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  • BinaryFormatter in C# a good way to read files?

    - by mr-pac
    I want to read a binary file which was created outside of my program. One obvious way in C# to read a binary file is to define class representing the file and then use a BinaryReader and read from the file via the Read* methods and assign the return values to the class properties. What I don't like with the approach is that I manually have to write code that reads the file, although the defined structure represents how the file is stored. I also have to keep the order correct when I read. After looking a bit around I came across the BinaryFormatter which can automatically serialize and deserialze object in binary format. One great advantage would be that I can read and also write the file without creating additional code. However I wonder if this approach is good for files created from other programs on not just serialized .NET objects. Take for example a graphics format file like BMP. Would it be a good idea to read the file with a BinaryFormatter or is it better to manually and write via BinaryReader and BinaryWriter? Or are there any other approaches which suit better? I'am not looking for concrete examples but just for an advice what is the best way to implement that.

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  • Setting up magic routes for plugins in CakePHP 1.3?

    - by Matt Huggins
    I'm working on upgrading my project from CakePHP 1.2 to 1.3. In the process, it seems that the "magic" routing for plugins by which a controller name (e.g.: "ForumsController") matching the plugin name (e.g.: "forums") no longer automatically routes to the root of the plugin URL (e.g.: "www.example.com/forums" pointing to plugin "forums", controller "forums", action "index"). The error message given is as follows: Error: ForumsController could not be found. Error: Create the class ForumsController below in file: app/controllers/forums_controller.php <?php class ForumsController extends AppController { var $name = 'Forums'; } ?> In fact, even if I navigate to "www.example.com/forums/forums" or "www.example.com/forums/forums/index", I get the same exact error. Do I need to explicitly set up routes to every single plugin I use? This seems to destroy a lot of the magic I like about CakePHP. I've only found that doing the following works: Router::connect('/forums/:action/*', array('plugin' => 'forums', 'controller' => 'forums')); Router::connect('/forums', array('plugin' => 'forums', 'controller' => 'forums', 'action' => 'index')); Setting up 2 routes for every single plugin seems like overkill, does it not? Is there a better solution that will cover all my plugins, or at least reduce the number of routes I need to set up for each plugin?

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  • Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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  • Automated test, build and deploy

    - by mike79
    I have visual studio team suite 2008. I was unable to meet the requirements to setup TFS, so I'm using TortoiseSvn and VisualSvn as my version contol in VSTS. I need the system setup to do the following: I neeed to be able to create and track workitems. When updates are made to the current project worked on in VSTS, the updates will be commited back to version control. Tests will be run to see that updates don't break the application. If there's a problem with the update it will be reported back to the developer. If there's no problem with the app, which is a clickonce application, it will automatically be built and deployed to an ftp server. I've never worked with version control, build servers, automated testing and continous intergration. I need to know what needs to be put in place for this type of system. I don't know which combination/stack I should be using: CC.net, TeamCity, Hudson, NAnt, NUnit, MsTest, Trac, BugTracker.net, Ndepend, VisualSvn Server, Perforce, Msdeploy, SCM. I want something that is free/opensource and relatively easy to setup and use. Please suggest a setup that will fit my needs. Any help appreciated

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  • Is it possible to disable/bypass the login popup caused by mod_auth_ntlm_winbind (Single Sign On) an

    - by cvack
    I have an intranet on a remote Web server. This will be integrated with Active Directory on our local server. The web server is running Apache / Linux and the AD server is running Windows 2003. This is all done with VPN. Login to the intranet is conducted in two ways: 1. Users who are logged in to AD to be logged in automatically with SSO. 2. Users who are NOT logged in to AD to be logged in using a common login form. In order to auto login (SSO) I use mod_auth_ntlm_winbind. The problem here is that the users not logged in to AD will get a popup box where they must enter their DOMAIN/username + AD password. If I disable this popup, there is no way to get $_SERVER['REMOTE_USER'] Then my question: Is it possible to turn off this popup box and still get the REMOTE_USER? Or: If possible, can I use AJAX to check if http://my-intranet/auth returns 401 error (non-AD users). If so, do not go to the /auth folder.

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  • What's so bad about building XML with string concatenation?

