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  • How can I select a value matching my input from a TypeAhead control using WWW::Mechanize?

    - by kyoob
    So ordinarily the element I want to pick from a list would be populated on a page and I'd just find it and pick it. But I'm dealing with a control that doesn't populate list elements until some input has been stuck into a text box, after which it gives me a list of recommendations. For an example of the kind of list I'm talking about think of Facebook's "People, Places, and Things" search field. I want to plug a string into this text box, select the same string from the list of recommendations, and submit the form. The issue I'm having right now is I can't seem to get Mechanize to even recognize the field is there. I examine a dump of $mech->find_all_inputs and it isn't listed. Is this kind of field just beyond Mechanize's jurisdiction?

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  • Should we avoid to use Object as the input parameter/ output value of a method?

    - by developer.cyrus
    Take Java syntax as an example, though the question itself is language independent. If the following snippet takes an object MyAbstractEmailTemplate as input argument in the method setTemplate, the class MyGateway will then become tightly-coupled with the object MyAbstractEmailTemplate, which lessens the re-usability of the class MyGateway. A compromise is to use dependency-injection to ease the instantiation of MyAbstractEmailTemplate. This might solve the coupling problem to some extent, but the interface is still rigid, hardly providing enough ?exibility to other developers/ applications. So if we only use primitive data type (or even plain XML in web service) as the input/ output of a method, it seems the coupling problem no longer exists. So what do you think? public class MyGateway { protected MyAbstractEmailTemplate template; publoc void setTemplate(MyAbstractEmailTemplate template) { this.template = template; } }

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  • Building a structure/object in a place other than the constructor

    - by Vishal Naidu
    I have different types of objects representing the same business entity. UIObject, PowershellObject, DevCodeModelObject, WMIObject all are different representation to the same entity. So say if the entity is Animal then I have AnimalUIObject, AnimalPSObject, AnimalModelObject, AnimalWMIObject, etc. Now the implementations of AnimalUIObject, AnimalPSObject, AnimalModelObject are all in separate assemblies. Now my scenario is I want to verify the contents of business entity Animal irrespective of the assembly it came from. So I created a GenericAnimal class to represent the Animal entity. Now in GenericAnimal I added the following constructors: GenericAnimal(AnimalUIObject) GenericAnimal(AnimalPSObject) GenericAnimal(AnimalModelObject) Basically I made GenericAnimal depend on all the underlying assemblies so that while verifying I deal with this abstraction. Now the other approach to do this is have GenericAnimal with an empty constructor an allow these underlying assemblies to have a Transform() method which would build the GenericAnimal. Both approaches have some pros and cons: The 1st approach: Pros: All construction logic is in one place in one class GenericAnimal Cons: GenericAnimal class must be touched every-time there is a new representation form. The 2nd approach: Pros: construction responsibility is delegated to the underlying assembly. Cons: As construction logic is spread accross assemblies, tomorrow if I need to add a property X in GenericAnimal then I have to touch all the assemblies to change the Transform method. Which approach looks better ? or Which would you consider a lesser evil ? Is there any alternative way better than the above two ?

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  • Drawing up a session value within SQL query? PHP and MySQL

    - by Derek
    Hi, on one of my web pages I want my manager user to view all activities assigned to them (personally). In order to do this, I need something like this: $sql = "SELECT * FROM activities WHERE manager = $_SESSION['SESS_FULLNAME']"; Now obviously this syntax is all wrong, but because I am new to this stuff, is there a way I can call up the full name from the user's session within a query? This is so that when I call up the database values to be displayed within the web page, only the activities for the manager who is logged in is displayed. For example, the activities table has a manager column of a full name entry. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How can you pass GET values to another url in php? GET value forwarding

    - by gobackpacking
    Ok, so I'm using Jquery's AJAX function and it's having trouble passing a URL with a http address. So I'm hoping to "get" the GET values and send them to another URL — so: a local php file begin passed GET values, which in turn forwards the GET values to another url. Maybe curl is the answer? I don't know. It's got to be a very short answer I know. pseudo code: //retrieve the GET values $var retrieve [GET] //passing it to another url send get values to url ($var, url_address)

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  • How do I assign a value from params, or session, whichever exists?

