Search Results

Search found 10515 results on 421 pages for 'automatically'.

Page 358/421 | < Previous Page | 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365  | Next Page >

  • How to change Hibernate´s auto persistance strategy

    - by Kristofer Borgstrom
    I just noted that my hibernate entities are automatically persisted to the database (or at least to cache) before I call any save() or update() method. To me this is a pretty strange default behavior but ok, as long as I can disable it, it´s fine. The problem I have is I want to update my entity´s state (from 1 to 2) only if the entity in the database still has the state it had when I retrieved [1] (this is to eliminate concurrency issues when another server is updating this same object). For this reason I have created a custom NamedQuery that will only update the entity if state is 1. So here is some pseudo-code: //Get the entity Entity item = dao.getEntity(); item.getState(); //==1 //Update the entity item.setState(2); //Here is the problem, this effectively changes the state of my entity braking my query that verifies that state is still == 1. dao.customUpdate(item); //Returns 0 rows changes since state != 1. So, how do I make sure the setters don´t change the state in cache/db? Thanks, Kristofer

    Read the article

  • How to set JComboBox not to select an element when created? (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    Hi all. Problem: I am using JComboBox, and tried using setSelectionIndex(-1) in my code (this code is placed in caretInvoke()) suggestionComboBox.removeAllItems(); for (int i = 0; i < suggestions.length; i++) { suggestionComboBox.addItem(suggestions[i]); } suggestionComboBox.setSelectedIndex(-1); suggestionComboBox.setEnabled(true); This is the initial setting when it was added to a pane: suggestionComboBox = new JComboBox(); suggestionComboBox.setEditable(false); suggestionComboBox.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(25, 25)); suggestionComboBox.addActionListener(new SuggestionComboBoxListener()); When the caretInvoke triggers the ComboBox initialisation, even before the user selects an element, the actionPerformed is already triggered (I tried a JOptionPane here): First popup (notice that "flow byte_jump" is selected): Second popup (I think the setSelectionIndex is executed) Then in the end: The problem is: My program autoinserts the selected text when the user selects an element from the ComboBox. So without the user selecting anything, it is automatically inserted already. How can I overcome the problem in this situation? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why cant Git merge file changes with a modified parent/master.

    - by Andy
    I have a file with one line in it. I create a branch and add a second line to the same file. Save and commit to the branch. I switch back to the master. And add a different, second line to the file. Save and commit to the master. So there's now 3 unique lines in total. If I now try and merge the branch back to the master, it suffers a merge conflict. Why cant Git simple merge each line, one after the other? My attempt at merge behaves something like this: PS D:\dev\testing\test1> git merge newbranch Auto-merging hello.txt CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in hello.txt Automatic merge failed; fix conflicts and then commit the result. PS D:\dev\testing\test1> git diff diff --cc hello.txt index 726eeaf,e48d31a..0000000 --- a/hello.txt +++ b/hello.txt @@@ -1,2 -1,2 +1,6 @@@ This is the first line. - New line added by master. -Added a line in newbranch. ++<<<<<<< HEAD ++New line added by master. ++======= ++Added a line in newbranch. ++>>>>>>> newbranch Is there a way to make it slot lines in automatically, one after the other?