    - by wsanville
    In the thread What’s your favorite “programmer ignorance” pet peeve?, the following answer appears, with a large amount of upvotes: Programmers who build XML using string concatenation. My question is, why is building XML via string concatenation (such as a StringBuilder in C#) bad? I've done this several times in the past, as it's sometimes the quickest way for me to get from point A to point B when to comes to the data structures/objects I'm working with. So far, I have come up with a few reasons why this isn't the greatest approach, but is there something I'm overlooking? Why should this be avoided? Probably the biggest reason I can think of is you need to escape your strings manually, and most programmers will forget this. It will work great for them when they test it, but then "randomly" their apps will fail when someone throws an & symbol in their input somewhere. Ok, I'll buy this, but it's really easy to prevent the problem (SecurityElement.Escape to name one). When I do this, I usually omit the XML declaration (i.e. <?xml version="1.0"?>). Is this harmful? Performance penalties? If you stick with proper string concatenation (i.e. StringBuilder), is this anything to be concerned about? Presumably, a class like XmlWriter will also need to do a bit of string manipulation... There are more elegant ways of generating XML, such as using XmlSerializer to automatically serialize/deserialize your classes. Ok sure, I agree. C# has a ton of useful classes for this, but sometimes I don't want to make a class for something really quick, like writing out a log file or something. Is this just me being lazy? If I am doing something "real" this is my preferred approach for dealing w/ XML.

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  • Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

    - by Nishchay Sharma
    I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

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  • Logging in to website with saved username and password

    - by DGund
    One of the functions of an app I am making involves logging the user into our Campus Portal website. For ease of use, the user may enter a username and password into the app once, and it will be saved for all future log-ins. When the user clicks a button, the information will automatically be sent to log in, and the website will be displayed in a UIWebView. Let us say that the username and password are each stored in an NSString. How can I use this data to log in to this website programmatically and display the page it in a UIWebView? I know little about posting and forms, so any help is appreciated. Would something like this Stackoverflow answer help? Here's the shell of my code for this - (IBAction)btnGo:(id)sender { username = usernameField.text; password = passwordField.text; if (saveSwitch.isOn) { //Save data if the user wants AppDelegate *appDelegate = (AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; usernameSaved = username; passwordSaved = password; [appDelegate.listOfPortalCredentials replaceObjectAtIndex:0 withObject:usernameSaved]; [appDelegate.listOfPortalCredentials replaceObjectAtIndex:1 withObject:passwordSaved]; } //Insert username and password to web form, log in to portal //This is where I need help }

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  • Autoscale Font in a TextBox Control so that its as big as possible and still fits in text area bound

    - by blak3r
    I need a TextBox or some type of Multi-Line Label control which will automatically adjust the font-size to make it as large as possible and yet have the entire message fit inside the bounds of the text area. I wanted to see if anyone had implemented a user control like this before developing my own. Example application: have a TextBox which will be half of the area on a windows form. When a message comes in which is will be approximately 100-500 characters it will put all the text in the control and set the font as large as possible. An implementation which uses Mono Supported .NET libraries would be a plus. Thanks in advance. If know one has implemented a control already... If someone knows how to test if a given text completely fits inside the text area that would be useful for if I roll my own control. Edit: I ended up writing an extension to RichTextBox. I will post my code shortly once i've verified that all the kinks are worked out.

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  • Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

    - by GWLlosa
    So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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  • How do I programmatically run all the JUnit tests in my Java application?

    - by Andrew McKinlay
    From Eclipse I can easily run all the JUnit tests in my application. I would like to be able to run the tests on target systems from the application jar, without Eclipse (or Ant or Maven or any other development tool). I can see how to run a specific test or suite from the command line. I could manually create a suite listing all the tests in my application, but that seems error prone - I'm sure at some point I'll create a test and forget to add it to the suite. The Eclipse JUnit plugin has a wizard to create a test suite, but for some reason it doesn't "see" my test classes. It may be looking for JUnit 3 tests, not JUnit 4 annotated tests. I could write a tool that would automatically create the suite by scanning the source files. Or I could write code so the application would scan it's own jar file for tests (either by naming convention or by looking for the @Test annotation). It seems like there should be an easier way. What am I missing?

