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• How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

  - by Milan Babuškov

  I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

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• cython setup.py gives .o instead of .dll

  - by alok1974

  Hi, I am a newbie to cython, so pardon me if I am missing something obvious here. I am trying to build c extensions to be used in python for enhanced performance. I have fc.py module with a bunch of function and trying to generate a .dll through cython using dsutils and running on win64: c:\python26\python c:\cythontest\setup.py build_ext --inplace I have the dsutils.cfg in C:\Python26\Lib\distutils. As required the disutils.cfg has the following config settings: [build] compiler = mingw32 My startup.py looks like this: from distutils.core import setup from distutils.extension import Extension from Cython.Distutils import build_ext ext_modules = [Extension('fc', [r'C:\cythonTest\fc.pyx'])] setup( name = 'FC Extensions', cmdclass = {'build_ext': build_ext}, ext_modules = ext_modules ) I have latest version mingw for target/host amdwin64 type builds. I have the latest version of cython for python26 for win64. Cython does give me an fc.c without errors, only a few warning for type conversions, which I will handle once I have it right. Further it produces fc.def an fc.o files Instead of giving a .dll. I get no errors. I find on threads that it will create the .so or .dll automatically as required, which is not happening.

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• How do you use indent in vim for web development?

  - by Somebody still uses you MS-DOS

  I'm starting to use Linux and Vim at work. I'm starting to read vims documentation and creating my own .vimrc file and such. I'm a web developer working with HTML, XML, CSS, JS, Python, PHP, ZPT, DTML and SQL. I would like to have an indent feature like this one: for each language/set, a corresponding indent solution. So, in js, writing function test(){|} would turn in function test(){ | } If php, writing <?php function test(){|}: <?php function test(){ | } <?php> ...and such. Writing a function definition in Python, and then creating a for loop sentece, it would automatically create an indent. I'm starting with autoindent, smartindent, cindent but I'm a little confused about their differences. How do the indent in vim works? Am I supposed to download plugins for each language? Is the behavior I described possible with already existing plugins you're used to or do I have to create it? I keep seeing people using Vim and I'm trying to do this as well since the machine I'm using is too limited, but I'm afraid I won't be able to have a decent auto indenting solution in it. (I have used autoindenting in a little small project in Visual Studio, and really liked their approach. Is there a plugin for that?)

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• Restoring dev db from production: Running a set of SQL scripts based on a list stored in a table?

  - by mattley

  I need to restore a backup from a production database and then automatically reapply SQL scripts (e.g. ALTER TABLE, INSERT, etc) to bring that db schema back to what was under development. There will be lots of scripts, from a handful of different developers. They won't all be in the same directory. My current plan is to list the scripts with the full filesystem path in table in a psuedo-system database. Then create a stored procedure in this database which will first run RESTORE DATABASE and then run a cursor over the list of scripts, creating a command string for SQLCMD for each script, and then executing that SQLCMD string for each script using xp_cmdshell. The sequence of cursor-sqlstring-xp_cmdshell-sqlcmd feels clumsy to me. Also, it requires turning on xp_cmdshell. I can't be the only one who has done something like this. Is there a cleaner way to run a set of scripts that are scattered around the filesystem on the server? Especially, a way that doesn't require xp_cmdshell?

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• Binding value for NSTableView, but tooltip gets set as well

  - by Mark

  I've set up an NSTableView in Interface Builder to be populated from an NSArray. Each value of the array represents one row in the table. The value is bound correctly, but as a side effect, the table cell's tooltip is set to the string representation of the bound object. In my case, the NSArray contains NSDictiorany objects and the tooltip looks like it could be the [... description] output of that dictionary. Very ugly... I don't want the tooltip to be set at all. I have other tables that have plain NSString values bound to them and they don't have a tooltip set automatically. Is there some Interface Builder magic going on? I tried to start with a blank project - same problem. I should add that the table cell is a custom implementation of NSTextFieldCell that uses an NSButtonCell instance to draw an image and a label into the table. The values are retrieved from the dictionary bound as value. Why is the tooltip set when I only bind the "value" attribute? Thanks in advance!