    Read the article

  • Attempting to calculate width of Map Overlays on the fly

    - by Bloudermilk
    Hey all- I am working on an Android app that utilizes the Google Maps API MapView, MapController, MapActivity, and ItemizedOverlay. I am basically trying to recreate certain functionalities of the Maps app (damn Google for not providing speech bubbles—for lack of a better name—for items!), particularly those speech bubbles. I have an invisible XML structure for the speech bubble in the XML layout file containing my MapView. The first time I show a speech bubble I grab that XML and remove it from it's current parent, applying some ItemizedOverlay.LayoutParams to it, and add it to the MapView as an Overlay. I position it above the item that was selected, fill it with the proper text, then set it to visible. This all works great. The goal here, though, is to also automatically animate the map to reveal any parts of a speech bubble that may be off-screen when it opens. So I'm trying popup.getWidth() (popup is the instance of my LinearLayout that is the speech bubble) after I do all the manipulation to the bubble, even after I display it to the user. Problem is, popup.getWidth() is returning me the width of the previously displayed popup, not the currently displayed one. I can't figure out why this would be happening if I'm fetching the width after I set it to visible with its new dimensions (which, by the way, are relative when I'm setting them with LayoutParams: fill_content for both width and height).. I have even tried forcing both the MapView and the "popup" to invalidate() before trying to fetch the width. Any ideas why this may be happening? How can I force the View to settle into its new dimensions before trying to fetch them? Thanks! Nick

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to reload the page after <fb:like> is clicked?

    - by joon
    Hi, I'm wondering about this: I have a simple facebook-connect app that will only show certain content after you login and liked a certain page. It works (huzzah!) but I want to make it more user friendly by making it refresh automatically after you pressed the like button. Here's some code: <?php if ($me) { $pageid = -----------; $uid = $me['id']; $likeID = $facebook->api( array( 'method' => 'fql.query', 'query' => 'SELECT target_id FROM connection WHERE source_id = ' . $uid . ' AND target_id = ' . $pageid ) ); if ( empty($likeID) ) { // Person is LOGGED IN, but has NOT LIKED echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } else { // Person is LOGGED IN, and has LIKED, score! echo 'Download link'; } } else { // Person is NOT LOGGED IN, so we know NOTHING echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } ?> Is there anything I can do to this code (maybe in the fb:like tag?) that makes it reload the page after a like? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • jQuery get the value of ahref and put it to button

    - by user1506189
    i have this problem that i need to get the value of href and pass it to a button. is this correct format of jQuery? $(function() { var getValue = $('#theLink').getAttributeNode('onclick').value; $('.yt_holder').live('click', '.videoThumb4', function(){ $(".videoThumb4").ytplaylist({ holderId: 'ytvideo4', html5: true, playerWidth: '520', autoPlay: false, sliding: false, listsliding: true, social: true, autoHide: false, playfirst: 0, playOnLoad: false, modestbranding: true, showInfo: false }); }); }); the button was working but it only play the first video on his list. the link of the website is here http://cocopop12.site11.com/search/index.php now the button is this. <input class="videoThumb4" onClick="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=' . $yValue['videoid'] . '" type="button" name="previewSel" value="Preview" id="previewbut" /> is that correct? that i need to do a onclick http://www.... blabla? the <a href> that i like to make a button is this. <?php echo ' <a class="videoThumb4" href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=' . $yValue['videoid'] . '" id="link"> ' . $yValue['description'] . ' </a> '; ?> how can i use .each for the button {Preview}? how can i put the value in the button just like --when i click this href it automatically play the video? but the button it just play the first video but not the second video. this i want to make it like a button. thank you for your time.

    Read the article

  • best web database solution for scala for a high traffic site?

    - by egervari
    I am in charge of a rebuilding a website that gets about 250,000 visitors a day. We'd like to use Scala, but it does not work very well with Spring (in some minor cases) and Hibernate (there is a major and very annoying mismatch here if you want to use scala collections, which we do). The application itself is going to have about 40-50 tables. Other than Hibernate, is there an ORM that works awesome with Scala and is as performant and reliable as Hibernate? Does it also have the same capabilities, or are we going to run into leaky-abstractions if we don't use Hibernate? It would be a big risk for us to go with a framework that is newer and doesn't seem to have a lot of industry backing... and at the same time, Hibernate is a real pain to program against when using Scala. 1) The Java Collection <- Scala Collection is absolutely painful. There is a lot more boilerplate and crap to write. 2) The IDE doesn't import JavaConversions and java interfaces automatically... so we this needs to be done manually. Optimizing Imports in IDEA is going to destroy all the manual work. 3) There is also a performance cost to converting back and forth all the time in your domain objects and your dao classes. 4) Not to mention there needs to be a lot of casting, which produces code ugly as sin. I actually would love to write my own orm that is 100% tailored to scala, but obviously this is really outside of the scope of our project for now. So what is the best approach?

