Search Results

Search found 10911 results on 437 pages for 'dynamically loaded xap'.

Page 352/437 | < Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >

  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

    Read the article

  • How can display gif on a subview in iPhone using glgif?

    - by iPhoney
    I want to display a gif image on a subview in iPhone. The sample code glgif shows the gif image on the controller's root view, but when I make the following modifications, the application just crashes: IBOutlet UIView *gifView; // gifView is added as a subview of controller's root view //PlayerView *plView = (PlayerView *)self.view; PlayerView *plView = (PlayerView *)gifView; // Load test.gif VideoSource NSString *str = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"test" ofType:@"gif"]; FILE *fp = fopen([str UTF8String], "r"); VideoSource *src = VideoSource_init(fp, VIDEOSOURCE_FILE); src->writeable = false; // Init video using VideoSource Video *vid = [[GifVideo alloc] initWithSource:src inContext:[plView context]]; VideoSource_release(src); // Start if loaded if (vid) { [plView startAnimation:vid]; [vid release]; return; } // Cleanup if failed fclose(fp); Now the app crashes in this line: Video *vid = [[GifVideo alloc] initWithSource:src inContext:[plView context]]; with the error message:-[UIView context]: unrecognized selector sent to instance. Any ideas about how to add the plView to the subview properly?

    Read the article

  • Why NOT use POST method here?

    - by Camran
    I have a classifieds website. In the main page (index) I have several form fields which the user may or may not fill in, in order to specify a detailed search of classifieds. Ex: Category: Cars Price from: 3000 Price to: 10000 Color: Red Area: California The forms' action is set to a php page: <form action='query_sql.php' method='post'> In query_sql.php I fetch the variables like this: category=$_POST['category']; etc etc... Then query MySql: $query="SELECT........WHERE category='$category' etc etc.... $results = mysql_query($query); Then I simply display the results of the query to the user by creating a table which is filled in dynamically depending on the results set. However, according to an answer by Col. Shrapnel in my previous Q I shouldn't use POST here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3004754/how-to-hide-url-from-users-when-submitting-this-form The reason I use post is simply to hide the "one-page-word-document" long URL in the browsers adress bar. I am very confused, is it okay to use POST or not? It is working fine both when I use GET or POST now... And it is already on a production server... Btw, in the linked question, I wasn't referring to make URL invisible (or hide it) I just wanted it too look better (which I have accomplished with mod_rewrite). UPDATE: If I use GET, then how should I make the url better looking (beautiful)? Check this previous Q out: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3000524/how-to-make-this-very-long-url-appear-short

    Read the article

  • Gracefully handling screen orientation change during activity start

    - by Steve H
    I'm trying to find a way to properly handle setting up an activity where its orientation is determined from data in the intent that launched it. This is for a game where the user can choose levels, some of which are int portrait orientation and some are landscape orientation. The problem I'm facing is that setRequestedOrientation(ActivityInfo.SCREEN_ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) doesn't take effect until the activity is fully loaded. This is a problem for me because I do some loading and image processing during startup, which I'd like to only have to do once. Currently, if the user chose a landscape level: the activity starts onCreate(), defaulting to portrait discovers from analysing its launching Intent that it should be in landscape orientation continues regardless all the way to onResume(), loading information and performing other setup tasks at this point setRequestedOrientation kicks in so the application runs through onPause() to onDestroy() it then again starts up from onCreate() and runs to onResume() repeating the setup from earlier Is there a way to avoid that and have it not perform the loading twice? For example, ideally, the activity would know before even onCreate was called whether it should be landscape or portrait depending on some property of the launching intent, but unless I've missed something that isn't possible. I've managed to hack together a way to avoid repeating the loading by checking a boolean before the time-consuming loading steps, but that doesn't seem like the right way of doing it. I imagine I could override onSaveInstanceState, but that would require a lot of additional coding. Is there a simple way to do this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Binding a Button to a GridView

    - by Tyler
    This a pretty simple question, I'm just not sure how to do it exactly. I would like to bind a Button or perhaps ImageButton to a GridView in ASP.NET/C#. Currently, the GridView has two columns and is bound to a DataTable with two columns. I want to add a third column to the GridView, which will include the Button. I know GridView has ButtonField, but I'm not too sure how to go about using it to do what I want. I want to dynamically generate these Buttons and add them to the GridView. Here is how my GridView looks right now: <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" Runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:HyperLinkField HeaderText="Display Name" DataNavigateUrlFields="DISPNAME" DataNavigateUrlFormatString="ViewItem.aspx" DataTextField="DISPNAME"> <ItemStyle Width="70%" /> </asp:HyperLinkField> <asp:BoundField DataField="TypeDisp" HeaderText="Type"> <ItemStyle Width="20%" /> </asp:BoundField> </Columns> </asp:GridView>

    Read the article

  • pluto or jetspeed on google app engine?