    - by irkenInvader
    What is the "Rails-way" or the "Ruby-way" of doing the following: In my controller, I'm creating and instance of an Options class. It will be initialized with information in the params hash if the params hash exists. Otherwise, it will check the sessions hash for the information. Finally, it will initialize with defaults if neither params nor session has the data it needs. Here is how I'm doing it now (it works fine, but it seems a little ugly): if params[:cust_options] @options = CustomOptions.new( params[:cust_options] ) else if session[:cust_options @options = CustomOptions.new( session[:cust_options] ) else @options = CustomOptions.new end end session[:cust_options] = @options.to_hash Like I said, everything is working fine, I'm just looking for a more idiomatically Ruby way of writing this block of code.

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  • How can I use a value of JSP in Javascript code?

    - by novellino
    Hello, I have a list of elements, each of them appeared in my page through jsp. So I have this: <div id="title"><%= list.get(ind).getTitle() %></div> When I display the elements, as this tag is in for loop, I get everything right. Now I what to place a button for deleting each of this elements. What I have done is: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="deleteNewsFunction();" id="submit_btn"/> In the deleteNewsFunction() I just want to print the data. <script> function deleteNewsFunction(){ var item = $('#title').val(); alert(item); } </script> The problem is that the title var gets always the first item even if I am clicking on the button of the second item. I was thinking that maybe a solution is to add the "list.get(ind).getTitle()" as a parameter in the function like deleteNewsFunction(<%=list.get(ind).getTitle()%) but then it did not work at all. Does anyone know how to help me? Thanks a lot!

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  • What jQuery is triggered when a user selects a "drop down list" option

    - by Ankur
    I want to display a different form for different selections of this drop down list: <label> <select name="type" id="type"> <option value="object" selected="selected">Object</option> <option value="number">Number</option> <option value="text">Text</option> <option value="date">Date</option> <option value="time">Time</option> <option value="geo">Geospatial</option> <option value="currency">Currency</option> </select> </label> What would be the jQuery event that is triggered when a user selects one of these options. Would the .click() event be triggered in this case as well?

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  • SEO/PHP: How to Convert Form-Submit URL (Get-Method) without Javascript SEO-Friendly?

    - by elmas
    hello, i have this code <form action="index.php" method="get" class="search-form"><input type="text" size="35" name="search" class="searchBox" value="" /><input type="submit" value="Start Searching!" /></form> and actually i convert the url with javascript <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('.search-form').submit(function() { var value = $('.search-form input:text').val(); value = value = value.replace(/\W/,''); // replace window.location.href = value + "-keyword" + ".html"; return false; }); }); </script> is there a method to convert the url seo-friendly without javascript? maybe with php?

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  • not getting hidden values while postback of a button in.net

    - by user1075242
    I am using asp.net. I have taken one Hidden value and assigning value to that hidden variable in Java-script. aspx: <input type="hidden" runat="server" id="hdnProductionIds" value="0" name="hdnProductionIds" /> JS: document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_hdnProductionIds").value = "123"; I want to use that hidden value in server side coding(vb.net). But while do-post back, hidden variable value becomes Zero (default value) Can any one please suggest me. Thanks, Jagadi.

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  • How to prevent CAST errors on SSIS ?

    - by manitra
    Hello, The question Is it possible to ask SSIS to cast a value and return NULL in case the cast is not allowed instead of throwing an error ? My environment I'm using Visual Studio 2005 and Sql Server 2005 on Windows Server 2003. The general context Just in case you're curious, here is my use case. I have to store data coming from somewhere in a generic table (key/value structure with history) witch contains some sort of value that can be strings, numbers or dates. The structure is something like this : table Values { Id int, Date datetime, -- for history Key nvarchar(50) not null, Value nvarchar(50), DateValue datetime, NumberValue numeric(19,9) } I want to put the raw value in the Value column and try to put the same value in the DateValue column when i'm able to cast it to Datetime in the NumberValue column when i'm able to cast it to a number Those two typed columns would make all sort of aggregation and manipulation much easier and faster later. That's it, now you know why i'm asking this strange question. ============ Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • How to get text value in a div vs. an alert modal - jquery