    Read the article

  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

    Read the article

  • How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

    - by Milan Babuškov
    I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

    Read the article

  • Toolbar to modify displayed html/content in IE / Firefox / Chrome.

    - by JP
    Hi, I want to create toolbar, whose functionality would be: Whenever the toolbar is "On/Activated", all pages should be parsed by a function, and the modified html should be displayed. [Example: i) There was this skype toolbar that would recognize phone-numbers in pages and automatically add skype links ii) If you have used MacAfee / Alexa toolbars, they modify the search results page displayed by Google My functionality would a lot simpler though] I want to create this for all browsers (though answers/pointers to any one platform would be appreciated). Please note that I am new to toolbar development, so detailed pointers from basics would be very helpful. I have heard to GreaseMonkey. However, if I can do it in a more "basic" way, it would be very helpful. (Alternately, tips to make a "custom" toolbar using GreaseMonkey would be welcome - though I would like to do away with ability to add scripts, etc. Also I installed greasemonkey and it does show up as a toolbar in FF/IE at all! In IE, there is separate executable to add scripts - I want a standalone toolbar with ON/OFF facility in the browser). Thanks much! Regards, JP

    Read the article

  • Rails nested attributes with a join model, where one of the models being joined is a new record

    - by gzuki
    I'm trying to build a grid, in rails, for entering data. It has rows and columns, and rows and columns are joined by cells. In my view, I need for the grid to be able to handle having 'new' rows and columns on the edge, so that if you type in them and then submit, they are automatically generated, and their shared cells are connected to them correctly. I want to be able to do this without JS. Rails nested attributes fail to handle being mapped to both a new record and a new column, they can only do one or the other. The reason is that they are a nested specifically in one of the two models, and whichever one they aren't nested in will have no id (since it doesn't exist yet), and when pushed through accepts_nested_attributes_for on the top level Grid model, they will only be bound to the new object created for whatever they were nested in. How can I handle this? Do I have to override rails handling of nested attributes? My models look like this, btw: class Grid < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :rows has_many :columns has_many :cells, :through => :rows accepts_nested_attributes_for :rows, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } accepts_nested_attributes_for :columns, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } end class Column < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :rows, :through => :grid end class Row < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :columns, :through => :grid accepts_nested_attributes_for :cells end class Cell < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :row belongs_to :column has_one :grid, :through => :row end

    Read the article

  • Does jQuery have an equivalent to Prototype's Element.identify?

    - by Alan Storm
    Is there a built in method or defacto default plugin that will let you automatically assign an unique ID to an element in jQuery, or do you need to implement something like this yourself? I'm looking for the jQuery equivalent to Prototype's identify method Here's an example. I have some HTML structure on a page that looks like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span></span> <span></span> <span></span> </div> I want to assign each of the spans an ID that will be unique to the page. So after calling something like this $('#foo span').identify('prefix'); //fake code, no such method The rendered DOM would look something like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span id="prefix_2"></span> <span id="prefix_3"></span> <span id="prefix_4"></span> </div> Is there anything official-ish/robust for jQuery, or is this something most jQuery developers roll on their own?

