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  • Client validate in MVC 2

    - by khoailang
    Hello, I'm very new in MVC 2, Let say, I have a page with 1 text box and 2 input typed submit, "back" and "next". I'm using client validation like this: "" type="text/javascript"/" " type="text/javascript"/ " type="text/javascript"/ . . . <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); % . . . . . . and validation rule used for that text box is [StringLength(100, ErrorMessage="This field should be no longer than 100")] My wish is that validation rules will be applied only when I click on Next button. And when I click on Back button, no validation error message will be displayed and form will be posted to server. Is it possible to do that? could you please tell me how? My problem now is that when I click Back, validation rules are applied and prevent me from posting back to server.

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  • Inline form editing on client side

    - by bykasif
    I see some web sites use dynamic forms(I am not sure about how to call them!) to edit a group of data. For example: there is a group of data such as name, last name, city, country.etc. when user clicks on EDIT button, instead of doing postback, a form, consisisting of 2 textboxes + 2 comboboxes, dynamically opens to edit,And then when you click on Save button, edit form disappears, and all data updates.. Now, I know what happens over here is using Ajax for server calls and some javascript for dom manipulation.. I even found some jquery plugins for textbox editing.. However, I could not found anything for full implementation of form fields. Therefore I have implemented it on asp.net by jquery ajax calls and dom manipulation manually. here is my process: 1) when Edit button clicked: Make a ajax call to server to retrieve necessary formedit.aspx 2) it returns editable form fields with values assigned. 3) when Save button clicked: make ajax call to server to retrieve formupdateprocess.aspx page. it basically do the database updates and then return necessary DOM snipplet (...) to insert current page.. well it works but MY PROBLEM, is performance.. Result seems slower than samples I see in other sites.:(( IS there anything that I dont know? a better way to implement this??

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  • Basic HTML Internal Link not working in IE8

    - by Eamonn
    This one has me scratching my head. I have a page with several internal links bringing the user down the page to further content. Beneath various sections there are further internal links bringing the user back to the top. This works fine in all browsers apart from IE8 (actual IE8 - not IE9 in IE8 mode) where they work go down, but not coming back up! Examples: <a href="page.php?v=35&amp;u=admin-videos#a">A &ndash; General</a> .... //travelling DOWN the page <h3><strong>A &ndash; General<a name="a"></a></strong></h3> <a name="top"></a> .... //travelling back up <a href="page.php?v=35&amp;u=admin-videos#top">Back to top.</a> I've tried filling the 'top' anchor with &nbsp; but that hasn't changed it. Any ideas? Actual use case: http://databizsolutions.ie/contents/page.php?v=35&u=admin-videos

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  • Stretching across 2 rows in Table Layout

    - by Will03uk
    How do I stretch across 2 columns in the Table Layout. I have 2 rows with a label and edit text on 1 row and I want to have a single button stretch across the whole second row. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TableLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:background="#000000" android:stretchColumns="1"> <TableRow> <TextView android:text = "Name: " /> <EditText android:id = "@+id/txtAddName" android:gravity = "right" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <TextView android:text = "Phone: " /> <EditText android:id = "@+id/txtAddPhone" android:gravity = "right" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <Button android:id = "@+id/btnAdd" android:text = "Add Entrie" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <Button android:id = "@+id/btnShow" android:text = "Show all Entries" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <Button android:id = "@+id/btnDelete" android:text = "Delete all Entries" android:layout_width = "fill_parent" /> </TableRow> </TableLayout>

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  • jQuery ajax only works first time

    - by Michael Itzoe
    I have a table of data that on a button click certain values are saved to the database, while other values are retrieved. I need the process to be continuous, but I can only get it to work the first time. At first I was using .ajax() and .replaceWith() to rewrite the entire table, but because this overwrites the DOM it was losing events associated with the table. I cannot use .live() because I'm using stopPropagation() and .live() doesn't support it due to event bubbling. I was able to essentially re-bind the click event onto the table within the .ajax() callback, but a second call to the button click event did nothing. I changed the code to use .get() for the ajax and .html() to put the results in the table (the server-side code now returns the complete table sans the <table> tags). I no longer have to rebind the click event to the table, but subsequent clicks to the button still do nothing. Finally, I changed it to .load(), but with the same (non-) results. By "do nothing" I mean while the ajax call is returning the new HTML as expected, it's not being applied to the table. I'm sure it has something to do with altering the DOM, but I thought since I'm only overwriting the table contents and not the table object itself, it should work. Obviously I'm missing something; what is it? Edit: HTML: <table id="table1" class="mytable"> <tr> <td><span id="item1" class="myitem"></span> <td><span id="item2" class="myitem"></span> </tr> </table> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Submit" /> jQuery: $( "Button1" ).click( function() { $( "table1" ).load( "data.aspx", function( data ) { //... } ); } );