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• Default entries on a first time creation for a serialized class

  - by MGSoto

  I have a class I am using for serializing various configuration options for an application I am working on. I'm adding a new property to the class that is a List, and I'd like it to fill this list if it does not exist already in a XML file. My first thought was to check if the list contained zero items, however this is not acceptable because there are times I want to have zero items in the list. In essence I want a file that has been serialized with an older version of the same class to be "upgraded" and have defaults automatically inserted for new properties. How can I do this? For a more visual example of what I'm trying to do, see below: When I deserialize an XML file that contains: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> and after I've added a list property it will serialze as: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3/> I want it to serialize as: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3> <DefaultSubItem/ Field="wtfe"> <DefaultSubItem/ Field="wtfe"> </Item3> But allow me to change it to: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3></Item3>

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• NSFetchedResultsController on secondary UITableView - how to query data?

  - by Jason

  I am creating a core-data based Navigation iPhone app with multiple screens. Let's say it is a flash-card application. The data model is very simple, with only two entities: Language, and CardSet. There is a one-to-many relationship between the Language entity and the CardSet entities, so each Language may contain multiple CardSets. In other words, Language has a one-to-many relationship Language.cardSets which points to the list of CardSets, and CardSet has a relationship CardSet.language which points to the Language. There are two screens: (1) An initial TableView screen, which displays the list of languages; and (2) a secondary TableView screen, which displays the list of CardSets in the Language. In the initial screen, which lists the languages, I am using NSFetchedResultsController to keep the list of languages up-to-date. The screen passes the Language selected to the secondary screen. On the secondary screen, I am trying to figure out whether I should again use an NSFetchedResultsController to maintain the list of CardSets, or if I should work through Language.cardSets to simply pull the list out of the object model. The latter makes the most sense programatically because I already have the Language - but then it would not automatically be updated on changes. I have looked at the NSFetchedResultsController documentation, and it seems like I can easily create predicates based on attributes - but not relationships. I.e., I can create the following NSFetchedResultsController: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"name LIKE[c] 'Chuck Norris'"]; How can I access my data through the direct relationship - Language.cardSets - and also have the table auto-update using NSFetchedResultsController? Is this possible?

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• Replace string with incremented value

  - by Andrei

  Hello, I'm trying to write a CSS parser to automatically dispatch URLs in background images to different subdomains in order to parallelize downloads. Basically, I want to replace things like url(/assets/some-background-image.png) with url(http://assets[increment].domain.com/assets/some-background-image.png) I'm using this inside a class that I eventually want to evolve into doing various CSS parsing tasks. Here are the relevant parts of the class : private function parallelizeDownloads(){ static $counter = 1; $newURL = "url(http://assets".$counter.".domain.com"; The counter needs to be reset when it reaches 4 in order to limit to 4 subdomains. if ($counter == 4) { $counter = 1; } $counter ++; return $newURL; } public function replaceURLs() { This is mostly nonsense, but I know the code I'm looking for looks somewhat like this. Note : $this-css contains the CSS string. preg_match("/url/i",$this->css,$match); foreach($match as $URL) { $newURL = self::parallelizeDownloads(); $this->css = str_replace($match, $newURL,$this->css); } }

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• Ant: simplest way to copy over a relative list of files

  - by Derek Illchuk

  Using Ant, I want to copy a list of files from one project to another, where each project has the same directory structure. Is there a way to get the following to work? <project name="WordSlug" default="pull" basedir="."> <description> WordSlug: pull needed files </description> <property name="prontiso_home" location="../../prontiso/trunk"/> <!-- I know this doesn't work, what's the missing piece? --> <target name="pull" description="Pull needed files"> <copy todir="." overwrite="true"> <resources> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml"/> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php"/> <!-- etc. --> </resources> </copy> </target> </project> Success is deriving the paths automatically: ${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml copied to ./application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml ${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php copied to ./application/controllers/CacheController.php Thanks!

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• Creating a Contact form in Visual Studio ASPX and saving to an XML file when clicking SUBMIT

  - by user327137

  hey people hope all is well.. i am trying to create a form in VS using ASP that when upon submitting a form the details will get automatically stored in an xml file which can be accessed later on a chosen file save path i have 2 files ... "Contact.aspx" and "Contact.aspx.vb" i have created the form in the "Contact.aspx" and when trying to enter the fields in the "contact.aspx.vb" i keep getting several errors such as for example... Error 5 'Formatting' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder' Error 6 'WriteStartDocument' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 7 'WriteComment' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 8 'WriteStartElement' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 10 'WriteAttributeString' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. there is like 30 errors in total... im literally stuck out my head been trying for 2 days now and can't grasp what im doing wrong ive tried even some of the tutorials online but loads of errors... hope some1 can fix this thank you

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• How can I prevent text displacement for some foreign language fonts?

