the COUNT(*) function which I know is not supported well. Also, when I run it from SQL Server Management Studio, it does exactly what it should do. In the ASP.NET application the results are retrieved correctly, only the cache is somehow unable to work! Can you please help? Maybe a hint I believe that the reason why the dependency HasChanged property is related to the fact that the column Row generated from the ROW_NUMBER is only temporary and, therefore, the SQL SERVER is not able to to say whether the results are changed or not. That's why HasChanged is always set to true. Does anyone know how to paginate results from SQL SERVER without using COUNT or ROW_NUMBER functions?

    Read the article

  • Selectively disabling WebControl elements

    - by NeilD
    I have an ASP.Net MasterPage with a PlaceHolder element. The contents of the PlaceHolder can be viewed in two modes: read-write, and read-only. To implement read only, I wanted to disable all inputs inside the PlaceHolder. I decided to do this by recursively looping through the controls collection of the PlaceHolder, finding all the ones which inherit from WebControl, and setting control.Enabled = false;. Here's what I originally wrote: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } This worked fine, and all controls are disabled... But then the requirement changed ;) NOW, we want to disable all controls except ones which have a certain CssClass. So, my first attempt at the new version: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; if (!wc.CssClass.ToLower().Contains("someclass")) wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } Now I've hit a problem. If I have (for example) an <ASP:Panel> which contains an <ASP:DropDownList>, and I want to keep the DropDownList enabled, then this isn't working. I call DisableControls on the Panel, and it gets disabled. It then loops through the children, and calls DisableControls on the DropDownList, and leaves it enabled (as intended). However, because the Panel is disabled, when the page renders, everything inside the <div> tag is disabled! Can you think of a way round this? I've thought about changing c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl)) to c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(SomeParentClassThatAllInputElementsInheritFrom)), but I can't find anything appropriate!

    Read the article

  • Cannot convert object, recieved from ajax call, into a long

    - by Matt
    I'm using Asp.Net-Mvc, I have this method in my controller: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult LinkAccount(string site, object id) { return this.Json(id); } Here's the ajax method that calls it: $.post("/Account/LinkAccount", { site: "Facebook", id: FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid }, function(result) { alert(result); }, "json" ); returning this.Json(id); makes the alert work... it alerts 7128383 (something similar to that). but if I change this.Json(id) to this.Json(Conver.ToInt64(id)); the alert does not fire... Any idea of why I can't convert an object received from an object to a long? I already know changing the LinkAccount method to accept a long instead works just fine. It's just I need it as an object because some other sites I'm linking up have strings for id's rather than longs. UPDATE: I tried running the code on localhost so I could set a breakpoint. First I changed the line return this.Json(Convert.ToInt64(id)); to long idAsLong = Convert.ToInt64(id));. Here's what the debugger is telling me: When I hover over id it says: "id | {string[1]}" and when I press the plus button is shows: "[0] | '7128383'" When I hover over idAsLong, it says: "idAsLong | 0" Why isn't it converting it properly?

    Read the article

  • Hidden div height

    - by fudgey
    Ok, I was going to answer someone's question here on SO about why their script wasn't working. They loaded content into a hidden div, then got the height so they could animate the wrapping div. But I always try to test the code I provide. So I made this demo to prove it to them. So, umm, have I entered the twilight zone or am I dreaming right now? pinches self OUCH! I tried that demo in Firefox, IE and Chrome and both methods return the same value. Firebug says zero! I rebooted my computer and I even changed the code a bit (removed the height function) and tried it with jQuery 1.3.2 and it still worked! I know hidden elements USED to return a zero value. Even this SO Answer is giving the advice I would have! So I guess my question is... did I miss something or are we giving bad advice?