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  • Java's Swing Threading

    - by nevets1219
    My understanding is that if I start up another thread to perform some actions, I would need to SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait or SwingUtilities.invokeLater to update the GUI while I'm in said thread. Please correct me if I'm wrong. What I'm trying to accomplish is relatively straightforward: when the user clicks submit, I want to (before performing any actions) disable the submit button, perform the action, and at the end of the action re-enable the button. My method to perform the action updates the GUI directly (displays results) when it gets the results back. This action basically queries a server and gets some results back. What I have so far is: boolean isRunning = false; synchronized handleButtonClick() { if ( isRunning == false ) { button.setEnabled( false ); isRunning = true; doAction(); } } doAction() { new Thread() { try { doAction(); // Concern A } catch ( ... ) { displayStackTrace( ... ); // Concern B } finally { SwingUtilities.invokeLater ( /* simple Runnable to enable button */ ); isRunning = false; } } } For both of my concerns above, do I would have to use SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait since they both will update the GUI? All GUI updates revolve around updating JTextPane. Do I need to in my thread check if I'm on EDT and if so I can call my code (regardless of whether it updates the GUI or not) and NOT use SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait?

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  • android progressBar problem

    - by kostas
    hi.i have a button that on click is loading rss feed.i want to load a progress bar until my list opens.i have created a progressbar,it works,but as i press the return button to return to the main menu the progress bar appears again and it doesnt stop(and not even let me see my menu).this is my code ProgressBar myProgressBar; int myProgress = 0; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main1); Button nea = (Button) findViewById(R.id.nea); nea.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick (View view) { setContentView(R.layout.bar); myProgressBar=(ProgressBar)findViewById(R.id.bar); new Thread(myThread).start(); Intent myIntent = new Intent(view.getContext(), nea.class); startActivityForResult(myIntent, 0); } }); } and then,out of the onCreate private Runnable myThread = new Runnable(){ @Override public void run() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub while (myProgress<100){ try{ myHandle.sendMessage(myHandle.obtainMessage()); Thread.sleep(1000); } catch(Throwable t){ } } } Handler myHandle = new Handler(){ public void handleMessage(Message msg) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub myProgress++; myProgressBar.setProgress(myProgress); } }; };

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  • iPhone dev: UIBarButtonItem or title not showing up in NavigationBar

    - by IceMan85
    Hello everyone, here my problem. I have a NavigationBar at the top, a TabBar at the bottom and a TableView at the center of the screen. Very normal situation. I set it all up in IB and I have set this in the app delegate : ExpensesListNavController *expensesListNavController; This in order to be able to add new views to the stack. I need to have 3 levels: - list of items in a TableView - OK - firstLevel: once pressed one cell a view is added to the stack - OK - second level: one pressed the "modify" button on the navBar on the firstLevel I want to show a new view that can be customized by the user. My Problem is coming when trying to add the "Modify" button in the "firstLevelView". Here-below my code -(IBAction) modify:(id)sender { if (editableDetailViewController == nil) { editableDetailViewController = [[editableDetailViewController alloc] init]; } editableDetailViewController.expense = expense; [appDelegate.expensesListNavController pushViewController:editableDetailViewController animated:YES]; editableDetailViewController = nil; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UIBarButtonItem *modifyButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Modify" style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:self action:@selector(modify:)]; appDelegate.expensesListNavController.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = modifyButton; appDelegate.expensesListNavController.navigationItem.title = @"Titoloooo"; NSLog(@"NavBar button has just been set !!"); [modifyButton release]; Nothing is being showed, neither title nor the button. Do you have any idea of what is happening ?? I really cannot figure out !!! Thanks a lot in advance, AM

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  • TCP/IP RST being sent differently in different browsers.