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  • Move SELECT to SQL Server side

    - by noober
    Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

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  • python list/dict property best practice

    - by jterrace
    I have a class object that stores some properties that are lists of other objects. Each of the items in the list has an identifier that can be accessed with the id property. I'd like to be able to read and write from these lists but also be able to access a dictionary keyed by their identifier. Let me illustrate with an example: class Child(object): def __init__(self, id, name): self.id = id self.name = name class Teacher(object): def __init__(self, id, name): self.id = id self.name = name class Classroom(object): def __init__(self, children, teachers): self.children = children self.teachers = teachers classroom = Classroom([Child('389','pete')], [Teacher('829','bob')]) This is a silly example, but it illustrates what I'm trying to do. I'd like to be able to interact with the classroom object like this: #access like a list print classroom.children[0] #append like it's a list classroom.children.append(Child('2344','joe')) #delete from like it's a list classroom.children.pop(0) But I'd also like to be able to access it like it's a dictionary, and the dictionary should be automatically updated when I modify the list: #access like a dict print classroom.childrenById['389'] I realize I could just make it a dict, but I want to avoid code like this: classroom.childrendict[child.id] = child I also might have several of these properties, so I don't want to add functions like addChild, which feels very un-pythonic anyway. Is there a way to somehow subclass dict and/or list and provide all of these functions easily with my class's properties? I'd also like to avoid as much code as possible.

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  • JPA entitylisteners and @embeddable

    - by seanizer
    I have a class hierarchy of JPA entities that all inherit from a BaseEntity class: @MappedSuperclass @EntityListeners( { ValidatorListener.class }) public abstract class BaseEntity implements Serializable { // other stuff } I want all entities that implement a given interface to be validated automatically on persist and/or update. Here's what I've got. My ValidatorListener: public class ValidatorListener { private enum Type { PERSIST, UPDATE } @PrePersist public void checkPersist(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.PERSIST); } } @PreUpdate public void checkUpdate(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.UPDATE); } } private void check(final Validateable entity, final Type persist) { switch (persist) { case PERSIST: if (entity instanceof Persist) { ((Persist) entity).persist(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; case UPDATE: if (entity instanceof Update) { ((Update) entity).update(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; default: break; } } } and here's my Validateable interface that it checks against (the outer interface is just a marker, the inner contain the methods): public interface Validateable { interface Persist extends Validateable { void persist(); } interface PersistOrUpdate extends Validateable { void persistOrUpdate(); } interface Update extends Validateable { void update(); } } All of this works, however I would like to extend this behavior to Embeddable classes. I know two solutions: call the validation method of the embeddable object manually from the entity validation method: public void persistOrUpdate(){ // validate my own properties first // then manually validate the embeddable property: myEmbeddable.persistOrUpdate(); // this works but I'd like something that I don't have to call manually } use reflection, checking all properties to see if their type is of one of their interface types. This would work, but it's not pretty. Is there a more elegant solution?

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  • Prevent hash navigation url

    - by Koningh
    I have the following problem: I'm using a slider (coda) to let people navigate trough some 'pages'. The slider uses hash links to navigate to the next page/slide. If a user is at page one (#page1), there is a link which will lead the user to page 2 (#page2) and so on. At the top of the slider the numbers of the pages appear as a link, but only when the page is visited. So if there are six pages and the user navigates from the first to the second and then the third one, there are only three links at the top of the slider (to page one, two and three). The problem is that a user can navigate to page five (or any page actually) without first visiting the pages previous to page five by just using the hash URL and typing the whole link in their address bar. For example if I would type www.mydomain.com/slider/index.php#page5 the slider automatically navigates to the fifth slide/page of the slider and thereby skipping the first four. I want to allow users to navigate to #page5 only if they have visited the first four (So by clicking trough the slides). This means that if they would go to #page5 directly by typing the URL in the address bar, I would like them to be send to the first page (#page1). Does anyone have any idea on solving this?

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  • Struts logic:iterate input field

    - by camilos
    I currently have the following code and the data is displayed fine. <logic:iterate name="myList" id="product" indexId="iteration" type="com.mycompany.MyBean"> <tr> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="weight"/> </td> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="sku"/> </td> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="quantity"/> </td> </tr> </logic:iterate> But now I need to make the "quantity" part modifiable. The user should be able to update that field, press submit and when its sent to the server, "myList" should automatically update with the new quantities. I've tried searching for help on this but all I keep finding is examples on how to display data only, not modify it. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How to Implement an Interface that Requires Duplicate Member Names in C#?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I often have to implement some interfaces such as IEnumerable<T> in my code. Each time, when implementing automatically, I encounter the following: public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { // Code here... } public IEnumerator GetEnumerator1() { // Code here... } Though I have to implement both GetEnumerator() methods, they impossibly can have the same name, even if we understand that they do the same, somehow. The compiler can't treat them as one being the overload of the other, because only the return type differs. When doing so, I manage to set the GetEnumerator1() accessor to private. This way, the compiler doesn't complaint about not implementing the interface member, and I simply throw a NotImplementedException within the methods body. However, I wonder whether it is a good practice, or if I shall proceed differently, as perhaps a method alias or something like so. What is the best approach while implementing an interface such as IEnumerable<T> that requires the implementation of two different methods with the same name?

