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  • output query in strict table formate in code-igniter

    - by riad
    Dear all, my code is below.it show the output in table format having no problems. But when the particular tr gets long output from database then the table break. Now how can i fixed the tr width strictly?let say i want each td cannot be more than 100px. How can i do it? Note: Here table means html table,not the database table. if ($query->num_rows() > 0) { $output = ''; foreach ($query-result() as $function_info) { if ($description) { $output .= ''.$function_info-songName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-albumName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-artistName.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code1.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code2.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code3.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code4.''; $output .= ''.$function_info-Code5.''; } else { $output .= ''.$function_info-songName.''; } } $output .= ''; return $output; } else { return 'Result not found.'; } thanks riad

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  • Deleting an option in a <select> list

    - by Tyzak
    hello, i have following function: function delete_auswahl() { var anzahl =document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").length ; for (var i =0; i<=anzahl; i++) { if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].selected==true) { if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].id == "Margherita" ) gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag - 4; if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].id=="Salami" ) gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag - 4.50; if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].id=="Hawaii" ) gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag - 5.50; document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i]=null; i--;// auf der gleichen stelle bleiben, da dass nächste feld nachrückt } } document.getElementById('gesamtbetrag').innerHTML=gesamtbetrag ; } before i added values with function hinzu (pizza) { NeuerEintrag = new Option(pizza, pizza, false, false); document.getElementById("warenkorbfeld").options[document.getElementById("warenkorbfeld").length] = NeuerEintrag ; if (pizza=="Margherita") { gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag + 4; } if (pizza=="Salami") { gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag + 4.50; } if (pizza=="Hawaii") { gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag + 5.50; } document.getElementById('gesamtbetrag').innerHTML=gesamtbetrag ; } now, in the delete function doesn't substract the price. despite this, all works. what's wrong with this term? if (document.getElementById ("warenkorbfeld").options[i].id == "Margherita" ) gesamtbetrag = gesamtbetrag - 4; thanks in advance

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  • Single domain name potentially resolving to multiple servers

    - by Jace
    first time here at Server Fault, and I apologize in advance that this domain stuff is not really my strength. Any and all suggestions are much appreciated. I am completely lost and incredibly tired! I've inherited an incredibly convoluted system from my predecessor, and I'm trying to find a way to solve it - or I need to be told that it just isn't possible. I've got an old site on ServerA (some kind of Linux distribution), with the domain SomeDomain.com There is a new site sitting on ServerB (Ubuntu), with the intention of having SomeDomain.com to serve it in the future (it is replacing the old site) ServerA also has a web app that is currently in use by other departments within the company (accessible at SomeDomain.com/web-app/) The goal: To have SomeDomain.com and all extensions of this domain name (sub-domains, URL's etc.) serve the new site on ServerB. BUT, the URL SomeDomain.com/web-app/ must serve the Web App on ServerA. The Catch: The ServerA is a shared server with a hosting company with VERY limiting restrictions in place - I cannot adjust DNS settings (apart from Name servers - but cannot set A records or anything, I have full access to ServerB to do as I wish). Therefore the web-app MUST be served from SomeDomain.com/web-app/ and not from a sub-domain or anything. These limitations make migrating the web-app from Server A to Server B rather undesirable, AND this web-app will be replaced in the near future, so it isn't worth the effort right now. Therefore, ultimately I will want 1 domain name to resolve to Server B's IP address most of the time, but in the event that the URL is SomeDomain.com/web-app/, it should resolve to Server A's IP. Note: The domain names don't, technically, have to resolve to one IP or another - but ultimately the URL's must stay consistent Some things I have tried: I've looked into mod_rewrite and .htaccess to try and achieve this effect, but it doesn't look like it's going to work for me - but I may have done it wrong (On Server B, I just checked if the request URI was /web-app/ and tried to serve the /web-app/ folder on Server A) I do have the ability to modify the name servers on both servers I am not able to make a sub domain on Server A that points back to Server A (I assume because the hosting company's servers use the URL to determine what site the serve). I figured this could be good as I'd could set an A record on Server B to point to the web app on Server A - but alas, Server A requires SomeDomain.com. If there is any more information I can give, please let me know. I need a nudge in the right direction, ideas or a solution.