    - by Brian
    On Mac OS X (10.6), if I start a YouTube video download and pull the Ethernet cable for 5 or so seconds, then plug it back in, I get varying results depending on the browser. With Opera and Chrome, after I plug the cable back in the video continues to load. But with Safari and Firefox, it never does. Using Wireshark to look at the traffic, I found that Opera and Chrome simply ACK the first packet from YouTube after the cable has been plugged back in, but Safari and Firefox set the RST flag (0x4) in the TCP header and no more traffic follows. I can put a HUB in between the machine and the internet connection, the problem goes away and all four browsers continue loading the video when the cable is plugged back into the HUB. Again, looking at the Wireshark logs, it's evident that the machine doesn't see the Mulitcast connection close and there is simply a delay in the packets flowing through. So it seems that if Safari and Firefox sees a Multicast connection close, and then later see data on that same connection, they will send a RST. My question is why? What is the correct course of action, and why are 2/4 browsers doing it one way, while the other 2/4 are doing it another way? Is there somewhere in the code that I can see where this is happening in Firefox, for instance? Thank you very much.

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  • Can't get my Jscrollpane working in my Jtextarea

    - by Bobski
    I've looked around quite a lot on google and followed several examples however I can't seem to get my JScrollPane working on a textarea in a JPanel. import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.*; import java.lang.*; import javax.swing.event.*; class main { public static void main(String Args[]) { frame f1 = new frame(); } } class frame extends JFrame { JButton B = new JButton("B"); JButton button = new JButton("A"); JTextArea E = new JTextArea("some lines", 10, 20); JScrollPane scrollBar = new JScrollPane(E); JPanel grid = new JPanel (); frame() { setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); setSize(500,800); setTitle("Mobile Phone App"); setLocationRelativeTo(null); E.setLineWrap(true); E.setEditable(false); grid.add(button); button.addActionListener(new action()); grid.add(B); B.addActionListener(new action()); //grid.add(E); grid.getContentPane().add(scrollBar); add(grid); setVisible(true); } class action implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { String V = E.getText(); if(e.getSource() == button) { E.setText(V + "A is pressed"); } if(e.getSource() == B) { E.setText(V + "B is pressed"); } } } } Would be great if someone can see where I am going wrong. I added JscrollPane in which I added the text area "e" in it.

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  • jQuery / Javascript if statement speed

    - by Sam
    Given: var isIE = $.browser.msie && !$.support.opacity, isIE6 = isIE && $.browser.version < 7; Which would be faster: if(isIE6){ doSomething(); } else { doSomethingElse(); } OR if(!isIE6){ doSomethingElse(); } else { doSomething(); } Are they exactly the same in terms of speed?

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  • Sorted queue with dropping out elements

    - by ffriend
    I have a list of jobs and queue of workers waiting for these jobs. All the jobs are the same, but workers are different and sorted by their ability to perform the job. That is, first person can do this job best of all, second does it just a little bit worse and so on. Job is always assigned to the person with the highest skills from those who are free at that moment. When person is assigned a job, he drops out of the queue for some time. But when he is done, he gets back to his position. So, for example, at some moment in time worker queue looks like: [x, x, .83, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] where x's stand for missing workers and numbers show skill level of left workers. When there's a new job, it is assigned to 3rd worker as the one with highest skill of available workers. So next moment queue looks like: [x, x, x, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] Let's say, that at this moment worker #2 finishes his job and gets back to the list: [x, .91, x, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] I hope the process is completely clear now. My question is what algorithm and data structure to use to implement quick search and deletion of worker and insertion back to his position. For the moment the best approach I can see is to use Fibonacci heap that have amortized O(log n) for deleting minimal element (assigning job and deleting worker from queue) and O(1) for inserting him back, which is pretty good. But is there even better algorithm / data structure that possibly take into account the fact that elements are already sorted and only drop of the queue from time to time?

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  • writing javascripts function using jquery

    - by tazim
    Some template written using jquery is as follows . it is not working . Any suggestions to use jquery efficiently . <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="/jquerycall/"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { self.setInterval("clock()",1000); $("button").click(function() { clock; }); function clock() { clock(); time=new Date(); var s = "<p>" + time + "</p>"; $(s).appendTo("div"); } }); </script> </head> <body> <form method="post"> <button type="button">Click Me</button> <div id="someid"></div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • How do I insert this subclass into my code?