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  • How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

    - by unforgiven3
    A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

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  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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  • Identity alternative for SQL Azure Federation : are Azure Queues or Service Bus Queues a good choice?

    - by JYL
    As many of developers, I'm looking for a way to integrate my existing app to SQL Azure Federations, and replacing the Identity columns (the primary keys of my tables) is a big problem. For many reasons, I do NOT want use GUID for my primary keys (please don't open the debate about the GUID or not, it's not my question : i just don't want a GUID, period). So I need to build a key provider to replace the "identity" feature of a standard SQL database. I'm using Entity Framework, so i can easily find one place to set the Id value just before the insert (by overriding the SaveChanges method of my ObjectContext class). I just need to find a "not too complicated" implementation for getting the current Id, which is "farm-ready". I've read this SO post : "ID Generation for Sharded Database (Azure Federated Database)" and "Synchronizing Multiple Nodes in Windows Azure from MSDN Magazine", but this solution sounds a bit complicated for me. I'm thinking about creating (automatically) one azure queue for each SQL table, which contain a pre-loaded list of consecutive integer. When I want an Id value, I just have to get a message from the queue (which becomes invisible and is deleted on the way), which give me the current available Id. About the choice between "Windows Azure Queues" and "Windows Azure Service Bus Queues", I prefere "Windows Azure Queues", due to the "high" latency of Service Bus Queues. I don't think that the lack of "ordering garantee" of Azure Queues is a problem. What do you think about that idea of using Azure Queues to provide Id values ? Do you see any argument to give up that idea ? Do you have a better idea, or even a good practice, to provider integer ids in SQL Azure Federation databases ? Thanks.

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  • Snapshot agent obliterates conflicts

    - by mwolfe02
    We are using merge replication in SQL Server 2000. We have a snapshot agent that runs every night that updates the publication snapshot. About six months ago we updated from SQL Server 7.0 to 2000 (that's not a typo). We noticed a sharp decline in conflicts at that time but could not track down the reason. We finally found that the daily snapshot agent is recreating the conflict tables every night. This seems to be a change in functionality from SQL Server 7.0. We were running the snapshot agent before and the conflicts would accumulate. Is there some way to prevent the data in the conflict tables from being lost when the snapshot runs? Can anyone confirm a change in behavior between 7.0 and 2000? Our current plan is to simply stop automatically updating the publication snapshot. Is that a reasonable workaround? Here is the line from the script that is adding the snapshot: exec sp_addpublication_snapshot @publication = N'MyPub' , @frequency_type = 4 , @frequency_interval = 1 , @frequency_relative_interval = 1 , @frequency_recurrence_factor = 0 , @frequency_subday = 1 , @frequency_subday_interval = 5 , @active_start_date = 0 , @active_end_date = 0 , @active_start_time_of_day = 500 , @active_end_time_of_day = 235959 Here is the step that runs in the agent job: Step Name: Run agent. Type: Replication Snapshot Command: -Publisher [WCDBS02] -PublisherDB [TaxDB] -Distributor [WCDBS02] -Publication [TaxDB] -ReplicationType 2 -DistributorSecurityMode 1 This appears to be running the Replication Snapshot Agent Utility. There is no mention on that link about dropping and recreating system conflict tables, nor is there any flag that can be set to alter this behavior.