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to build something "portlet server"-ish on the google app engine. (as open source) I'd like to use the JSR168/286 standards, but I think that the restrictions of the app engine will make it somewhere between tricky and impossible. Has anyone tried to run jetspeed or an application that uses pluto internally on the google app engine? Based on my current knowledge of portlets and the google app engine I'm anticipating these problems: A war file with portlets is from the deployment standpoint more or less a complete webapp (yes, I know that it doesn't really work without a portal server). The war file may contain it's own web.xml etc. This makes deployment on the app engine rather difficult, because the apps are not visible to each other, so all portlet containing archives need to be included in the war file of the deployed "app engine based portal server". The "portlets" are (at least in liferay) started as permanent servlet processes, based on their portlet.xmls and web.xmls which is located in the same spot for every portlet archive that is loaded. I think this may be problematic in the app engine, because everything is in one big "web app", so it may be tricky to access the portlet.xmls from each archive. This prevents a 100% compatibility in my opinion. Is here anyone who has any experience with the combination of portlets and the app engine? Do you think it's feasible to modify jetspeed, pluto or any other portlet container to be able to run it on the app engine?

    Read the article

  • InstallExecuteSequence cache interferes with custom action operation

    - by Dima G
    I need to upgrade a product that could be installed in per-user context to a new version that is always in per-machine context. The requirements are: Whether the old version was installed in a Per-User (no matter who) or Per-Machine context should be completely seamless to an administrator user that performs the upgrade. The MSI upgrade should succeed without the need to know the password of the user that originally installed the previous version of the product in a Per-User context. The installation should be performed from a single .msi file (no setup.exe is allowed). The installation should be able to run in a silent (non-UI) mode. No reboots are allowed during installation. My strategy is to find in the beginning of the installation whether the product is already installed in per-user context, and if so, to transform the registry keys manually to Per-Machine context (I checked: no additional changes such as file system changes etc. are needed except this transform). I figured out how to move all appropriate keys in the registry from the user settings to the machine settings (pre-loaded appropriate user hive in case it didn't appear in HKEY_USERS) and created custom action that does it - and it does work when I run it as a stand-alone executable before running the MSI. The problem, however, is that when Windows Installer runs InstallExecuteSequence it first creates a 'cached product context' for all products. So when my custom action runs in the course of InstallExecuteSequence, this cache has already been created. Thus FindRelatedProducts action that determines if older product with same upgrade code exists looks on that cache and ignores the changes that my custom action applied. If before running the MSI the previous product was in per-user context, FindRelatedProducts will look at the cache and not apply the upgrade and remove the previous version, because the new product is in per-machine context, even though the previous product version is already configured to per-machine context in the registry by that time by my custom action. What can be done to solve this problem without violating the requirements stated above?

    Read the article

  • Fastcgi 500 error on preg_match_all in PHP

    - by Bertvan
    Hi, I'm trying to set up some exotic PHP code (I'm no expert), and I get a FastCGI Error 500 on a PHP line containing 'preg_match_all'. When I comment out the line, the page is returned with a 200 (but not how it was meant to be). The code is parsing php, html and javascript content loaded from the database and is composing them to return the finished page. Now, by placing around some error_log entries I could determine that the line with the preg_match_all is the cause of the 500. However the line is hit multiple times during the loading of the page and on other occasions, the line does not cause an error. Here's how it looks like exactly: preg_match_all ("/(<([\w]+)[^>]*>)((?:.|\n)*)(<\/\\2>)/", $part['data'], $tags, PREG_PATTERN_ORDER|PREG_OFFSET_CAPTURE); The subject string is a piece of text that looks like: <script> ... some javascript functions ... </script> [Edit:] This is code that is up and running correctly elsewhere, so this very well could be a PHP setting or environment difference. I'm using PHP 5.2.13 on IIS6 with FastCGI. [Edit:] Nothing is mentioned in the log files. At least not in the ones I checked: IIS Logs Event Logs PHP Log Any thoughts or direction would be welcome.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't gcc remove this check of a non-volatile variable?