    Read the article

  • Mootools Form Post Problem, Abort increasingly+1 with each request

    - by Naresh
    Hi all, i'm using Mootools 1.2. Ihave 15 Forms with same name only change in their id's like form1, form2, form3, ... ,form15 same with their elements. i need to submit all forms by ajax. For that purpos i make a function and call them on each functions onClick event. function is function addStepConfiguration(id,mystrip,comment,error,submitid,i) { $(id).addEvent('submit', function(e) { e.stop(); $(submitid).setStyle('display','none'); loading_Img(i); this.set('send', { onComplete: function(responseText) { $('loading_img'+i).innerHTML = ''; SplittedResText = responseText.split("|"); if(SplittedResText[1]=='undefined') { $(error).innerHTML=SplittedResText[0]; } else { $(comment).innerHTML=SplittedResText[0]; $(mystrip).set('class',SplittedResText[1]); removeMsg.delay(20,'',error); removeMsg.delay(1500,'',comment); } $(submitid).setStyle('display','block'); } }); this.send(); }); } When i submit a form say first one then it submitted and give response normally, but in second time without page refresh, it abort the request one time. in third attempt it abort 2 times..then go on +1 each time. It gives no error, just abort and again request automatically. i can't understand what is the problem. please any one can help me.

    Read the article

  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

    Read the article

  • Organising files and classes in XCode (iPhone application)

    - by pulegium
    It's a generic question and really a newbie one too, so bear with me... I'm playing with some iPhone development, and trying to create a simple "flip type" application. Nothing sophisticated, let's say on the flip side is a short application summary, bit like 'help' and on the main screen is a simple board game, let's say tic-tac-toe or similar. Now, XCode has generated me 'Main View', 'Flipside View' and 'Application Delegate' folders, with default template files in them. Now the question is where do I create appropriate 'MVC' classes? Let's say (V)iew classes are going to be the ones that have been automatically created. So the Flipside view class is responsible for generating text/images etc on the 'help' view. 'Main View' class is what draws the items on the table and updates the counters, etc. Where should I place the 'controller' class? And also, should it only be dealing with proxying only to the model? According to this the controller method is called from the view and manipulates the method classes. Similarly, the results from model are passed back to the view class by the controller issuing the calls to appropriate view methods. Similarly, where does the model class go? or should I just create a new folder for each, controller and model class files? What I'm after is the best practices, or just a short description how people normally structure their applications. I know it's very specific and also undefined... I came from Django background, so the way stuff is organised there is slightly different. Hope this makes sense, sorry if it's all bit vague, but I have to start somewhere :) And yes I've read quite few docs on the apple developer site, but trouble is that the documents are either going into too much detail about the language/framework/etc and the examples are way too simplistic. Actually, this leads me to the final question, has anyone know any good example of relatively complete application tutorial which I could use as a reference in organising my files?...

    Read the article

  • iOS 7: Best way to implement an textview that presents previous input but is easy to clear

    - by Frank R.
    I'm porting a Mac app to the iPhone and I've run into an unexpected problem. On the Mac there's a text field that is automatically pre-selected (= first responder) when a dialog shows up. The text field shows the text you entered in the field the last time and the text is pre-selected so that if you just start typing it gets cleared away. If you want to edit the existing text instead you just hit the forwards or backwards arrow. On the iPhone this behavior seems very hard to implement. The text view shows up with the old text and I can even get it to pre-select but whatever I do the result is not quite right. When I use [aTextView setMarkedText: myText selectedRange: newRange]; the text does show up as marked and if I just start typing the old text goes away. However there's no equivalent to the cursor keys on iOS, so I cannot NOT erase the text.. which is hardly the point. What kind of iOS idiom would be appropriate for giving the option to either edit or overwrite existing text? Best regards, Frank