    Read the article

  • Caching Authentication Data

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I'm currently implementing a REST web service using CouchDB and RESTlet. The RESTlet layer is mainly for authentication and some minor filtering of the JSON data served by CouchDB: Clients <= HTTP = [ RESTlet <= HTTP = CouchDB ] I'm using CouchDB also to store user login data, because I don't want to add an additional database server for that purpose. Thus, each request to my service causes two CouchDB requests conducted by RESTlet (auth data + "real" request). In order to keep the service as efficent as possible, I want to reduce the number of requests, in this case redundant requests for login data. My idea now is to provide a cache (i.e.LRU-Cache via LinkedHashMap) within my RESTlet application that caches login data, because HTTP caching will probabily not be enough. But how do I invalidate the cache data, once a user changes the password, for instance. Thanks to REST, the application might run on several servers in parallel, and I don't want to create a central instance just to cache login data. Currently, I save requested auth data in the cache and try to auth new requests by using them. If a authentication fails or there is now entry available, I'll dispatch a GET request to my CouchDB storage in order to obtain the actual auth data. So in a worst case, users that have changed their data will perhaps still be able to login with their old credentials. How can I deal with that? Or what is a good strategy to keep the cache(s) up-to-date in general? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Can I add a condition to CakePHP's update statement?

    - by Don Kirkby
    Since there doesn't seem to be any support for optimistic locking in CakePHP, I'm taking a stab at building a behaviour that implements it. After a little research into behaviours, I think I could run a query in the beforeSave event to check that the version field hasn't changed. However, I'd rather implement the check by changing the update statement's WHERE clause from WHERE id = ? to WHERE id = ? and version = ? This way I don't have to worry about other requests changing the database record between the time I read the version and the time I execute the update. It also means I can do one database call instead of two. I can see that the DboSource.update() method supports conditions, but Model.save() never passes any conditions to it. It seems like I have a couple of options: Do the check in beforeSave() and live with the fact that it's not bulletproof. Hack my local copy of CakePHP to check for a conditions key in the options array of Model.save() and pass it along to the DboSource.update() method. Right now, I'm leaning in favour of the second option, but that means I can't share my behaviour with other users unless they apply my hack to their framework. Have I missed an easier option?

    Read the article

  • What is the Proper approach for Constructing a PhysicalAddress object from Byte Array

    - by Paul Farry
    I'm trying to understand what the correct approach for a constructor that accepts a Byte Array with regard to how it stores it's data (specifically with PhysicalAddress) I have an array of 6 bytes (theAddress) that is constructed once. I have a source array of 18bytes (theAddresses) that is loaded from a TCP Connection. I then copy the 6bytes from theAddress+offset into theAddress and construct the PhysicalAddress from it. Problem is that the PhysicalAddress just stores the Reference to the array that was passed in. Therefore if you subsequently check the addresses they only ever point to the last address that was copied in. When I took a look inside the PhysicalAddress with reflector it's easy to see what's going on. public PhysicalAddress(byte[] address) { this.changed = true; this.address = address; } Now I know this can be solved by creating theAddress array on each pass, but I wanted to find out what really is the best practice for this. Should the constructor of an object that accepts a byte array create it's own private Variable for holding the data and copy it from the original Should it just hold the reference to what was passed in. Should I just created theAddress on each pass in the loop

    Read the article

  • Handling data update/freshness issue in web-app in general (or GWT specifically)

    - by edwin.nathaniel
    In general, how do you guys handle user update/data freshness interaction with the user (UI issue) in web-apps? For example: Multi-users web-app (like project management) Login to a "virtual" space People can update project names, etc How to handle a situation such that: user-A and user-B load a project with title "Project StackOverflow" user-B updates the title to "Project StackExchange" user-A updates the title after user-B update operation to "Project Basecamp" The question I'm asking is from the user perspective (UI) and not about transactional operation. What do most people do in this situation? What would you do after user-B updates the title in user-A screen/view? What happened when user-A tries to update the title after user-B finished his/her update operation? do you inform user-A that the title has changed and he/she has to reload the page? do you go ahead and change the title and let user-B has old data? Do you do some sort of application-level "locking" mechanism? (if someone is updating, nobody else can?) Or fix the application workflow? (who has the access to be able to change things, etc). What would be the simplest solution, but at the same time not annoy the user with more dialog/warning messages. I've encountered this particular problem frequently in a GWT app specifically where domain models are being passed around and refreshing the whole app/client-side isn't the optimal solution in my mind (since it means the whole "loading"/initialization phase must be executed again in this specific environment). Maybe the answer is to stay away from GWT? :) Love to hear options, solutions, and advises from you guys. Thanks

    Read the article

  • does sfWidgetFormSelect provide a string or an int of the selected item?