  - by weltraumpirat

  I have a multilingual project (currently 13 languages), which uses many different font variations of "Helvetica Neue", mostly bold, condensed and regular cuts from the LinoType Pro font set ( which includes western european characters) and the same for cyrillic. We will probably add chinese and japanese variations in the future. I have set up the project to use different CSS stylesheets and separately load the fonts for each version, depending on which language the user selects, so I can have different line heights, kerning and/or font sizes to make everything keep the original look, even if the fonts look nothing alike. All of this works well, except for one problem: For some reason, all cyrillic letters seem to be displaced. They appear 2-3 pixels below the correct base line, and actually protrude across the textfield's bottom border, even when the field is set to autosize. When I use textfield.getCharBoundaries(), all values seem to be correct, even though they obviously aren't rendered correctly. To make everything look neat, I could of course manually move all problematic textfields up or down according to language and font size, but I was wondering if there was some way to prevent or at least detect this kind of displacement in order to automatically handle the adjustments - the Flash Player should have some sort of information on how things are rendered, shouldn't it? Have any of you had similar problems? Or better yet: a solution?

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• NSFetchedResultsController didn't return data

  - by Dmitry Kochkin

  Hello! I get stuck in some problem and after 2 days of seeking I've found solution but didn't get idea why does it work. First, I'm initialized NSFetchedResultsController using following code (it look like a lot of automatically generated): - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) return fetchedResultsController; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Profile" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; [fetchRequest setFetchBatchSize:20]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"lastName" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; NSError *error = nil; //[aFetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } Have a look at commented string - there wasn't any of these strings and when I asked for data - I didn't get any (and it was there!). When I've uncommented that line, it starts work. Seems evident, but all examples I saw before hadn't that line. And they work. How can it be? I just want to know what am I doing wrong.

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• Would an immutable keyword in Java be a good idea?

  - by berry120

  Generally speaking, the more I use immutable objects in Java the more I'm thinking they're a great idea. They've got lots of advantages from automatically being thread-safe to not needing to worry about cloning or copy constructors. This has got me thinking, would an "immutable" keyword go amiss? Obviously there's the disadvantages with adding another reserved word to the language, and I doubt it will actually happen primarily for the above reason - but ignoring that I can't really see many disadvantages. At present great care has to be taken to make sure objects are immutable, and even then a dodgy javadoc comment claiming a component object is immutable when it's in fact not can wreck the whole thing. There's also the argument that even basic objects like string aren't truly immutable because they're easily vunerable to reflection attacks. If we had an immutable keyword the compiler could surely recursively check and give an iron clad guarantee that all instances of a class were immutable, something that can't presently be done. Especially with concurrency becoming more and more used, I personally think it'd be good to add a keyword to this effect. But are there any disadvantages or implementation details I'm missing that makes this a bad idea?

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• need help with mvc & routes

  - by geoff

  I'm very new to MVC and I'm trying to get a new site set up using it. For SEO reasons we need to make the url of a page something like "Recruiter/4359/John_Smith" or basically {controller}/{id}/{name}. I have that working when I create the url in the code behind like so... //r is a recruiter object that is part of the results for the view r.Summary = searchResult.Summary + "... &lt;a href=\"/Recruiter/" + r.Id + "/" + r.FirstName + "_" + r.LastName + "\"&gt;Read More&lt;/a&gt;" But when I am using the collection of results from a search in my view and iterating through them I am trying to create another link to the same page doing something like <%=Html.ActionLink<RecruiterController>(x => x.Detail((int)r.Id), r.RecruiterName)%> but that doesn't work. When I use that code in the view it gives me a url in the form of /Recruiter/Detail/4359 I was told by a coworker that I should use the Html.ActionLink to create the link in both the view and the controller so that if the route changes in the future it will automatically work. Unfortunately he wasn't sure how to do that in this case. So, my problems are... How can I make the Html.ActionLink work in the view to create a url like I need (like r.Summary above)? How do I use the Html.ActionLink in a controller instead of hardcoding the link like I have above?

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• How to wrap a C function whose parameters are pointer to structs, so that it can be called from Lua?

  - by pierr

  I have the follwing C function. How should I wrap it so it can be called from a Lua script? typedef struct tagT{ int a ; int b ; } type_t; int lib_a_f_4(type_t *t) { return t->a * t->b ; } I know how to wrapr it if the function parameter type were int or char *. Should I use table type for a C structure? EDIT: I am using SWIG for the wraping , according to this doc, It seems that I should automatically have this funtion new_type_t(2,3) , but it is not the case. If you wrap a C structure, it is also mapped to a Lua userdata. By adding a metatable to the userdata, this provides a very natural interface. For example, struct Point{ int x,y; }; is used as follows: p=example.new_Point() p.x=3 p.y=5 print(p.x,p.y) 3 5 Similar access is provided for unions and the data members of C++ classes. C structures are created using a function new_Point(), but for C++ classes are created using just the name Point().