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  • My IF statement is changing variables in PHP

    - by user1902509
    I am fairly new to the whole programming thing, so forgive me if this is a stupid question. It seems odd that I haven't run into it before. I am trying to make an order form for a cake. You fill out the form, submit it, and it will then display the order in a new window, where you then hit "submit," and upload it to the Database. I have a series of If Statements to check for errors in the form before submitting it. Here is a simplified version of the code. Writing means any writing you want on the cake, Name is your name, and cake is what type of cake you want (the default is "None"). try { $name = trim($params->name); $cake = trim($params->cake); $writing = trim($params->writing); if (strlen($name) < 3){ throw new Exception("Please enter Your name."); } if ($cake = "None") { throw new Exception("Please select a Cake" } if ($cake = "Caramel Apple Pie" or $cake = "Pumpkin Pie" or $cake = "Eggnog Pie" and strlen($writing) > 1) { throw new Exception("We are sorry, but you can't write on any of our specialty pies."); } } catch(Exception $x) { $error = $x->getmessage(); } So what is happening is that when I go and hit submit the first time, the correct cake type comes up, but when you submit it the second time, the error comes up saying that I have "None" selected. All the other values are there and remain the same. I think the problem is that the first "IF" statement (Where it says "If($cake = "None")) is automatically changing $cake to "None" because I have tried commenting just that statement out, and it will then change the cake to be "Caramel Apple Pie," which is in the top of the next IF statement. Anyone know why it is doing this? And how to fix it?

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  • Why cant Git merge file changes with a modified parent/master.

    - by Andy
    I have a file with one line in it. I create a branch and add a second line to the same file. Save and commit to the branch. I switch back to the master. And add a different, second line to the file. Save and commit to the master. So there's now 3 unique lines in total. If I now try and merge the branch back to the master, it suffers a merge conflict. Why cant Git simple merge each line, one after the other? My attempt at merge behaves something like this: PS D:\dev\testing\test1> git merge newbranch Auto-merging hello.txt CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in hello.txt Automatic merge failed; fix conflicts and then commit the result. PS D:\dev\testing\test1> git diff diff --cc hello.txt index 726eeaf,e48d31a..0000000 --- a/hello.txt +++ b/hello.txt @@@ -1,2 -1,2 +1,6 @@@ This is the first line. - New line added by master. -Added a line in newbranch. ++<<<<<<< HEAD ++New line added by master. ++======= ++Added a line in newbranch. ++>>>>>>> newbranch Is there a way to make it slot lines in automatically, one after the other?

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  • PHP Check slave status without mysql_connect timeout issues

    - by Jonathon
    I have a web-app that has a master mysql db and four slave dbs. I want to handle all (or almost all) read-only (SELECT) queries from the slaves. Our load-balancer sends the user to one of the slave machines automatically, since they are also running Apache/PHP and serving webpages. I am using an include file to setup the connection to the databases, such as: //for master server (i.e. - UPDATE/INSERT/DELETE statements) $Host = "10.0.0.x"; $User = "xx"; $Password = "xx"; $Link = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); if( !$Link ) ) { die( "Master database is currently unavailable. Please try again later." ); } //this connection can be used for READ-ONLY (i.e. - SELECT statements) on the localhost $Host_Local = "localhost"; $User_Local = "xx"; $Password_Local = "xx"; $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host_Local, $User_Local, $Password_Local ); //fail back to master if slave db is down if( !$Link_Local ) ) { $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); } I then use $Link for all update queries and $Link_Local as the connection for SELECT statements. Everything works fine until the slave server database goes down. If the local db is down, the $Link_Local = mysql_connect() call takes at least 30 seconds before it gives up on trying to connect to the localhost and returns back to the script. This causes a huge backlog of page serves and basically shuts down the system (due to the extremely slow response time). Does anyone know of a better way to handle connections to slave servers via PHP? Or, is there some kind of timeout function that could be used to stop the mysql_connect call after 2-3 seconds? Thanks for the help. I searched the other mysql_connect threads, but didn't see any that addressed this issue.

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  • Is there a way to reload the page after <fb:like> is clicked?

    - by joon
    Hi, I'm wondering about this: I have a simple facebook-connect app that will only show certain content after you login and liked a certain page. It works (huzzah!) but I want to make it more user friendly by making it refresh automatically after you pressed the like button. Here's some code: <?php if ($me) { $pageid = -----------; $uid = $me['id']; $likeID = $facebook->api( array( 'method' => 'fql.query', 'query' => 'SELECT target_id FROM connection WHERE source_id = ' . $uid . ' AND target_id = ' . $pageid ) ); if ( empty($likeID) ) { // Person is LOGGED IN, but has NOT LIKED echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } else { // Person is LOGGED IN, and has LIKED, score! echo 'Download link'; } } else { // Person is NOT LOGGED IN, so we know NOTHING echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } ?> Is there anything I can do to this code (maybe in the fb:like tag?) that makes it reload the page after a like? Thanks.

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