    - by BamsBamx
    This is a very noob question so I hope you can help me with this... This is my built code: public class PantallaOpciones extends PreferenceActivity { private SharedPreferences preferences; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { preferences = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(this); findPreference("speechkeycode").setOnPreferenceClickListener(keycodedialog); Preference.OnPreferenceClickListener keycodedialog = new Preference.OnPreferenceClickListener(){ public boolean onPreferenceClick(Preference preference){ keycodedialog(); return false; }}; } private void keycodedialog(){ final Dialog dialog = new Dialog(this); dialog.setContentView(R.layout.keycodedialog); dialog.setTitle("Speech keycode"); final TextView keypresstext = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.keypresstext); Button savekeycode = (Button) dialog.findViewById(R.id.btnsavekeycode); savekeycode.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { dialog.dismiss(); } }); Button resetkeycode = (Button) dialog.findViewById(R.id.btnresetvalue); resetkeycode.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { dialog.dismiss(); } }); dialog.show(); } Okay, now I want to add this code to dialog: public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { //SOME STUFF return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); } So I want to listen to a keypress when dialog is opened and show the keycode of hardware press by using textview.settext()... The question is: how do I insert public boolean onKeyDown into the dialog??? Thanks in advance!! :)

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  • How to run <script src= > tag from javascript

    - by Gleeb
    I am having some difficulties implementing Paypal buttons with backbone.js The problem is that the button is implemented in a script tag: <script src="paypal-button.min.js?merchant=YOUR_MERCHANT_ID" data-button="buynow" data-name="My product" data-amount="1.00"></script> which i cant run from Handlebars.js because the </script> tag is closing the handlebars <script> I cant use eval(), or i don't understand how i am supposed to do that with the . So there you have it. i am kind of stuck. I am out of ideas on how to implement this button with backbone.js the last resort is to ask the server to produce html pages with the script in them and then load them to the page. i am just refusing to believe that JavaScript has no way to take care of this. Please help. This question relates to another question i asked in this subject. Is it possible to use JavaScript inside handlebars.js template Thank you.

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  • SINGLE SIGN ON SECURITY THREAT! FACEBOOK access_token broadcast in the open/clear