    Read the article

  • Splitting Code into Headers/Source files

    - by cam
    I took the following code from the examples page on Asio class tcp_connection : public boost::enable_shared_from_this<tcp_connection> { public: typedef boost::shared_ptr<tcp_connection> pointer; static pointer create(boost::asio::io_service& io_service) { return pointer(new tcp_connection(io_service)); } tcp::socket& socket() { return socket_; } void start() { message_ = make_daytime_string(); boost::asio::async_write(socket_, boost::asio::buffer(message_), boost::bind(&tcp_connection::handle_write, shared_from_this(), boost::asio::placeholders::error, boost::asio::placeholders::bytes_transferred)); } private: tcp_connection(boost::asio::io_service& io_service) : socket_(io_service) { } void handle_write(const boost::system::error_code& /*error*/, size_t /*bytes_transferred*/) { } tcp::socket socket_; std::string message_; }; I'm relatively new to C++ (from a C# background), and from what I understand, most people would split this into header and source files (declaration/implementation, respectively). Is there any reason I can't just leave it in the header file if I'm going to use it across many source files? If so, are there any tools that will automatically convert it to declaration/implementation for me? Can someone show me what this would look like split into header/source file for an example (or just part of it, anyway)? I get confused around weird stuff like thistypedef boost::shared_ptr<tcp_connection> pointer; Do I include this in the header or the source? Same with tcp::socket& socket() I've read many tutorials, but this has always been something that has confused me about C++.

    Read the article

  • mailing system DB structure, need help

    - by Anna
    i have a system there user(sender) can write a note to friends(receivers), number of receivers=0. Text of the message is saved in DB and visible to sender and all receivers then they login to system. Sender can add more receivers at any time. More over any of receivers can edit the message and even remove it from DB. For this system i created 3 tables, shortly: users(userID, username, password) messages(messageID, text) list(id, senderID, receiverID, messageID) in table "list" each row corresponds to pair sender-receiver, like sender_x_ID -- receiver_1_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_2_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_3_ID -- message_1_ID Now the problem is: 1. if user deletes the message from table "messages" how to automatically delete all rows from table "list" which correspond to deleted message. Do i have to include some foreign keys? More important: 2. if sender has let say 3 receivers for his message1 (username1, username2 and username3) and at certain moment decides to add username4 and username5 and at the same time exclude username1 from the list of receivers. PHP code will get the new list of receivers (username2, username3, username4, username5) That means insert to table "list" sender_x_ID -- receiver_4_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_5_ID -- message_1_ID and also delete from table "list" the row corresponding to user1 (which is not in the list or receivers any more) sender_x_ID -- receiver_1_ID -- message_1_ID which sql query to send from PHP to make it in an easy and intelligent way? Please help! Examples of sql queries would be perfect!

    Read the article

  • Move SELECT to SQL Server side

    - by noober
    Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

    Read the article

  • Chicken and egg problem (restore database) when trying to write unit test against SQl Server 2008.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Ok, they are not unit tests but end-to-end tests. The setup is somewhat involved. Unit tests will use C#, ODBC connection. Every unit tests will try to clean up after itself, but every 20 tests or so (once per C# class) we would need to do a full database restore. I do not think I can do it over an ODBC connection, according to this document: http://www.sql-server-performance.com/articles/dba/Obtain_Exclusive_Access_to_Restore_SQL_Server_p1.aspx Msg 6104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot use KILL to kill your own process. However, I would like to, so that 199 tests do not go amok because of a bad clean-up. Is there another way? Perhaps I can open a different "connection" such as use COM automation or something of that sort, and then kill all database connections from there? If so, how can I do that? Also, will the clients be able to re-connect automatically after a restore, or would I have to dismantle everything once every 20 tests or so? If you find this question confusing, please let me know what your questions are. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Tools for managing code deployment/versioning for IIS / Windows enviroments

    - by RizwanK
    I've got a strong background in Linux and OSX, and just left a job where I was architecting systems based on those platforms. Now I've got a Windows Server running IIS that has a number of different websites that it hosts. Most of them are just a bunch of HTML, JS and Images, with some ASP for some customer tools. (Each website has a different set of customer tools, or they are the same tools, but with minor code changes between them.) I'm also adding a develop web server with the same code, but the 'bleeding edge' stuff. I need an effective way of managing changes and updates to the overall codebase (henceforth referring to both the images and the html and the asp, for all the sites). When a dev (or webmaster) checks in changes, I want it to show up automatically on the developer server, but should be manually pushed out to the live server. I'd be tempted to just make the websites SVN repositories, but I'd be concerned about the overhead of having the webdeveloper having to log into the server and trigger an SVN update via commandline/tortise (and heaven forbid, manage tags). Ideally I'd also manage IIS profile settings between the systems, but the major need is to be able to manage the process, and expose it to our ASP developer, and our webmaster, both of which are used to just FTPing up the files to the live site. So, any recommendations on tools (beyond some SVN hacking with BAT files + teaching the webmaster how to log into the server and do updates) or workflows that would help this out? I even considered an RPM type package (or some Windows equivalent, of course) to manage the live server, but that seems like a bit too much overhead. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Deal with update location for click-once.