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• Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

  - by colithium

  Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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• overwrite parameters passed by querystring

  - by opensas

  I have the following problem I have a web framework built with classic asp that saves the page state in hidden textboxes, and then issues a submit to itself. Before submitting, we have a javascript functions that saves the action in a hidden "action" input, and then performs the submit. The page loads the state from those hidden texts, reads the action issued, reads extra parameters, like the id of the record to edit, and then builds the page accordingly. I'd like to make a url link to automatically start the page with "edit" action on a "x" id. So I was thinking about building the following url, for example http://myapp/user?action=edit&id=23 the problem is that when the page auto-submits, que url string keeps the parameters. I'd like to achieve the following: when the user clicks on http://myapp/user?action=edit&id=23 my page should receive the posted values action=edit and id=23 but the url should be just http://myapp/user and both parameters should be kept in the hidden texts... (I wonder if I make myself clear...) thanks a lot saludos sas ps: I have a couple of ideas about how to solve it, but I'll post them as answers...

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• Convert a image to a monochrome byte array

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I am writing a library to interface C# with the EPL2 printer language. One feature I would like to try to implement is printing images, the specification doc says p1 = Width of graphic Width of graphic in bytes. Eight (8) dots = one (1) byte of data. p2 = Length of graphic Length of graphic in dots (or print lines) Data = Raw binary data without graphic file formatting. Data must be in bytes. Multiply the width in bytes (p1) by the number of print lines (p2) for the total amount of graphic data. The printer automatically calculates the exact size of the data block based upon this formula. I plan on my source image being a 1 bit per pixel bmp file, already scaled to size. I just don't know how to get it from that format in to a byte[] for me to send off to the printer. I tried ImageConverter.ConvertTo(Object, Type) it succeeds but the array it outputs is not the correct size and the documentation is very lacking on how the output is formatted. My current test code. Bitmap i = (Bitmap)Bitmap.FromFile("test.bmp"); ImageConverter ic = new ImageConverter(); byte[] b = (byte[])ic.ConvertTo(i, typeof(byte[])); Any help is greatly appreciated even if it is in a totally different direction.

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• iOS 7: Best way to implement an textview that presents previous input but is easy to clear

  - by Frank R.

  I'm porting a Mac app to the iPhone and I've run into an unexpected problem. On the Mac there's a text field that is automatically pre-selected (= first responder) when a dialog shows up. The text field shows the text you entered in the field the last time and the text is pre-selected so that if you just start typing it gets cleared away. If you want to edit the existing text instead you just hit the forwards or backwards arrow. On the iPhone this behavior seems very hard to implement. The text view shows up with the old text and I can even get it to pre-select but whatever I do the result is not quite right. When I use [aTextView setMarkedText: myText selectedRange: newRange]; the text does show up as marked and if I just start typing the old text goes away. However there's no equivalent to the cursor keys on iOS, so I cannot NOT erase the text.. which is hardly the point. What kind of iOS idiom would be appropriate for giving the option to either edit or overwrite existing text? Best regards, Frank

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• Unable to retrieve search results from server side : Facebook Graph API usig Python

  - by DjangoRocks

  Hi all, I'm doing some simple Python + FB Graph training on my own, and I faced a weird problem: import time import sys import urllib2 import urllib from json import loads base_url = "https://graph.facebook.com/search?q=" post_id = None post_type = None user_id = None message = None created_time = None def doit(hour): page = 1 search_term = "\"Plastic Planet\"" encoded_search_term = urllib.quote(search_term) print encoded_search_term type="&type=post" url = "%s%s%s" % (base_url,encoded_search_term,type) print url while(1): try: response = urllib2.urlopen(url) except urllib2.HTTPError, e: print e finally: pass content = response.read() content = loads(content) print "==================================" for c in content["data"]: print c print "****************************************" try: content["paging"] print "current URL" print url print "next page!------------" url = content["paging"]["next"] print url except: pass finally: pass """ print "new URL is =======================" print url print "==================================" """ print url What I'm trying to do here is to automatically page through the search results, but trying for content["paging"]["next"] But the weird thing is that no data is returned; i received the following: {"data":[]} Even in the very first loop. But when i copied the URL into a browser, a lot of results were returned. I've also tried a version with my access token and th same thing happens. Can anyone enlighten me? +++++++++++++++++++EDITED and SIMPLIFIED++++++++++++++++++ ok thanks to TryPyPy, here's the simplified and edited version of my previous question: Why is that: import urllib2 url = "https://graph.facebook.com/searchq=%22Plastic+Planet%22&type=post&limit=25&until=2010-12-29T19%3A54%3A56%2B0000" response = urllib2.urlopen(url) print response.read() result in {"data":[]} ? But the same url produces a lot of data in a browser? Anyone? Best Regards.