    - by han
    Hey guys, I'm having an annoying problem. I'm trying to find out what fields of a form were changed, and then insert that into a table. I managed to var_dump in doUpdateObjectas shown in the following public function doUpdateObject($values) { parent::doUpdateObject($values); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(false)); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(true)); } And it seems like $this-getObject()-getModified seems to work in giving me both before and after values by setting it to either true or false. The problem that I'm facing right now is that, some how, sfWidgetFormSelect seems to be saving one of my fields as a string. before saving, that exact same field was an int. (I got this idea by var_dump both before and after). Here is what the results on both var dumps showed: array(1) {["annoying_field"]=> int(3)} array(1) {["annoying_field"]=>string(1)"3"} This seems to cause doctrine to think that this is a modification and thus gives a false positive. In my base form, I have under $this->getWidgets() 'annoying_field' => new sfWidgetFormInputText(), under $this->setValidators 'annoying_field' => new sfValidatorInteger(array('required' => false)), and lastly in my configured Form.class.php I have reconfigured the file as such: $this->widgetSchema['annoying_field'] = new sfWidgetFormSelect(array('choices' => $statuses)); statuses is an array containing values like {""a", "b", "c", "d"} and I just want the index of the status to be stored in the database. And also how can I insert the changes into another database table? let's say my Log table? Any ideas and advice as to why this is happen is appreciated, I've been trying to figure it out and browsing google for various keywords with no avail. Thanks! Edit: ok so I created another field, integer in my schema just for testing. I created an entry, saved it, and edited it. this time the same thing happened!

    Read the article

  • Understanding MongoDB(and NoSQL in general) and How to make the best use of it

    - by Earlz
    Hello, I am beginning to think that my next project I am wanting to do would work better with a NoSQL solution. The project would either involve a ton of 2-column tables or a ton of dynamic queries with dynamically generated columns in a traditional SQL database. So I feel a NoSQL database would be much cleaner. I'm looking at MongoDB and it looks pretty promising. Anyway, I'm attempting to make sense of it all. Also, I will be using MongoMapper in Ruby. Anyway though, I'm confused as to how to layout things in such a freeform database. I've read http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2170152/nosql-best-practices and the answer there says that normalization is usually bad in a NoSQL DB. So how would be the best way of laying out say a simple blog with users, posts, and comments? My natural thought was to have 3 collections for each and then link them by a unique ID. But this apparently is wrong? So, what are some of the ways to lay out such a thing? My concern with the answer given in the other question is what if the author's name changed. You'd have to go through updating a ton of posts and comments. But is this an ok thing to do with NoSQL?

    Read the article

  • Is there a difference between starting an application from the OS or from adb

    - by aruwen
    I do have a curious error in my application. My app crashes (don't mind the crash, I roughly know why - classloader) when I start the application from the OS directly, then kill it from the background via any Task Killer (this is one of the few ways to reproduce the crash consistently - simulating the OS freeing memory and closing the application) and try to restart it again. The thing is, if I start the application via adb shell using the following command: adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n com.my.packagename/myLaunchActivity I cannot reproduce the crash. So is there any difference in how Android OS calls the application as opposed to the above call? EDIT: added the manifest (just changed names) <?xml version="1.0" ?> <manifest android:versionCode="5" android:versionName="1.05" package="com.my.sample" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> <application android:icon="@drawable/square_my_logo" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my.InfoActivity" android:screenOrientation="landscape"></activity> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.KickStart" android:screenOrientation="landscape"/> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.Launcher" android:screenOrientation="landscape"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"/> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE"/></manifest> starting the com.my2.Launcher from the adb shell