    - by smudge
    Does anyone have an easy way to have text in a div show what's changed in the following statement vs. an alert modal? I can't seem to get my head around it. Thanks... $(function(){ var abc = $('select#percent').selectToUISlider(); labels: 0 $('select#valueA, select#valueB').selectToUISlider({ labels: 0, sliderOptions: { change:function(e, ui) { alert('changed'+$('select#valueA option').eq(ui.values[0]).text()); alert('changed'+$('select#valueB option').eq(ui.values[1]).text()); } } });

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  • How to increment a value using a C-Preprocessor?

    - by mystify
    Example: I try to do this: static NSInteger stepNum = 1; #define METHODNAME(i) -(void)step##i #define STEP METHODNAME(stepNum++) @implementation Test STEP { // do stuff... [self nextFrame:@selector(step2) afterDelay:1]; } STEP { // do stuff... [self nextFrame:@selector(step3) afterDelay:1]; } STEP { // do stuff... [self nextFrame:@selector(step4) afterDelay:1]; } // ... When building, Xcode complains that it can't increment stepNum. This seems logical to me, because at this time the code is not "alive" and this pre-processing substitution stuff happens before actually compiling the source code. Is there another way I could have an variable be incremented on every usage of STEP macro, the easy way?

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  • Generics limitation, or lack of skillz ?

    - by Two Shoes
    I want to define the following class as such: public class CollectionAttribute<E extends Collection<T>> { private String name; private E value; public CollectionAttribute(String name, E value) { this.name = name; this.value = value; } public E getValue() { return value; } public void addValue(T value) { value.add(T); } } This won't compile (cannot resolve symbol T). If I replace the class declaration with the following: public class CollectionAttribute<E extends Collection<?>> Then I can't reference the parametrized type of the collection. Am I missing something or have I reached a limitation with generics in Java ?

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  • What's the best way to replace the first letter of a string in Java?

    - by froadie
    I'm trying to convert the first letter of a string to lowercase. I know there's a capitalize method, but I want to accomplish the opposite. This is the code I used: value.substring(0,1).toLowerCase() + value.substring(1) Effective, but feels a bit manual. Are there any other ways to do it? Any better ways? Any Java string functions that do it for you? I was thinking of using something like a replace function, but Java's replace doesn't accept an index as a parameter. You have to pass the actual character/substring. Another way I can think of doing it is something like: value.replaceFirst(value.charAt(0), value.charAt(0).toLowerCase()) Except that replaceFirst expects 2 strings, so the value.charAt(0)s would probably need to be replaced with value.substring(0,1)s. Is this any better? Does it matter? Is there any standard way to do this?

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  • is it some bug in firefox or jquery or i doing something wrong?

    - by llamerr
    I want to change hidden input value on div click, so i do following: $('#gallery').click(function(){ if ($('input[name=isgallery]').attr('value') == '0') { $('input[name=isgallery]').attr('value', '1') } else { $('input[name=isgallery]').attr('value', '0') } $('#filterform').attr('action',$('#filterform').attr('act')); alert('ok'); $('#filterform').submit(); } ); when it equals 0 i change it to 1 and otherwise but it did not work and following code works: $('#gallery').click(function(){ if ($('input[name=isgallery]').attr('value') == '0') { $('input[name=isgallery]').attr('value', '0') } else { $('input[name=isgallery]').attr('value', '1') } $('#filterform').attr('action',$('#filterform').attr('act')); alert('ok'); $('#filterform').submit(); } ); and also, when i delete the function at all it still works and form submits maybe i have one more handler for this div, but i can't find one you can check it on http://www.4block.org/en/museum/posters and click "gallery view" on top-right

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  • Use of metadatatype in linq-to-sql

    - by jess
    Hi, I had asked this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2442149/adding-more-attributes-to-linq-to-sql-entity Now, when I add Browsable attribute to generated entity in designer,it works.But,when I use the MetaDataType approach,and add Browsable attribute in partial class,it does not work "I added a MetaDataType class, and added browsable attribute to property,but seems to have no effect"

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  • Sending a message from Objective-C and getting the return value?