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• using .append to build a complex menu

  - by gneandr

  To build a menu block which should be switchable with hide/unhide of the menu items, I'm using .append html. The code idea is this: navigat += '<h3 class="infoH3"> <a id="' + menuID +'"' + ' href="javascript:slideMenu(\'' + menuSlider + '\');">' + menuName + '</a></h3>'; navigat += '<div id="' + menuSlider + '" style="display:none">'; navigat += ' <ul>'; navigat += ' <li>aMenu1</li>' navigat += ' <li>aMenu2</li>' navigat += ' <li>aMenu3</li>' navigat += ' </ul>'; navigat += '<!-- menuName Slider --></div>'; $("#someElement").append (navigat); This is doing well .. so far. But the point is:: I use JS to read the required menu items (eg. 'aMenu1' together with title and/or link info) from a file to build all that, eg. for 'aMenu1' a complex is composed and $("#someElement").append(someString) is used to add that the 'someElement'. At the moment I build those html elements line by line. Also OK .. as far as the resulting string has the opening and closing tag, eg. "<li>aMenu2</li>". As can be seen from above posted code there is a line "<div id="' + menuSlider + '" style="display:none">". Appending that -- AFAIS -- the .append is automatically (????) adding "</div>" which closes the statement. That breaks my idea of the whole concept! The menu part isn't included in the 'menuSlider '. QQ: How to change it -- NOT to have that "</div" added to it?? Günter

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• How to catch non exist requested URL in Java servlet ?

  - by Frank

  My objects are stored online in two different places : <1 On my nmjava.com site, where I can put them in a directory called "Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/" <2 On Google App Engine datastore When my Java app runs it checks both places for the objects, I designed the app so that it tries to get an object from a Url, it doesn't care whether it's an object in a directory or an object returned by a servlet. My_Object Get_Object(String Site_Url,String Object_Path) { ... get object by the name of Object_Path from the Site_Url ... } Now the request Url for my web site nmjava.com might look like this : http://nmjava.com/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 [ In a directory ] Or in the case of Google App Engine servlet : http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 [ Non exist ] The "Object_Path" was generated by my app automatically. It can now get the object from my site by the above method like this : My_Object Get_Object("http://nmjava.com","/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123"); In the Google App Engine, my servlet is running and ready to serve the object, if the request comes in correctly, but since I don't want to design my app to know whether the object is in one site's directory or in other site's datastore, I need to design the servlet to catch the non exist Url, such as the one above, and be able to make a call : My_Object Get_Object("http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License","/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123"); So my question is : When a request comes into the servlet with a non exist Url, how should it catch it and analyze the url in order to respond properly, in my case it should know that : http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 is asking for the object "My_Obj_123" [ ignore the dirs ] and return the object from the datastore. Now I'm getting this : Error: Not Found The requested URL /Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 was not found on this server. Where in my servlet and how do I detect the request for this non exist Url ?

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• do not allow integrated windows authentication *for one of the domains*

  - by MK

  We have an ASP.NET web application which uses integrated windows authentication. It is accessed by users from two domains, A and B. A is the primary domain and B is an older domain which is going away. Web application is authenticating users using a group policy which only exists in domain A. Every user in domain B has an account in domain A. The application lives in domain A. There was no trust between the domains. So users from domain A would get silently authenticated and logged into the site. Users from domain B didn't get authenticated automatically and were prompted with the IE popup, to which they authenticated using their domain A credentials and everything worked. Now somebody has set up a trust between the domains and users from domain B get authenticated silently to IIS, and then their login fails (no group policy). So the question is: can I either programmatically or in IIS configuration make it so that users from domain B still get prompted even though there is trust between the domains? Is there a way to tell the server where IIS is running to ignore the trust relationship maybe?

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• Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

  - by Stephen

  Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

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• Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

  - by Brian

  Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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