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  • R data frame select by global variable

    - by Matt
    I'm not sure how to do this without getting an error. Here is a simplified example of my problem. Say I have this data frame DF a b c d 1 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 3 4 5 6 Then I have a variable x <- min(c(1,2,3)) Now I want do do the following y <- DF[a == x] But when I try to refer to some variable like "x" I get an error because R is looking for a column "x" in my data frame. I get the "undefined columns selected" error How can I do what I am trying to do in R?

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  • Multiple instances of the same Async task (Windows Phone)

    - by Bart Teunissen
    After googeling for ages, and reading some stuff about async task in books. I made a my first program with an async task in it. Only to find out, that i can only start one task. I want to run the task more then once. This is where i found out that that doesn't seem to work. to be a little bit clearer, here are some parts of my code: InitFunction(var); This is the Task itself public async Task InitFunction(string var) { _VarHandle = await _AdsClient.GetSymhandleByNameAsync(var); _Data = await _AdsClient.ReadAsync<T>(_VarHandle); _AdsClient.AddNotificationAsync<T>(_VarHandle, AdsTransmissionMode.OnChange, 1000, this); } This works like a charm when i execute the task only once.. But is there a possibility to run it multiple times. Something like this? InitFunction(var1); InitFunction(var2); InitFunction(var3); Because if i do this now (multiple tasks at once), the task it wants to start is still running, and it throws an exeption. if someone could help me with this, that would be awesome! ~ Bart

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  • convert SQL Server StoredPorcedure to MySql

    - by karthik
    I need to covert the following SP of SQL Server To MySql. I am new to MySql.. Help needed. CREATE PROC InsertGenerator (@tableName varchar(100)) as --Declare a cursor to retrieve column specific information --for the specified table DECLARE cursCol CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT column_name,data_type FROM information_schema.columns WHERE table_name = @tableName OPEN cursCol DECLARE @string nvarchar(3000) --for storing the first half --of INSERT statement DECLARE @stringData nvarchar(3000) --for storing the data --(VALUES) related statement DECLARE @dataType nvarchar(1000) --data types returned --for respective columns SET @string='INSERT '+@tableName+'(' SET @stringData='' DECLARE @colName nvarchar(50) FETCH NEXT FROM cursCol INTO @colName,@dataType IF @@fetch_status<>0 begin print 'Table '+@tableName+' not found, processing skipped.' close curscol deallocate curscol return END WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS=0 BEGIN IF @dataType in ('varchar','char','nchar','nvarchar') BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull('+@colName+','''')+'''''',''+' END ELSE if @dataType in ('text','ntext') --if the datatype --is text or something else BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(2000)),'''')+'''''',''+' END ELSE IF @dataType = 'money' --because money doesn't get converted --from varchar implicitly BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''convert(money,''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0.0000'')+''''''),''+' END ELSE IF @dataType='datetime' BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''convert(datetime,''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0'')+''''''),''+' END ELSE IF @dataType='image' BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast(convert(varbinary,'+@colName+') as varchar(6)),''0'')+'''''',''+' END ELSE --presuming the data type is int,bit,numeric,decimal BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0'')+'''''',''+' END SET @string=@string+@colName+',' FETCH NEXT FROM cursCol INTO @colName,@dataType END

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  • TCP Proxy with multiple clients?

    - by Daphna
    I am looking for a TCP proxy - a utility that will connect to a port, read a TCP stream, and write it to clients that connect to it. The key point here is that there may be more than one client, and each client should receive a copy of the stream. Preferably windows solution, but Linux can be useful as well.