    - by Thomas
    This question is mostly academic. I ask out of curiosity, not because this poses an actual problem for me. Consider the following incorrect C program. #include <signal.h> #include <stdio.h> static int running = 1; void handler(int u) { running = 0; } int main() { signal(SIGTERM, handler); while (running) ; printf("Bye!\n"); return 0; } This program is incorrect because the handler interrupts the program flow, so running can be modified at any time and should therefore be declared volatile. But let's say the programmer forgot that. gcc 4.3.3, with the -O3 flag, compiles the loop body (after one initial check of the running flag) down to the infinite loop .L7: jmp .L7 which was to be expected. Now we put something trivial inside the while loop, like: while (running) putchar('.'); And suddenly, gcc does not optimize the loop condition anymore! The loop body's assembly now looks like this (again at -O3): .L7: movq stdout(%rip), %rsi movl $46, %edi call _IO_putc movl running(%rip), %eax testl %eax, %eax jne .L7 We see that running is re-loaded from memory each time through the loop; it is not even cached in a register. Apparently gcc now thinks that the value of running could have changed. So why does gcc suddenly decide that it needs to re-check the value of running in this case?

    Read the article

  • Raphael.js map default fill colors

    - by RIDER
    I am trying to familiarize myself with raphael.js. I want to create a USA map that already has default colors for each state and those colors stay there. Here is what I came up with. If you look at AK, I'm getting the default color loaded, but if I highlight another state, the default color for AK disappears. I want AK - and other states - to stay the same color. Specifically, I don't know what is clearing out my AK full color. I think part of this statement is clearing out the fill cover when I mouseover a different state: for (var state in aus) { //aus[state].color = Raphael.getColor(); (function (st, state) { st[0].style.cursor = "pointer"; st[0].onmouseover = function () { current && aus[current].animate({fill: "#333", stroke: "#666"}, 500) && (document.getElementById(current).style.display = ""); st.animate({fill: st.color, stroke: "#ccc"}, 500); st.toFront(); R.safari(); document.getElementById(state).style.display = "block"; current = state; }; })(aus[state], state); } Any ideas where I might be going wrong?

    Read the article

  • C# reflection instantiation

    - by NickLarsen
    I am currently trying to create a generic instance factory for which takes an interface as the generic parameter (enforced in the constructor) and then lets you get instantiated objects which implement that interface from all types in all loaded assemblies. The current implementation is as follows:     public class InstantiationFactory     {         protected Type Type { get; set; }         public InstantiationFactory()         {             this.Type = typeof(T);             if (!this.Type.IsInterface)             {                 // is there a more descriptive exception to throw?                 throw new ArgumentException(/* Crafty message */);             }         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedTypes()         {             // this line of code found in other stack overflow questions             var types = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()                 .SelectMany(a = a.GetTypes())                 .Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */);             return types;         }         public IEnumerable GetImplementations(IEnumerable types)         {             var implementations = types.Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */                 .Select(x = CreateInstance(x));             return implementations;         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedImplementations()         {             var loadedTypes = GetLoadedTypes();             var implementations = GetImplementations(loadedTypes);             return implementations;         }         private T CreateInstance(Type type)         {             T instance = default(T);             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             if (/* valid to instantiate test */)             {                 object constructed = constructor.Invoke(null);                 instance = (T)constructed;             }             return instance;         }     } It seems useful to me to have my CreateInstance(Type) function implemented as an extension method so I can reuse it later and simplify the code of my factory, but I can't figure out how to return a strongly typed value from that extension method. I realize I could just return an object:     public static class TypeExtensions     {         public object CreateInstance(this Type type)         {             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             return /* valid to instantiate test */ ? constructor.Invoke(null) : null;         }     } Is it possible to have an extension method create a signature per instance of the type it extends? My perfect code would be this, which avoids having to cast the result of the call to CreateInstance():     Type type = typeof(MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType);     MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType usable = type.CreateInstance();

    Read the article

  • Why won't my styles show in a Dynamics CRM 4 IFRAME?