    - by Nick Brooks
    I have this code NSString *tr = [self sendUrl:@"http://google.com/"]; But for some reason 'tr' will remain nil after it is executed. What am I doing wrong? sendUrl : - (NSString *)sendUrl:(NSString *) uri { NSLog(@"Requesting URI 1 ..."); // Prepare URL request to download statuses from Twitter NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:uri]]; NSLog(@"Requesting URI 2 ..."); // Perform request and get JSON back as a NSData object NSData *response = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:nil error:nil]; NSLog(@"Requesting URI 3 ..."); // Get JSON as a NSString from NSData response NSString *json_string = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:response encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSLog(@"Requesting URI 4 ..."); return json_string; }

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  • HashMap as return value from Java method in R?

    - by Martin
    Hi, is it possible to return a HashMap to R with the rJava extension of R? E.g. I have a method in Java, which returns a HashMap and I want this HashMap use in R. I tried: .jcall(javaObj, "Ljava/util/HashMap", "getDbInfoMap") This doesn't work. Do I have to put everything into a String[], that I want to pass to R from Java? Or is there another possibility? Any help/info on this would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Definition of domains in mySQL?

    - by mal
    I'm working on a college exercise and have the following question: What is the domain of the "country" table? My understanding of domain is that it defines the possible values of an attribute. This means that the table "country" doesn't have a domain, but the various attributes in the table "country" have their own domains. For example the attribute "SurfaceArea" has the domain FLOAT(10,2) and the attribute "Name" has the domain CHAR(52). Is this correct?

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  • How to properly assign a value to the member of a struct that has a class data type?

    - by sasayins
    Hi, Please kindly see below for the codes. Its compiling successfully but the expected result is not working. Im very confused because my initialization of the array is valid, //cbar.h class CBar { public: class CFoo { public: CFoo( int v ) : m_val = v {} int GetVal() { return m_val; } private: int m_val; }; public: static const CFoo foo1; static const CFoo foo2; public: CBar( CFoo foo ) m_barval( foo.GetVal() ){} int GetFooVal() { return m_barval; } private: int m_barval; }; //cbar.cpp const CBar::CFoo foo1 = CBar::CFoo(2); const CBar::CFoo foo2 = CBar::CFoo(3); //main.cpp struct St { CBar::CFoo foo; }; St st[] = { CBar::foo1, CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } But then when I change the St::foo to a pointer. And like assign the address of CBar::foo1 or CBar::foo2, its working, like this, //main.cpp struct St { const CBar::CFoo *foo; }; St st[] = { &CBar::foo1, &CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( *st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } The real problem is. The app should output 2 3 Please advice. Many thanks.

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  • How to get the string value of a UItextView?

    - by cocos2dbeginner
    Hi, I have a UITextView and a NString; I made this: myS = [myInfoTextView text]; but i get this in the console and not the string which is in the uitextview ( "<UIToolbarTextButton: 0x4d200c0; frame = (6 0; 112 44); opaque = NO; layer = <CALayer: 0x4da5540>>", "<UIToolbarTextButton: 0x4da5bb0; frame = (128 0; 106 44); opaque = NO; layer = <CALayer: 0x4d9e640>>" ) PS: I'm using the iphone sdk 4.2.

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  • Using variables within Attributes in C#

    - by tehp
    We have some Well-Attributed DB code, like so: [Display(Name = "Phone Number")] public string Phone { get; set; } Since it is quite generic we'd like to use it again, but with a different string in the Name part of the attribute. Since it's an attribute it seems to want things to be const, so we tried: const string AddressType = "Student "; [Display(Name = AddressType + "Phone Number")] public string Phone { get; set; } This seems to work alright, except that having a const string means we can't overwrite it in any base classes, thereby removing the functionality that we originally were intending to add, and exposing my question: Is there a way to use some sort of variable inside of an attribute so that we can inherit and keep the attribute decorations?

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