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  • How to create custom query for CollectionOfElements

    - by Shervin
    Hi. I have problems creating a custom query. This is what entities: @Entity public class ApplicationProcess { @CollectionOfElements private Set<Template> defaultTemplates; //more fields } And Template.java @Embeddable @EqualsAndHashCode(exclude={"file", "selected", "used"}) public class Template implements Comparable<Template> { @Setter private ApplicationProcess applicationProcess; @Setter private Boolean used = Boolean.valueOf(false); public Template() { } @Parent public ApplicationProcess getApplicationProcess() { return applicationProcess; } @Column(nullable = false) @NotNull public String getName() { return name; } @Column(nullable = true) public Boolean isUsed() { return used; } public int compareTo(Template o) { return getName().compareTo(o.getName()); } } I want to create a update statement. I have tried these two: int v = entityManager.createQuery("update ApplicationProcess_defaultTemplates t set t.used = true " + "WHERE t.applicationProcess.id=:apId").setParameter("apId", ap.getId()) .executeUpdate(); ApplicationProcess_defaultTemplates is not mapped [update ApplicationProcess_defaultTemplates t set t.used = true WHERE t.applicationProcess.id=:apId] And I have tried int v = entityManager.createQuery("update Template t set t.used = true " + "WHERE t.applicationProcess.id=:apId").setParameter("apId", ap.getId()) .executeUpdate(); With the same error: Template is not mapped [update Template t set t.used = true WHERE t.applicationProcess.id=:apId] Any ideas? UPDATE I fixed it by creating native query int v = entityManager.createNativeQuery("update ApplicationProcess_defaultTemplates t set t.used=true where t.ApplicationProcess_id=:apId").setParameter("apId", ap.getId()).executeUpdate();

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  • How to select the most recent set of dated records from a mysql table

    - by Ken
    I am storing the response to various rpc calls in a mysql table with the following fields: Table: rpc_responses timestamp (date) method (varchar) id (varchar) response (mediumtext) PRIMARY KEY(timestamp,method,id) What is the best method of selecting the most recent responses for all existing combinations of method and id? For each date there can only be one response for a given method/id. Not all call combinations are necessarily present for a given date. There are dozens of methods, thousands of ids and at least 356 different dates Sample data: timestamp method id response 2009-01-10 getThud 16 "....." 2009-01-10 getFoo 12 "....." 2009-01-10 getBar 12 "....." 2009-01-11 getFoo 12 "....." 2009-01-11 getBar 16 "....." Desired result: 2009-01-10 getThud 16 "....." 2009-01-10 getBar 12 "....." 2009-01-11 getFoo 12 "....." 2009-01-11 getBar 16 "....." (I don't think this is the same question - it won't give me the most recent response)

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  • Store multiple values in a session variable

    - by user458790
    Hi, Before I ask my doubt, please consider this scenario that a user on my website have a profileID. With this profileID are associated some pluginID's. For eg: User1 might have 2, 3 and 5 plugins associated with its profile. When the user logs in, I store the profileID of the user in a session variable cod. At a certain page, the user tries to edit the plugins associated with his profile. So, on that page, I have retrieve those pluginID's from the DB. I have applied this code but this fetches only the maximum pluginID from the DB and not all the pluginID's. SqlCommand cmd1 = new SqlCommand("select plugin_id from profiles_plugins where id=(select id from profiles_plugins where profile_id=" + Convert.ToInt32(Session["cod"]) + ")", con); SqlDataReader dr1 = cmd1.ExecuteReader(); if (dr1.HasRows) { while (dr1.Read()) { Session["edp1"] = Convert.ToInt32(dr1[0]); } } dr1.Close(); cmd1.Dispose(); I was trying to figure out how can I store multiple pluginID's in this session variable? Thanks

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  • Separate Certificate by Subdomain (With multiple IPs)