    - by Dan Crowther
    I have created a web page (ASP.NET) that includes a stylesheet to mimic Dynamics CRM styles. This is to be used in a CRM IFRAME (within a form). The stylesheet is referenced as follows: <head id="Head1" runat="server"> <link href="Styles.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> </head> When I load the page in Visual Studio, all is well. When I load it in CRM, none of the styles are shown and no images are displayed. If I browse directly to the image, I get a 404 error. However, the pages function correctly. I have set read permissions for "Everyone" on the server to see if that was causing a problem but it didn't help. I also tried putting a plain HTML page in the folder and that won't load either - again a 404. The page is installed in the ISV folder ..../isv/MyProject. Can anyone help? EDIT This is on a multi-tenancy system. On my test company (testcompany) if I browse to http://crm/testcompany/isv/MyProject/MyPage.aspx, the page is loaded (without styles and images). If I browse to http://crm/testcompany/isv/MyProject/TestImage.gif, the image is not shown. If I browse to http://crm/isv/MyProject/TestImage.gif, the image is shown. Does this suggest a problem with the server setup and the way CRM messes around with virtual directories?

    Read the article

  • How can I bind a javascript dialog using Knockout?

    - by Brian
    I've got a list of data in an observableArray and I want to show it in a javascript dialog window (I'm using jQuery.blockUI if it matters). Unfortunately the dialog seems to come unbound after the page is loaded. The dialog initializes correctly (the data is displayed), but it isn't updating with changes. There are no Javascript errors and I've moved the binding to after the dialog is generated and added to the document (no effect). I've also tried calling ko.applyBinding on the main div that makes up the dialog but that, for some reason, causes part of the main page to hide (the DOM is there, but they are hidden). EDIT: I've created a project on jsfiddle that reproduces the problem. The main culprit seems to be wrapping the content of the dialog in a div. If I show the content directly it seems to work (of course I can't do that, the wrappers provide a common style for our dialogs). I'm recovering from the flu and could easily be missing something obvious, but I've been trying all day and nothing is coming to me. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Beginning Haskell: "not in scope" Unprecedented error

    - by user1071838
    So I just started learning Haskell, and this (http://learnyouahaskell.com) nifty book is giving a lot of help. So yesterday I wrote in a text file doubleMe x = x + x and saved it as double.hs. So after saving that I open up my command prompt, CD to the right folder, type in "ghci" to get haskell started, and then type in >doubleMe 5 10 and everything seems to work. Now today, I do the same thing and this happens (actual copy paste from command line) . . . C:\Users\myName\haskell>ghci GHCi, version 7.0.3: http://www.haskell.org/ghc/ :? for help Loading package ghc-prim ... linking ... done. Loading package integer-gmp ... linking ... done. Loading package base ... linking ... done. Loading package ffi-1.0 ... linking ... done. Prelude> :l double.hs [1 of 1] Compiling Main ( double.hs, interpreted ) Ok, modules loaded: Main. *Main> doubleMe 5 <interactive>:1:1: Not in scope: `doubleMe' So basically, everything was working fine, but now haskell can't find the function I wrote in double.hs. Can anyone tell what is going on? I'm pretty lost and confused. This is just a guess but does it have to do with *Main at all? Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • MVC : Checkboxes generated using JavaScript not appearing in FormCollection on postback

    - by Andy Evans
    I took over another project (written by one contractor, modified by another and now it's not working) written using MVC/C# where a view that has a table (see below) is dynamically populated using JSON/Javascript - the first column of which is a checkbox. View (spark view engine) <table id='component_list' name='component_list' cellpadding='0' border='0' cellspacing='0'> <thead> <tr> <th>&nbsp;</th> <th>Component</th> <th>Component Type</th> <th>Evenflo Part #</th> <th>Supplier Part #</th> <th>Supplier</th> <th>Requirement</th> <th>Location</th> <th>Region</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> </tbody> </table> When the page is rendered, I look at the source for the page and do not see the table data (I wouldn't expect to see this). However, when the form is posted back, controller, the FormCollection is empty. Supposedly this had been working before the last contractor got their hands on it - which is another post all together. My goal right now is having the checkboxes in the FormCollection. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

    - by brady
    I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

    Read the article

  • What is the Proper approach for Constructing a PhysicalAddress object from Byte Array