    Read the article

  • IIS site always returns 404 to WinMo emulator

    - by Derick Bailey
    I'm running Win7x64 Ultimate with Visual Studio 2008. I have a website built in ASP.NET 3.5 and hosted via IIS on my box. I can run the website perfectly fine and I can hit all of the web services that I have built in the website, using a web browser. When I pull up my Windows Mobile 6 emulator and hit the site (using my IP address) it always returns a 404 error. I have the emulator cradled w/ Device Emulator Manager and I can interact with the emulated device normally. I am also able to get out to google.com and other websites w/ the emulated device. I have also verified that the emulator is hitting my box by stopping the IIS website and seeing that the WinMo emulator cannot get any response. Then when I start the site again, I get a 404 error. When I pull up my site on my local dev box via FireFox or IE using the IP address it works perfectly fine. The worst part is this worked perfectly fine a few weeks ago, when I used it last. I don't know that I've changed anything since then - I'm just trying to use the emulator to hit my site again. Help?! Update: my http requests comign from the WinMo emulator are not getting logged in the IIS log files, while my requests from FireFox on my local box are getting logged. Not sure if that helps in figuring out the problem... Update 2: I can use the ruby Webbrick server on my local box and hit that server from my emulator just fine. is in IIS not allowing me to hit the IIS site from the emu? UPdate 3: I cradled an actual WinMo device to my box with it's networking turned off and was able to hit the IIS site just fine. that makes me think it's something set up wrong in the emulator.

    Read the article

  • Search for a date between given ranges - Lotus

    - by Kris.Mitchell
    I have been trying to work out what is the best way to search for gather all of the documents in a database that have a certain date. Originally I was trying to use FTsearch or search to move through a document collection, but I changed over to processing a view and associated documents. My first question is what is the easiest way to spin through a set of documents and find if a date stored in the documents is greater than or less than a specified date? So, to continue working I implemented the following code. If (doc.creationDate(0) > cdat(parm1)) And (doc.creationDate(0) < CDat(parm2)) then ... end if but the results are off Included! Date:3/12/10 11:07:08 P1:3/1/10 P2: 3/5/10 Included! Date:3/13/10 9:15:09 P1:3/1/10 P2: 3/5/10 Included! Date:3/17/10 16:22:07P1:3/1/10 P2: 3/5/10 You can see that the date stored in the doc is not between P1 and P2. BUT! it does limit the documents with a date less than P1 correctly. So I won't get a result for a document with a date less than 3/1/10 If there isn't a better way than the if statement, can someone help me understand why the two examples from above are included?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: Returning a view with querystring intact

    - by ajbeaven
    I'm creating a messaging web app in ASP.NET and are having some problems when displaying an error message to the user if they go to send a message and there is something wrong. A user can look through profiles of people and then click, 'send a message'. The following action is called (url is /message/create?to=username) and shows them a page where they can enter their message and send it: public ActionResult Create(string to) { ViewData["recipientUsername"] = to; return View(); } On the page that is displayed, the username is entered in to a hidden input field. When the user clicks 'send': [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(FormCollection collection, string message) { try { //do message stuff that errors out } catch { ModelState.AddModelErrors(message.GetRuleViolations()); //adding errors to modelstate } return View(); } So now the error message is displayed to the user fine, however the url is changed in that it no longer has the querystring (/message/create). Again, this would be fine except that when the user clicks the refresh button, the page errors out as the Create action no longer has the 'to' parameter. So I'm guessing that I need to maintain my querystring somehow. Is there any way to do this or do I need to use a different method altogether?

    Read the article

  • pdfmark for docinfo metadata in pdf is not accepting accented characters in Keywords or Subject

    - by rpilkey
    I am inserting metadata into postscript files with a program, to be distilled to pdf with Adobe Distiller. I am using this code that I grabbed from Thomas Merz's "Web Publishing with Acrobat-PDF": /pdfmark where {pop} {userdict /pdfmark /cleartomark load put} ifelse [ /Title (mot accenté) /Author (mot accenté) /Subject (mot accenté) /Keywords (mot accenté) /DOCINFO pdfmark When you look at the metadata, the accented characters turn into "?" in the Subject and Keyword fields, but not the Title and Author fields. The characters are the same ascii 233 I tried replacing them with octal encoding (\351), which came out the same (Title and Author okay, Subject and Keywords messed up). file encoding is latin-1,unix eol I found a mention on adobe forums, but the answer didn't make sense to me. http://forums.adobe.com/message/1165593 I changed the encoding to utf-8, inserted the characters binarily (in VIM : <Ctrl-v>u00e9), no change. I tried inserting the BOM in a few places, it didn't work. This is with Acrobat Pro 9 I didn't notice this problem with Acrobat Pro 7. Does anybody know of a workaround to get the accented characters into ALL the metadata fields when modifying a postscript file, or tell me if I'm doing it wrong? It seems weird that different fields would not accept the same bytes.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341  | Next Page >