    - by MOKANA
    Subsequent to my posting there was a remark made that this was not really a question but I thought I did indeed postulate one. So that there is no ambiquity here is the question with a lead in: Since there is no data sent from Facebook during the Canvas Load process that is not at some point divulged, including the access_token, session and other data that could uniquely identify a user, does any one see any other way other than adding one more layer, i.e., a password, sent over the wire via HTTPS along with the access_toekn, that will insure unique untampered with security by the user? Using Wireshark I captured the local broadcast while loading my Canvas Application page. I was hugely surprised to see the access_token broadcast in the open, viewable for any one to see. This access_token is appended to any https call to the Facebook OpenGraph API. Using facebook as a single click log on has now raised huge concerns for me. It is stored in a session object in memory and the cookie is cleared upon app termination and after reviewing the FB.Init calls I saw a lot of HTTPS calls so I assumed the access_token was always encrypted. But last night I saw in the status bar a call from what was simply an http call that included the App ID so I felt I should sniff the Application Canvas load sequence. Today I did sniff the broadcast and in the attached image you can see that there are http calls with the access_token being broadcast in the open and clear for anyone to gain access to. Am I missing something, is what I am seeing and my interpretation really correct. If any one can sniff and get the access_token they can theorically make calls to the Graph API via https, even though the call back would still need to be the site established in Facebook's application set up. But what is truly a security threat is anyone using the access_token for access to their own site. I do not see the value of a single sign on via Facebook if the only thing that was established as secure was the access_token - becuase for what I can see it clearly is not secure. Access tokens that never have an expire date do not change. Access_tokens are different for every user, to access to another site could be held tight to just a single user, but compromising even a single user's data is unacceptable. http://www.creatingstory.com/images/InTheOpen.png Went back and did more research on this: FINDINGS: Went back an re ran the canvas application to verify that it was not any of my code that was not broadcasting. In this call: HTTP GET /connect.php/en_US/js/CacheData HTTP/1.1 The USER ID is clearly visible in the cookie. So USER_ID's are fully visible, but they are already. Anyone can go to pretty much any ones page and hover over the image and see the USER ID. So no big threat. APP_ID are also easily obtainable - but . . . http://www.creatingstory.com/images/InTheOpen2.png The above file clearly shows the FULL ACCESS TOKEN clearly in the OPEN via a Facebook initiated call. Am I wrong. TELL ME I AM WRONG because I want to be wrong about this. I have since reset my app secret so I am showing the real sniff of the Canvas Page being loaded. Additional data 02/20/2011: @ifaour - I appreciate the time you took to compile your response. I am pretty familiar with the OAuth process and have a pretty solid understanding of the signed_request unpacking and utilization of the access_token. I perform a substantial amount of my processing on the server and my Facebook server side flows are all complete and function without any flaw that I know of. The application secret is secure and never passed to the front end application and is also changed regularly. I am being as fanatical about security as I can be, knowing there is so much I don’t know that could come back and bite me. Two huge access_token issues: The issues concern the possible utilization of the access_token from the USER AGENT (browser). During the FB.INIT() process of the Facebook JavaScript SDK, a cookie is created as well as an object in memory called a session object. This object, along with the cookie contain the access_token, session, a secret, and uid and status of the connection. The session object is structured such that is supports both the new OAuth and the legacy flows. With OAuth, the access_token and status are pretty much al that is used in the session object. The first issue is that the access_token is used to make HTTPS calls to the GRAPH API. If you had the access_token, you could do this from any browser: https://graph.facebook.com/220439?access_token=... and it will return a ton of information about the user. So any one with the access token can gain access to a Facebook account. You can also make additional calls to any info the user has granted access to the application tied to the access_token. At first I thought that a call into the GRAPH had to have a Callback to the URL established in the App Setup, but I tested it as mentioned below and it will return info back right into the browser. Adding that callback feature would be a good idea I think, tightens things up a bit. The second issue is utilization of some unique private secured data that identifies the user to the third party data base, i.e., like in my case, I would use a single sign on to populate user information into my database using this unique secured data item (i.e., access_token which contains the APP ID, the USER ID, and a hashed with secret sequence). None of this is a problem on the server side. You get a signed_request, you unpack it with secret, make HTTPS calls, get HTTPS responses back. When a user has information entered via the USER AGENT(browser) that must be stored via a POST, this unique secured data element would be sent via HTTPS such that they are validated prior to data base insertion. However, If there is NO secured piece of unique data that is supplied via the single sign on process, then there is no way to guarantee unauthorized access. The access_token is the one piece of data that is utilized by Facebook to make the HTTPS calls into the GRAPH API. it is considered unique in regards to BOTH the USER and the APPLICATION and is initially secure via the signed_request packaging. If however, it is subsequently transmitted in the clear and if I can sniff the wire and obtain the access_token, then I can pretend to be the application and gain the information they have authorized the application to see. I tried the above example from a Safari and IE browser and it returned all of my information to me in the browser. In conclusion, the access_token is part of the signed_request and that is how the application initially obtains it. After OAuth authentication and authorization, i.e., the USER has logged into Facebook and then runs your app, the access_token is stored as mentioned above and I have sniffed it such that I see it stored in a Cookie that is transmitted over the wire, resulting in there being NO UNIQUE SECURED IDENTIFIABLE piece of information that can be used to support interaction with the database, or in other words, unless there were one more piece of secure data sent along with the access_token to my database, i.e., a password, I would not be able to discern if it is a legitimate call. Luckily I utilized secure AJAX via POST and the call has to come from the same domain, but I am sure there is a way to hijack that. I am totally open to any ideas on this topic on how to uniquely identify my USERS other than adding another layer (password) via this single sign on process or if someone would just share with me that I read and analyzed my data incorrectly and that the access_token is always secure over the wire. Mahalo nui loa in advance.

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  • Editable, growable DataGrid that retains values on postback and updates underlying DataTable

    - by jlstrecker
    I'm trying to create an ASP.NET/C# page that allows the user to edit a table of data, add rows to it, and save the data back to the database. For the table of data, I'm using a DataGrid whose cells contain TextBoxes or CheckBoxes. I have a button for adding rows (which works) and a button for saving the data. However, I'm quite stuck on two things: The TextBoxes and CheckBoxes should retain their values on postback. So if the user edits a TextBox and clicks the button to add more rows, the edits should be retained when the page reloads. However, the edits should not be saved to the database at this point. When the user clicks the save button, or anytime before, the DataTable underlying the DataGrid needs to be updated with the values of the TextBoxes and CheckBoxes so that the DataTable can be sent to the database. I have a method that does this, but I can't figure out when to call it. Any help getting this to work, or suggestions of alternative user interfaces that would behave similarly, would be appreciated.