    - by Brian
    Note: Yes, I realize this problem is easier to solve by just using 1 multi-domain or wildcard certificate. I wish to have an ASP.NET site running on IIS with 2 SSL domains sharing 1 web application but using separate certificates. Assuming I have 2 certificates, this can be solved on IIS7 as follows: Web Application1: Binding 1: http, 80, IP Address *, Host Name * Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS1, using CERTDOMAIN1 (DOMAIN1 resolves to IPADDRESS1) Binding 3: https, 443, IPADDRESS2, using CERTDOMAIN2 (DOMAIN2 resolves to IPADDRESS2) That is to say, 2 certificates and 2 ip addresses, but both mapped to the same web application. In IIS6, the closest I have been able to come to this configuration is: Web Application1: Binding 1: http, 80, IPADDRESS1 Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS1, using CERTDOMAIN1 (DOMAIN1 resolves to IPADDRESS1) Web Application2: Binding 1: http, 80, IPADDRESS2 Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS2, using CERTDOMAIN2 (DOMAIN2 resolves to IPADDRESS2) That is to say, 2 certificates and 2 IP addresses, 2 web applications, both mapped to the same file location. The IIS6 solution is not optimal. Even if sharing an application pool, there are still costs associated with running the same site as two applications. Is upgrading from IIS6 to IIS7 a legitimate way to resolve this problem? Is there an IIS6 way to map 2 IP addresses within the same web application to different certificates?

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  • Save and restore multiple layers within a Photoshop action that flattens

    - by SuitCase
    I'm editing comic pages with layers - "background", "foreground", "lineart" and "over lineart". I have a Photoshop action that includes a Mode-Bitmap command, which requires the image to be flattened. I need this part of the action because I use the Halftone Screen method of reducing the greyscale image to bitmap on the "background" layer, creating a certain effect. I am pretty sure there is no filter or anything else that gives the same effect. After the mode is changed to bitmap, my action changes things back to greyscale for further changes. This poses a problem. I only want to do the bitmap mode change on the background layer, and after I do the change I want to restore the layer structure as it was - with the foreground, lineart and over lineart layers back above the now-halftoned background. My current method of saving these layers and restoring them is clumsy. My action is able to automatically save the "foreground" layer by selecting it, cutting it, then pasting it back in after the mode changing is over. But, for the "ink" and "over ink" layers, I have to manually cut these layers, paste them into a new document, and later re-cut and re-paste after running my action. This is so clunky! What I would like to know is if it's possible to set aside my layers in an automated way, and then bring them back in, also in an automated way. An ugly (but functional) solution would be to replicate my actions of creating new documents and pasting them temporarily there, but I don't think Photoshop allows you to do things outside of your current document with an action. It seems to me that the only way to do what I want is to use the "hack" of incorporating the clipboard into the action as a clever hack, but that leaves me stuck as I have two more layers that can't fit onto that same clipboard. Help or suggestions would be appreciated. I can keep on doing it manually, but to have a comprehensive action would save me a ton of time.

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  • Exchange 2010 mail routing with Hub Transport in multiple sites

    - by jmreicha
    I have two separate physical sites, Site A and Site B. In site A, I have following: 2 CAS servers 2 Hub Transport servers 2 Mailbox servers 2 Edge servers In site B, I have the following: 1 CAS 1 Hub 1 Mailbox 1 Edge Currently everything is working out of site A. That is, all users are housed on mailboxes that are in site A and all inbound mail flow is pointing to site A. I would eventually like to be able to move some of the mailboxes to site B without causing a disruption for resliency and redundancy purposes but I am not quite sure how to go about setting this up or if it is even possible. So far I have created an Edge subscription in site B and am able to send emails out from test accounts set up with mailboxes on the site B Mailbox server. However, I am unable to receive incoming mail messages and am confused. So I'm thinking incoming mail messages are still being directed to site A and then they are getting stuck because there is no way to route the mail to the site B mailboxes. Is this assumption correct? I am unfamiliar with mail flow and routing so I am not really sure what I need to be looking at? Would I add the site B hub transport to the Edge subscription in site A? Or I guess more specifically, how would I go about enabling communication and mail flow between mailboxes split up on site A and B?