    - by Assimilater
    I'm not sure how many people here are experts with visual studios, but I'd imagine a handful (not to raise expectations but to appeal to your egos :P). I'm working primarily in visual basic for now (though I hope to switch to c# in the near future and maybe a java or web app). Basically I'm trying to create an update feature that will work similarly to how common programs such as firefox or itunes update automatically. There is supposed to be provided functionality for this in what is called click once. I carry out the following procedures and get the following errors when trying to change the update url of my program to a password-protected ftp location. Go to project properties Go to publish click updates click browse click FTP Site Under Server put: web###.opentransfer.com Under Port: 21 Under Directory put: CMSOFT Passive mode is selected (which is what filezilla tells me the server is accessed with) Anonymous User is unselected and a username and password are typed in Push Ok Under Update location it shows: ftp://web###.opentransfer.com/CMSOFT I push Ok I see a message box titled Microsoft Visual Basic 2010 Express with an x icon Publish.UpdateUrl: The string must be a fully qualified URL or UNC path, for example "http://www.microsoft.com/myapplication" or "\server\myapplication". I've tried changing the directory to "CMSOFT/PQCM.exe" and the results are the same...hope this was descriptive enough.

    Read the article

  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Memory usage does not drop -- no leaks though

    - by climbon
    I have UINavigationController controlling several views. One of the views is composed of 20 scrollable pages. Each page is a constructed on the fly from UIViews by adding buttons, labels, UIImageViews etc. When this UIView is popped off the stack, the memory usage remains the same. Hence it keeps rising if I keep pushing/popping that view. In my dealloc, I am traversing through all 20 pages and finding each type of object which got added via addSubview and then do a release on it but instruments says my memory usage never goes down! I am trying to use 'retainCount' to see what is up with objects I am releasing but I am perhaps not getting true picture via retainCount. For some elements retainCount shows 2 so I try to release that object twice but then app crashes. If I release it once it works but memory usage never go down :( Q1: Do I need to traverse find each element and then do a release on that element ? Why can't I release a parent object and all objects contained by it would get released automatically ? Q2: Is retainCount a reliable indicator ?

    Read the article

  • Converting WAR to EAR and other Glassfish stories

    - by Random
    Hello! I am really new in this so I hopefully don't make any terrible mistake. I apologize before hand if I have. In my project I was using tomcat and deploying WAR files. But now some bosses wants to deploy EAR files. So there we go. I first downloaded Glassfish (don't know if it's the apropiate application server for a newbie like me), instaled it and all (I even deployed the hello.war in the autodeploy _< ). Then prepared an EAR file. From what I know, I just need to create an Enterprise Application Project in Eclipse and add to the module my war file. This changes the application.xml file automatically (thanks eclipse project!). So I exported it to an EAR file and uploaded it to the glassfish server. Wonders of wonders, it doesn't work. I also tried deploying the old WAR file in this new shiny glassfish but it goes on http-404 not found error. The glassfish seems to say that my project is not in ~/domains/domain1/docroot. By the way I am using windows and I am aware of some problems between glassfish and windows due to some updating open files or such. So I have to questions: First, Am I doing the EAR package correctly? Second, Do I need to do some especial configuration to the glassfish server to deploy EAR and WAR files? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365  | Next Page >