    - by Paul Farry
    I'm trying to understand what the correct approach for a constructor that accepts a Byte Array with regard to how it stores it's data (specifically with PhysicalAddress) I have an array of 6 bytes (theAddress) that is constructed once. I have a source array of 18bytes (theAddresses) that is loaded from a TCP Connection. I then copy the 6bytes from theAddress+offset into theAddress and construct the PhysicalAddress from it. Problem is that the PhysicalAddress just stores the Reference to the array that was passed in. Therefore if you subsequently check the addresses they only ever point to the last address that was copied in. When I took a look inside the PhysicalAddress with reflector it's easy to see what's going on. public PhysicalAddress(byte[] address) { this.changed = true; this.address = address; } Now I know this can be solved by creating theAddress array on each pass, but I wanted to find out what really is the best practice for this. Should the constructor of an object that accepts a byte array create it's own private Variable for holding the data and copy it from the original Should it just hold the reference to what was passed in. Should I just created theAddress on each pass in the loop

    Read the article

  • Javascript force GC collection? / Forcefully free object?

    - by plash
    I have a js function for playing any given sound using the Audio interface (creating a new instance for every call). This works quite well, until about the 32nd call (sometimes less). This issue is directly related to the release of the Audio instance. I know this because I've allowed time for the GC in Chromium to run and it will allow me to play another 32 or so sounds again. Here's an example of what I'm doing: <html><head> <script language="javascript"> function playSound(url) { snd = new Audio(url); snd.play(); delete snd; snd = null; } </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" onclick="playSound('blah.mp3');">Play sound</a> </body></html> I also have this, which works well for pages that have less than 32 playSound calls: var AudioPlayer = { cache: {}, play: function(url) { if (!AudioPlayer.cache[url]) AudioPlayer.cache[url] = new Audio(url); AudioPlayer.cache[url].play(); } }; But this will not work for what I want to do (dynamically replace a div with other content (from separate files), which have even more sounds on them - 1. memory usage would easily skyrocket, 2. many sounds will never play). I need a way to release the sound immediately. Is it possible to do this? I have found no free/close/unload method for the Audio interface. The pages will be viewed locally, so the constant loading of sounds is not a big factor at all (and most sounds are rather short).

    Read the article

  • Passing a var as an argument

    - by Lienau
    On a site I'm making I need to have a progress bar, I found one that suited my needs. By default it will incrementally change the color when a certain percentage is reached (0-30 red, 30-70 orange, etc). My only problem is changing them, I can set them easily with a static number such as 50, but when I try to do it dynamically (ie: 2000*.3 = 600) it fails. I don't know much js/jquery so this is especially difficult for me, if you could help that would be great. I'm pretty sure it's something really simple I'm missing. The code that Fails: var barmax = 2000; var orangeBound = Math.round(barmax * .3); var greenBound = Math.round(barmax * .7); //alert(orangeBound+":"+greenBound); $("#pb1").progressBar({ max: barmax, textFormat: 'fraction', barImage: { 0: 'images/progressbg_red.gif', orangeBound: 'images/progressbg_orange.gif', greenBound: 'images/progressbg_green.gif'} }); The code that works but I can't use because it has to be dynamic: $("#pb1").progressBar({ max: barmax, textFormat: 'fraction', barImage: { 0: 'images/progressbg_red.gif', 600: 'images/progressbg_orange.gif', 1400: 'images/progressbg_green.gif'} }); If you need to see the source, here. Thanks again!

    Read the article

  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

    Read the article

  • jquery ajax html response change 1.3.2 vs 1.4.2 (aka where is my script tag?)

    - by cmroanirgo
    I've been using jquery 1.3.2 to pull snippets of html (including script) from a server. A typical response might be: <div id="content"<div id="inner"... <script type=... alert("hello world");</script <pHello World</p </div</div I've been using the query .get function: $.get($(this).attr("href"), function(response) { $("#inner").replaceWith($("#inner", response)); }); And everything is fine and works as expected: the returned html snippets get loaded into the DOM and the scripts run. When I use 1.4.2 however, I notice that the script tags have been removed and no longer run. Stepping into the newer jquery codebase yields the lines of code (line 4498) : ret.splice.apply( ret, [i + 1, 0].concat(jQuery.makeArray(ret[i].getElementsByTagName("script"))) ); which seems to be the culprit 'removing' the script from its happy resting place as part of the selector process. But it doesn't help me in injecting exactly what i want into the DOM. Any idea why jquery is doing this? More importantly, how can I go about fixing this so that my scripts run?