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  • Router(s) Issue: DNS quries sporadically fail with multiple computers hooked in

    - by bob-the-destroyer
    Basically, after anywhere from 5-60 minutes, DNS queries fail for a few minutes, then slowly begin to resolve correctly. Then the cycle repeats. This occurs only when more than one computer is on the network. All computers on the network experiences the same sporadic DNS outage at the same time. Wireless or wired, Linux or Windows, fresh OS install or old, browser or ping, same symptoms. Duplicated on 3 routers (not chained together, mind you) and 3 ISP's and 3 separate locations over the past several months. The only common theme is a single 5-yo WIN XP laptop which has been in use on the network throughout all this. There also may be anywhere between 1 - 10 devices hooked up wired or wirelessly at a time. The only reprieve I have from this torture is by using any VPN to an outside source - always smooth sailing. I typically set up any router to a) use WPA2/etc security; b) MAC whitelist; c) UPNP OFF (if available); d) always update firmware when available; e) obtain DNS from ISP automatically; f) set the router to act as DHCP server for the internal network. Adjusting channels has no effect. Any ideas?

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  • exchange server 2010 with multiple domains

    - by air
    i have one exchange server 2010, which is working fine with one domain. my exchange is working as follows pop3 collector collect emails from one master catchall account and then deliver to exchange server, this working perfect. now what i want to add another domain to same exchange, i have added new domain as trusted domain & email policy and this new domain email account works fine with internal emails. now what i have done, i again forward new email account to same catchall account. but if i send email from any other external email address email is bounce, i can see email receive by pop3 collector but bounce by exchange server. to make you more clear let me explain logic on which i am working. i have 2 domains 1. domain1.com ([email protected]) 2. domain2.com ([email protected] -->[email protected]) now on my machine with exchange server i have pop3 collector which collect all emails from [email protected] and forward to exchange 2010 server. all emails to domain1.com is working perfect but when i send email to [email protected] this email redirect to [email protected] perfectly but when exchanger server receive this email, it bounce. i have also study the url link text and follow the whole process but no success. i also check that my DNS/MX is working fine as the bounce message is going from my exchange server. EDIT the only problem is with accepted domain, as email come to exchange server then bounce back. i just try this today i create one user called test, then i goto his properties -- email there was only one email account [email protected] i try to send email to [email protected] from internet (email bounce) then again i go to test user properties -- email and Add one email [email protected] again u try to send email to t*[email protected]* from internet (email received) i think the only problem is with accepted domain but in hub transport , it shows accepted is there any way to check does domain is properly accepted or not in exchange 2010 server. Thanks

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  • Linux: Can I link multiple destinations via softlinks?

    - by kds1398
    Attempting to end up with something similar to this: $ ls -l lrwxrwxrwx 1 user group 4 Jun 28 2010 foo -> /home/bar lrwxrwxrwx 1 user group 4 Jun 29 2010 foo -> /etc/bar The intention is to be able to move a file to foo & have it go to both destination directories for now. The goal is to eventually unlink /home/bar link after confirming there are no issues with moving the files to /etc/bar. I am restricted in that I am unable to change or add to the process that moves the files.

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  • Multiple subdomains resolving to one domain?

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to host an application, but allow the customer to use their own sub domain so that it does not confuse their own customers. So for example, by application would run on app.mydomain.com, but my customer would access it via their own subdomain (app.somedomain.com and/or app.anotherdomain.com). Is this even possible? (Possibly relevant information: my application is hosted on media temple and uses Apache) Thanks!

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  • Using array instead of lots of db queries in PHP

    - by Tural Teyyuboglu
    My function looks like that. It works but does lots of work (recursively calls itself and does lots of db queries.). There must be another way to do same thing but with array (with one query). I can't figure out how to modify this function to get it work with array. Please help. function genMenu($parent, $level, $menu, $utype) { global $db; $stmt=$db->prepare("select id, name FROM navigation WHERE parent = ? AND menu=? AND user_type=?") or die($db->error); $stmt->bind_param("iii", $parent, $menu, $utype) or die($stmt->error); $stmt->execute() or die($stmt->error); $stmt->store_result(); /* bind variables to prepared statement */ $stmt->bind_result($id, $name) or die($stmt->error); if ($level > 0 && $stmt->num_rows > 0) { echo "\n<ul>\n"; } while ($stmt->fetch()) { echo "<li>"; echo '<a href="?page=' . $id . '">' . $name . '</a>'; //display this level's children genMenu($id, $level+1, $menu, $utype); echo "</li>\n\n"; } if ($level > 0 && $stmt->num_rows > 0) { echo "</ul>\n"; } $stmt->close(); }

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  • PHP While loop seperating unique categories from multiple 'Joined' tables

    - by Hob
    I'm pretty new to Joins so hope this all makes sense. I'm joining 4 tables and want to create a while loop that spits out results nested under different categories. My Tables categories id | category_name pages id | page_name | category *page_content* id | page_id | image_id images id | thumb_path My current SQL join <?php $all_photos = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM categories JOIN pages ON pages.category = categories.id JOIN image_pages ON image_pages.page_id = pages.id JOIN images ON images.id = image_pages.image_id ");?> The result I want from a while loop I would like to get something like this.... Category 1 page 1 Image 1, image 2, image 3 page 2 Image 2, image 4 Category 2 page 3 image 1 page 4 image 1, image 2, image 3 I hope that makes sense. Each image can fall under multiple pages and each page can fall under multiple categories. at the moment I have 2 solutions, one which lists each category several times according to the the amount of pages inside them: eg. category 1, page 1, image 1 - category 1, page 1, image 2 etc One that uses a while loop inside another while loop inside another while loop, resulting in 3 sql queries. <?php while($all_page = mysql_fetch_array($all_pages)) { ?> <p><?=$all_page['page_name']?></p> <?php $all_images = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM images JOIN image_pages ON image_pages.page_id = " . $all_page['id'] . " AND image_pages.image_id = images.id"); ?> <div class="admin-images-block clearfix"> <?php while($all_image = mysql_fetch_array($all_images)) { ?> <img src="<?=$all_image['thumb_path']?>" alt="<?=$all_image['title']?>"/> <?php } ?> </div> <?php } } ?

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  • SBS 2003 CEICW - Multiple IP's causing error

    - by mushmush
    two IP adresses (different subnets) are assigned to one networkcard. In the Properties window the order is right, however the Server always picks the wrong one as the "default ip". This causes CEICW to fail with an "The DHCP Server service is started, but the DHCP scope does not match the network address of the server's local area network (LAN) adapter." error. The DHCP Server is installed and configured, but not for the other subnet as it is not needed. If i remove the other subnets IP everything works fine. Is there any way around that without temporarily removing the IP adress or configuring DHCP for one more Subnet?

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  • Best method to search hierarchical data

    - by WDuffy
    I'm looking at building a facility which allows querying for data with hierarchical filtering. I have a few ideas how I'm going to go about it but was wondering if there are any recommendations or suggestions that might be more efficient. As an example imagine that a user is searching for a job. The job areas would be as follows. 1: Scotland 2: --- West Central 3: ------ Glasgow 4: ------ Etc 5: --- North East 6: ------ Ayrshire 7: ------ Etc A user can search specific (i.e. Glasgow) or in a larger area (i.e. Scotland). The two approaches I am considering are: keep a note of children in the database for each record (i.e. cat 1 would have 2, 3, 4 in its children field) and query against that record with a SELECT * FROM Jobs WHERE Category IN Areas.childrenField. Use a recursive function to find all results who have a relation to the selected area. The problems I see from both are: Holding this data in the db will mean having to keep track of all changes to structure. Recursion is slow and inefficent. Any ideas, suggestion or recommendations on the best approach? I'm using C# ASP.NET with MSSQL 2005 DB.

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  • Set an Excel cell's color based on multiple other cells' colors

    - by Lord Torgamus
    I have an Excel 2007 spreadsheet for a list of products and a bunch of factors to rate each one on, and I'm using Conditional Formatting to set the color of the cells in the individual attribute columns. It looks something like this: I want to fill in the rating column for each item with a color, based on the color ratings of its individual attributes. Examples of ways to determine this: the color of the category in which the item scored worst the statistical mode of the category colors the average of the category ratings, where each color is assigned a numerical value How can I implement any or all of the above rules? (I'm really just asking for a quick overview of the relevant Excel feature; I don't need step-by-step instructions for each rule.)

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