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  • <input type="file"> reads only file name not full path

    - by Deep
    I am using Glassfish Server.I have seen the apache file upload to solve it...but i want to implement it in glassfish server. image.html <form action="" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> Select a file: <input type="file" name="first" id="first"/> <br /> <input type="button" name="button" value="upload" id="button" /> <p id="test"></p> <img src='Unknown.png' id="profile_img" height="200px" width="150px"/> </form> test.js $(document).ready(function() { var filepath= $("#first"); $('#button').click(function() { $.ajax({ type: "post", url: "imageservlet", data: "user="+filepath.val(), success: function(msg) { $("#profile_img").attr('src',msg); $("#test").html(msg) .fadeIn("fast"); } }); }); }); imageservlet.java String user=request.getParameter("user"); out.print(user); the output is file name not full path.

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  • AngularJS not validating email field in form

    - by idipous
    I have the html below where I have a form that I want to submit to the AngularJS Controller. <div class="newsletter color-1" id="subscribe" data-ng-controller="RegisterController"> <form name="registerForm"> <div class="col-md-6"> <input type="email" placeholder="[email protected]" data-ng-model="userEmail" required class="subscribe"> </div> <div class="col-md-2"> <button data-ng-click="register()" class="btn btn-primary pull-right btn-block">Subsbcribe</button> </div> </form> </div> And the controller is below app.controller('RegisterController', function ($scope,dataFactory) { $scope.users = dataFactory.getUsers(); $scope.register = function () { var userEmail = $scope.userEmail; dataFactory.insertUser(userEmail); $scope.userEmail = null; $scope.ThankYou = "Thank You!"; } }); The problem is that no validation is taking place when I click the button. It is always routed to the controller although I do not supply a correct email. So every time I click the button I get the {{ThankYou}} variable displayed. Maybe I do not understand something.

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  • Passing models between controllers in MVC4

    - by wtfsven
    I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

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  • JQUERY - how Two elements - IMG - DIV when hover over IMG show/hide the DIV - added with hover hide/

    - by Jan Fosgerau
    Im very new to the wonder that is jquery. and i just figure out how to make my img buttons show/hide with a opacity difference (as such) <script type="text/javascript"> <![CDATA[ $(".ExcommKnap").mouseover(function () { $(this).stop().fadeTo('fast', 0.5, function(){}) }); $(".ExcommKnap").mouseout(function () { $(this).stop().fadeTo('fast', 1.0, function(){}) }); ]]> </script> which is good and all. but i also need to make the button when hovered over show text just above it that is specific to that button. i made these here elements that are looped in a for each. <div style="top:10px; width:755px;text-align:right; position:absolute; "> <div id="Page-{@id}" class="headlinebox"> <xsl:value-of select="@nodeName"/> </div> </div> <a href="{umbraco.library:NiceUrl(@id)}"> <img class="ExcommKnap" src="{$media/data[@alias='umbracoFile']}" /> </a> i need to make the individual text appear when hovered over its button. hence i have the id="page-{@id}" looped out along and need to get this place in the jquery code i presume. so when i hover over a img class="ExcommKnap" it makes the correct text visible. But i need the div id="page-{id}" to be invisible to begin with on pageload and then visible when its button is being hovered over. can anyone help ?

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  • Add Source file link to the default ASP.NET Server Error page?

    - by Max Schilling
    Has anyone ever thought to attempt to modify the default ASP.NET Server error page to provide a link BACK to the error source in Visual Studio? Consider the following standard error page in ASP.NET: Server Error in '/myproject' Application. Invalid object name 'usp_DoSomething'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'usp_DoSomething'. Source Error: Line 4323: cmd.CommandText = "usp_DoSomething"; Line 4324: Line 4325: using (var dr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) Line 4326: { Line 4327: if (dr != null) Source File: c:\development\myproject\myproject.components\providers\sql\sqldataprovider.cs Line: 4325 When an error like this is generated, the HTML has the source back to the file the error occurs in and the line number. Has anyone ever written or thought of writing some mechanism to turn the text into a link back to the error in Visual Studio? I've never seen anything that does it, but it just seems like it would be a helluva nice feature and I think about it in the back of my mind every time an error occurs when I have to manually go find it in the source. It would just be nice to be able to click a link to take me straight there. Anyone written any, or know of any solutions for this. I use Chrome or Firefox as my browsers of choice, but I'd even consider using IE again if someone found a plugin that did this. Thanks, Max

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