    Read the article

  • How to pass dynamic parameters to .pde file

    - by Kalpana
    class Shape contains two methods drawCircle() and drawTriangle(). Each function takes different set of arguments. At present, I invoke this by calling the pde file directly. How to pass these arguments from a HTML file directly if I have to control the arguments being passed to the draw function? 1) Example.html has (current version) <script src="processing-1.0.0.min.js"></script> <canvas data-processing-sources="example.pde"></canvas> 2) Example.pde has class Shape { void drawCircle(intx, int y, int radius) { ellipse(x, y, radius, radius); } void drawTriangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2, int x3, int y3) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2, x3, y3); } } Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 40, 70); I am looking to do something like this in my HTML file, so that I can move all the functions into a separate file and call them with different arguments to draw different shapes (much similar to how you would do it in Java) A.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 10, 3); </script> B.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawTriangle(30, 75, 58, 20, 86, 75); </script> 2) Iam using Example2.pde has void setup() { size(200,200); background(125); fill(255); } void rectangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2); } My Example2.html has var processingInstance; processingInstance.rectangle(30, 20, 55, 55); but this is not working. How to pass these parameters dynamically from html.

    Read the article

  • Problem Loading multiple textures using multiple shaders with GLSL

    - by paj777
    I am trying to use multiple textures in the same scene but no matter what I try the same texture is loaded for each object. So this what I am doing at the moment, I initialise each shader: rightWall.SendShaders("wall.vert","wall.frag","brick3.bmp", "wallTex", 0); demoFloor.SendShaders("floor.vert","floor.frag","dirt1.bmp", "floorTex", 1); The code in SendShaders is: GLuint vert,frag; glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); char *vs = NULL,*fs = NULL; vert = glCreateShader(GL_VERTEX_SHADER); frag = glCreateShader(GL_FRAGMENT_SHADER); vs = textFileRead(vertFile); fs = textFileRead(fragFile); const char * ff = fs; const char * vv = vs; glShaderSource(vert, 1, &vv, NULL); glShaderSource(frag, 1, &ff, NULL); free(vs); free(fs); glCompileShader(vert); glCompileShader(frag); program = glCreateProgram(); glAttachShader(program, frag); glAttachShader(program, vert); glLinkProgram(program); glUseProgram(program); LoadGLTexture(textureImage, texture); GLint location = glGetUniformLocation(program, textureName); glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texture); glUniform1i(location, 0); And then in the main loop: rightWall.UseShader(); rightWall.Draw(); demoFloor.UseShader(); demoFloor.Draw(); Which ever shader is initialised last is the texture which is used for both objects. Thank you for your time and I appreciate any comments.

    Read the article

  • C# app running as either Windows Form or as Console Application

    - by Aeolien
    I am looking to have one of my Windows Forms applications be run programmatically—from the command line. In preparation, I have separated the logic in its own class from the Form. Now I am stuck trying to get the application to switch back and forth based on the presence of command line arguments. Here is the code for the main class: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [STAThread] static void Main() { string[] args = Environment.GetCommandLineArgs(); if (args.Length > 1) // gets passed its path, by default { CommandLineWork(args); return; } Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } private static void CommandLineWork(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("It works!"); Console.ReadLine(); } where Form1 is my form and the It works! string is just a placeholder for the actual logic. Right now, when running this from within Visual Studio (with command line arguments), the phrase It works! is printed to the Output. However, when running the /bin/Debug/Program.exe file (or /Release for that matter) the application crashes. Am I going about this the right way? Would it make more sense (i.e. take less developer time) to have my logic class be a DLL that gets loaded by two separate applications? Or is there something entirely different that I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Linking to an item in another node (XSLT)

    - by Andrew Parisi
    I have an XML document with companies listed in it. I want to create a link with XSLT that contains the <link> child of the next node. Sorry if this is confusing..here is some sample XML of what i'm trying to obtain: <portfolio> <company> <name>Dano Industries</name> <link>dano.xml</link> </company> <company> <name>Mike and Co.</name> <link>mike.xml</link> </company> <company> <name>Steve Inc.</name> <link>steve.xml</link> </company> </portfolio> I want two links, "BACK" and "NEXT". While currently on mike.xml, I want BACK to link to "dano.xml" and NEXT linked to "steve.xml"...etc..and have it dynamically change when on a different page based on the nodes around it. I want to do this because I may add and change the list as I go along, so I don't want to have to manually re-link everything. How can I obtain this? Sorry I am new to XSLT, so please explain with solution if possible! Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >