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  • Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

    - by Pandafox
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

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  • Is it possible to load an assembly targeting a different .NET runtime version in a new app domain?

    - by Notre
    Hello, I've an application that is based on .NET 2 runtime. I want to add a little bit of support for .NET 4 but don't want to (in the short term), convert the whole application (which is very large) to target .NET 4. I tried the 'obvious' approach of creating an application .config file, having this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" /> </startup> but I ran into some problems that I noted here. I got the idea of creating a separate app domain. To test it, I created a WinForm project targeting .NET 2. I then created a class library targeting .NET 4. In my WinForm project, I added the following code: AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup(); setup.ApplicationBase = "path to .NET 4 assembly"; setup.ConfigurationFile = System.Environment.CurrentDirectory + "\\DotNet4AppDomain.exe.config"; // Set up the Evidence Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence(baseEvidence); // Create the AppDomain AppDomain dotNet4AppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("DotNet4AppDomain", evidence, setup); try { Assembly doNet4Assembly = dotNet4AppDomain.Load( new AssemblyName("MyDotNet4Assembly, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=66f0dac1b575e793")); MessageBox.Show(doNet4Assembly.FullName); } finally { AppDomain.Unload(dotNet4AppDomain); } My DotNet4AppDomain.exe.config file looks like this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" /> </startup> Unfortunately, this throws the BadImageFormatException when dotNet4AppDomain.Load is executed. Am I doing something wrong in my code, or is what I'm trying to do just not going to work? Thank you!

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  • no such file to load -- rubygems (LoadError)

    - by Vineeth
    Hello, I recently installed rails in fedora 12. I'm new to linux as well. Everything works fine on Windows 7. But I'm facing lot of problems in linux. Help please! I've installed all the essentials to my knowledge to get the basic script/server up and running. I have this error from boot.rb popping up when I try script/server. Some of the details I'd like to give here: The directories where rails, ruby and gem are installed, [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ which ruby /usr/local/bin/ruby [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ which rails /usr/bin/rails [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ which gem /usr/bin/gem And when I run the script/server, this is the error. [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ script/server ./script/../config/boot.rb:9:in `require': no such file to load -- rubygems (LoadError) from ./script/../config/boot.rb:9 from script/server:2:in `require' from script/server:2 And the PATH file looks like this [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ cat ~/.bash_profile # .bash_profile # Get the aliases and functions if [ -f ~/.bashrc ]; then . ~/.bashrc fi # User specific environment and startup programs PATH=$PATH:$HOME/bin export PATH="/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/bin/ruby:$PATH" I suppose it is something to do with the PATH file. Let me know what I need to change here. If there are other changes I should make, please let me know, Thanks

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  • Orphan IBM JVM process

    - by Nicholas Key
    Hi people, I have this issue about orphan IBM JVM process being created in the process tree: For example: C:\Program Files\IBM\WebSphere\AppServer\bin>wsadmin -lang jython -f "C:\Hello.py" Hello.py has the simple implementation: import time i = 0 while (1): i = i + 1 print "Hello World " + str(i) time.sleep(3.0) My machine has such JVM information: C:\Program Files\WebSphere\java\bin>java -verbose:sizes -version -Xmca32K RAM class segment increment -Xmco128K ROM class segment increment -Xmns0K initial new space size -Xmnx0K maximum new space size -Xms4M initial memory size -Xmos4M initial old space size -Xmox1624995K maximum old space size -Xmx1624995K memory maximum -Xmr16K remembered set size -Xlp4K large page size available large page sizes: 4K 4M -Xmso256K operating system thread stack size -Xiss2K java thread stack initial size -Xssi16K java thread stack increment -Xss256K java thread stack maximum size java version "1.6.0" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build pwi3260sr6ifix-20091015_01(SR6+152211+155930+156106)) IBM J9 VM (build 2.4, JRE 1.6.0 IBM J9 2.4 Windows Server 2003 x86-32 jvmwi3260sr6-20091001_43491 (JIT enabled, AOT enabled) J9VM - 20091001_043491 JIT - r9_20090902_1330ifx1 GC - 20090817_AA) JCL - 20091006_01 While the program is running, I tried to kill it and subsequently I found an orphan IBM JVM process in the process tree. Is there a way to fix this issue? Why is there an orphan process in the first place? Is there something wrong with my code? I really don't believe that my simplistic code is wrongly implemented. Any suggestions?

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  • Capturing window image in windows server 2008

    - by Sergey Osypchuk
    I am capturing output of windows program using following function: public static Bitmap Get(IntPtr hWnd, int X1, int Y1, int width, int height) { WINDOWINFO winInfo = new WINDOWINFO(); bool ret = GetWindowInfo(hWnd, ref winInfo); if (!ret) { return null; } int curheight = height; if (curheight <= 0 || curheight > winInfo.rcWindow.Height) curheight = winInfo.rcWindow.Height; int curwidth = width; if (curwidth <= 0 || curwidth > winInfo.rcWindow.Width) curwidth = winInfo.rcWindow.Width; if (curheight == 0 || curwidth == 0) return null; Graphics frmGraphics = Graphics.FromHwnd(hWnd); IntPtr hDC = GetWindowDC(hWnd); //gets the entire window //IntPtr hDC = frmGraphics.GetHdc(); -- gets the client area, no menu bars, etc.. System.Drawing.Bitmap tmpBitmap = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(curwidth, curheight, frmGraphics); Graphics bmGraphics = Graphics.FromImage(tmpBitmap); IntPtr bmHdc = bmGraphics.GetHdc(); BitBlt(bmHdc, 0, 0, curwidth, curheight, hDC, X1, Y1, TernaryRasterOperations.SRCCOPY); bmGraphics.ReleaseHdc(bmHdc); ReleaseDC(hWnd, hDC); return tmpBitmap; } On Development environment everything is excellent, but on windows server 2008 I have following issues: 1) When there is other window in front my - it is getting captured as well 2) When there is no user connected to RDC - image is black On other hand, I am able to render webpage images using IE. How I can change behaviour of windows rendering process to get proper results?

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  • NOT A DUPLICATE! VS2010 - How to automatically stop compile on first compile error

    - by Ben Robbins
    {rant}First I'd like to say that this IS NOT A DUPLICATE. I've asked this question previously but it got closed as a duplicate when it isn't. This question is SPECIFIC to VS 2010 and the answers to the so-called duplicate work in VS 2008 but not in VS 2010 (at least not for me or anyone I know). So before you go closing something as a duplicate how about you read the question carefully and try the answer for yourself and see if it actually works. Apologies for the rant but there is no obvious way to contact the SO police that closed the issue or get it reopened. {/rant} At work we have a C# solution with over 80 projects. In VS 2008 we use a macro to stop the compile as soon as a project in the solution fails to build (see this question for several options for VS 2005 & VS 2008: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134796/how-to-automatically-stop-visual-c-build-at-first-compile-error). Is it possible to do the same in VS 2010? What we have found is that in VS 2010 the macros don't work (at least I couldn't get them to work) as it appears that the environment events don't fire in VS 2010. The default behaviour is to continue as far as possible and display a list of errors in the error window. I'm happy for it to stop either as soon as an error is encountered (file-level) or as soon as a project fails to build (project-level). Answers for VS 2010 only please. If the macros do work then a detailed explanation of how to configure them for VS 2010 would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

    - by jon hanson
    A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

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  • Installing Sphinx on App Engine - possible?

    - by Pekka
    Following up on my last year's question on documentation, I now want to get started and try out Python-based Sphinx for putting together the developer documentation for a PHP CMS I've been working on. Instead of setting up Python locally on my workstation, I would like to run it on a publicly accessible web server from the start. All the web hosting packages I have access to run on the LAMP stack, and I'm reluctant to buy Python-based hosting. I am very interested in the Google App Engine, the free quotas they provide will do for me a hundred times over, and even if not, their pricing looks very reasonable. Now I have zero knowledge of Python - getting Sphinx to work would be my first contact with it - and very little time. As far as I understand, the platform and python libraries the App Engine provides are very compatible to a standard Python library but not identical. So my question is: Can Sphinx run on App Engine at all? Is installing Sphinx on the App Engine as straightforward as if I would install it on top of a normal Python installation? Or will the App Engine's environment require tweaking of the source code that I can't perform in reasonable time with my current level of Python? Should I be installing Sphinx on a local server and a "normal" Python stack instead first? Does anybody know any helpful How-to's, tutorials or other resources for this?

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  • SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

    - by Adam
    Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

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  • SQL Server database change workflow best practices

    - by kubi
    The Background My group has 4 SQL Server Databases: Production UAT Test Dev I work in the Dev environment. When the time comes to promote the objects I've been working on (tables, views, functions, stored procs) I make a request of my manager, who promotes to Test. After testing, she submits a request to an Admin who promotes to UAT. After successful user testing, the same Admin promotes to Production. The Problem The entire process is awkward for a few reasons. Each person must manually track their changes. If I update, add, remove any objects I need to track them so that my promotion request contains everything I've done. In theory, if I miss something testing or UAT should catch it, but this isn't certain and it's a waste of the tester's time, anyway. Lots of changes I make are iterative and done in a GUI, which means there's no record of what changes I made, only the end result (at least as far as I know). We're in the fairly early stages of building out a data mart, so the majority of the changes made, at least count-wise, are minor things: changing the data type for a column, altering the names of tables as we crystallize what they'll be used for, tweaking functions and stored procs, etc. The Question People have been doing this kind of work for decades, so I imagine there have got to be a much better way to manage the process. What I would love is if I could run a diff between two databases to see how the structure was different, use that diff to generate a change script, use that change script as my promotion request. Is this possible? If not, are there any other ways to organize this process? For the record, we're a 100% Microsoft shop, just now updating everything to SQL Server 2008, so any tools available in that package would be fair game.

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  • SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

    - by pcampbell
    Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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  • XSLT 1.0 : Iterate over characters in a string

    - by subtenante
    I need to iterate over the characters in a string to build an XML structure. Currently, I am doing this : <xsl:template name="verticalize"> <xsl:param name="text">Some text</xsl:param> <xsl:for-each select="tokenize(replace(replace($text,'(.)','$1\\n'),'\\n$',''),'\\n')"> <xsl:element name="para"> <xsl:value-of select="."/> </xsl:element> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> This produces something like : <para>S</para> <para>o</para> <para>m</para> <para>e</para> <para> </para> <para>t</para> <para>e</para> <para>x</para> <para>t</para> This works fine with Xpath 2.0. But I need to apply the same treatment in a XPath 1.0 environment, where the replace() method is not available. Do you know a way to achieve this ?

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  • Cheapest way to to determine if a MySQL connection is still alive

    - by MtnViewMark
    I have a pool of MySQL connections for a web-based data service. When it starts to service a request, it takes a connection from the pool to use. The problem is that if there has been a significant pause since that particular connection has been used, the server may have timed it out and closed its end. I'd like to be able to detect this in the pool management code. The trick is this: The environment in which I'm coding gives me only a very abstact API into the connection. I can basically only execute SQL statements. I don't have access to the actual socket or direct access to the MySQL client API. So, the question is: What is the cheapest MySQL statement I can execute on the connection to determine if it is working. For example SELECT 1; should work, but I'm wondering if there is something even cheaper? Perhaps something that doesn't even got across the wire, but is handled in the MySQL client lib and effectively answers the same question?

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  • NULL-keys for key/value table

    - by user72185
    (Using Oracle) I have a table with key/value pairs like this: create table MESSAGE_INDEX ( KEY VARCHAR2(256) not null, VALUE VARCHAR2(4000) not null, MESSAGE_ID NUMBER not null ) I now want to find all the messages where key = 'someKey' and value is 'val1', 'val2' or 'val3' - OR value is null in which case there will be no entry in the table at all. This is to save space; there would be a large number of keys with null values if I stored them all. I think this works: SELECT message_id FROM message_index idx WHERE ((key = 'someKey' AND value IN ('val1', 'val2', 'val3')) OR NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM message_index WHERE key = 'someKey' AND idx.message_id = message_id)) But is is extremely slow. Takes 8 seconds with 700K records in message_index and there will be many more records and more search criteria when moving outside of my test environment. Primary key is key, value, message_id: add constraint PK_KEY_VALUE primary key (KEY, VALUE, MESSAGE_ID) And I added another index for message_id, to speed up searching for missing keys: create index IDX_MESSAGE_ID on MESSAGE_INDEX (MESSAGE_ID) I will be doing several of these key/value lookups in every search, not just one as shown above. So far I am doing them nested, where output id's of one level is the input to the next. E.g.: SELECT message_id from message_index WHERE (key/value compare) AND message_id IN ( SELECT ... and so on ) What can I do to speed this up?

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  • How can I set up an editor to work with Git on Windows?

    - by Patrick McElhaney
    I'm trying out Git on Windows. I got to the point of trying "git commit" and I got this error: Terminal is dumb but no VISUAL nor EDITOR defined. Please supply the message using either -m or -F option. So I figured out I need to have an environment variable called EDITOR. No problem. I set it to point to Notepad. That worked, almost. The default commit message opens in Notepad. But Notepad doesn't support bare line feeds. I went out and got Notepad++. But I can't figure out how to get Notepad++ set up as the %EDITOR% in such a way that it works with Git as expected. I'm not married to Notepad++. At this point I couldn't care less what editor I use. I just want to be able to type my commit messages without using -m. So, for those of you using Git on Windows: What (free) tool do you use to edit your commit message, and what do you get when you type echo %EDITOR% at the command prompt?

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  • Java runs out of memory, even though I give it plenty!

    - by spitzanator
    Hey, folks. So, I'm running a java server (specifically Winstone: http://winstone.sourceforge.net/ ) Like this: java -server -Xmx12288M -jar /usr/share/java/winstone-0.9.10.jar --useSavedSessions=false --webappsDir=/var/servlets --commonLibFolder=/usr/share/java This has worked fine in the past, but now it needs to load a bunch more stuff into memory than it has before. The odd part is that, according to 'top', it has 15.0g of VIRT(ual memory) and it's RES(ident set) is 8.4g. Once it hits 8.4g, the CPU hangs at 100% (even though it's loading from disk), and eventually, I get Java's OutOfMemoryError. Presumably, the CPU hanging at 100% is Java doing garbage collection. So, my question is, what gives? I gave it 12 gigs of memory! And it's only using 8.2 gigs before it throws in the towel. What am I doing wrong? Oh, and I'm using java version "1.6.0_07" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_07-b06) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 10.0-b23, mixed mode) on Linux. Thanks, Matt

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  • Unable to change URL for .NET reference to dynamic web service

    - by Malvineous
    Hi all, I have a web reference added to a C# .NET project. The URL for the web reference needs to change depending on whether I'm building for a development, staging or production environment. I've set the web service to be dynamic, which supposedly means it takes the URL from my app.config file. When I perform a build it overwrites the app.config with the required file which contains the correct URL (different file for each of dev/staging/production.) I then go into the solution properties and make sure the Settings.settings file is updated with the app.config changes. However when I view the properties for the web service, it is still showing the old URL, despite it being dynamic, and supposed to be reading from my settings file (even after closing and reopening the project/solution.) The app.config and the settings file all have the new URL, but the web reference doesn't notice it has changed. If I do a build it ignores the URL in the settings file and tries to connect to the last URL manually typed into the web reference's properties. Typing a URL into these properties correctly updates the app.config and .settings files, so the link is definitely there. I'm a bit new to .NET but it seems to me the purpose of setting the service to be dynamic is so that you can change the URL elsewhere, but when I do this it just gets ignored! Am I doing something wrong?

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  • Approach for fixing NoClassDefFoundError?

    - by DJC
    I'm seeing this question is getting asked a lot in many different contexts. Perhaps we can set some strategies for locating and fixing it? I'm noobish myself so all I can contribute are horror stories and questions, sorry... It seems this is thrown when a class is visible at compile time but not at run time... how can this happen? In my case I am developing an app that uses the Google APIs, in Eclipse, for the Android platform. I've configured the Project Properties / Java Build Path / Libraries to include the gdata .jars and all is well. When I execute in the emulator I get a force close and the logcat shows a NoClassDefFoundError on a simple new ContactsService("myApp"); I've also tried a new CalendarService("myApp") with the same results. Is it possible or desirable to statically bind at compile time to avoid the problem? How could dynamic binding of an add-on library work in the mobile environment anyway? Either it has to be bound into my .apk or else I need to "install" it? ... hmmm. Advice much appreciated.

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  • unable to compile a servlet in ubuntu

    - by codeomnitrix
    I am newbie to j2ee. I have download and installed j2eesdk-1_4_03-linux.bin in my ubuntu 10.04 distribution. and then i tried to code my first servlet in it as: import java.io.*; import javax.servelet.*; import javax.servelet.http.*; public class HowdyServelet extends HttpServelet{ public void doGet(HttpServeletRequest request, HttpServeletResponse response) throws IOException, ServeletException{ PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); out.println("<html>"); out.println("<head><title>howdy</title></head>"); out.println("<body>"); out.println("<center><h1>Howdy</h1></center>"); out.println("</body>"); out.println("</html>"); } } and here are the environment variables i set after installation: 1. J2EE_HOME=/home/vinit/SUNWappserver 2. JAVA_HOME=/home/vinit/SUNWappserver/jdk 3. CLASSPATH=/home/vinit/SUNWappserver/lib and now i tried to compile the servlet using javac HowdyServelet.java But i got following errors: HowdyServelet.java:2: package javax.servelet does not exist import javax.servelet.*; ^ HowdyServelet.java:3: package javax.servelet.http does not exist import javax.servelet.http.*; ^ HowdyServelet.java:5: cannot find symbol symbol: class HttpServelet public class HowdyServelet extends HttpServelet{ ^ HowdyServelet.java:6: cannot find symbol symbol : class HttpServeletRequest location: class HowdyServelet public void doGet(HttpServeletRequest request, HttpServeletResponse response) throws IOException, ServeletException{ ^ HowdyServelet.java:6: cannot find symbol symbol : class HttpServeletResponse location: class HowdyServelet public void doGet(HttpServeletRequest request, HttpServeletResponse response) throws IOException, ServeletException{ ^ HowdyServelet.java:6: cannot find symbol symbol : class ServeletException location: class HowdyServelet public void doGet(HttpServeletRequest request, HttpServeletResponse response) throws IOException, ServeletException{ ^ 6 errors So how to compile this servlet. Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I deploy my ASP MVC project to my Win7 system?

    - by MedicineMan
    Hi, I am deploying my first ASP MVC project. The project runs just fine, I would like to take the next step and run this outside of my visual studio environment on my local IIS. I am running Windows7, Visual Studio 2008, and I have created a basic ASP MVC project. On my solution, I find the project I would like to deploy. I right click and select Publish. I have backed up C:\inetpub\wwwroot\ and would like to deploy there. I accept all defaults, and click the "Publish" button. The Output Build window shows 1 project failed. Basically is says that it is unable to add any of the binaries to the site, copy files, create new directories... Access is denied. When I do click "Publish" at work, I don't get these errors. What do I have to do here to publish the website to make the website available to the rest of my home network? Also wwwroot appears to be readonly, but telling the folder to not be read only doesn't seem to help, it still appears to be readonly even after I've unselected this property in the property dialog.

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  • Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

    - by SonOfNun
    I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

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  • Access violations in strange places when using Windows file dialogs

    - by Robert Oschler
    A long time ago I found out that I was getting access violations in my code due to the use of the Delphi Open File and/or Save File dialogs, which encapsulate the Windows dialogs. I asked some questions on a few forums and I was told that it may have been due to the way some programs add hooks to the shell system that result in DLLs getting injected in every process, some of which can cause havoc with a program. For the record, the programming environment I use is Delphi 6 Professional running on Windows XP 32-bit. At the time I got around it by not using Delphi's Dialog components and instead calling straight into comdlg32.dll. This solved the problem wonderfully. Today I was working with memory mapped files for the first time and sure enough, access violations started cropping up in weird parts of the code. I tried my comdlg32.dll direct calls and this time it didn't help. To isolate the problem as a test I created a list box with the exact same files I was using during testing. These are the exact same test files I was selecting from an Open File dialog and then launching my memory mapped file with. I set things up so that by clicking on a file in the list box, I would use that file in my memory mapped file test instead of calling into a comdlg32.dll dialog function to select a test file. Again, the access violatons vanished. To show you how dramatic a fix it was I went from experiencing an access violation within 1 to 3 trials to none at all. Unfortunately, it's going to bite me later on of course when I do need to use file dialogs. Has anyone else dealt with this issue too and found the real culprit? Did any of you find a solution I could use to fix this problem instead of dancing around it like I am now? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to load a library that depends on another library, all from a jar file

    - by Philip
    I would like to ship my application as a self-contained jar file. The jar file should contain all the class files, as well as two shared libraries. One of these shared libraries is written for the JNI and is essentially an indirection to the other one (which is 100% C). I have first tried running my jar file without the libraries, but having them accessible through the LD_LIBRARY_PATH environment variable. That worked fine. I then put the JNI library into the jar file. I have read about loading libraries from jar files by copying them first to some temporary directory, and that worked well for me (note that the 100% C library was, I suppose, loaded as before). Now I want to put both libraries into the jar, but I don't understand how I can make sure that they will both be loaded. Sure I can copy them both to a temporary directory, but when I load the "indirection" one, it always gives me: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: /tmp/.../libindirect.so: /libpure.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory I've tried to force the JVM to load the "100% C" library first by explicitely calling System.load(...) on its temporary file, but that didn't work better. I suspect the system is looking for it when resolving the links in libindirect.so but doesn't care about what the JVM loaded. Can anyone help me on that one? Thanks

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  • Web Deployment Project failed to map path for include virtual

    - by Duke
    I am building my site with a web deployment project but the build fails with a number of errors all relating to the "#include virtual" directives in my master page. The includes are necessary to import a set of centrally managed html template files. Here is an example of the include directive and associated error: <!-- #include virtual="/v3/sits/pdpdev/assets-templates/inc/head.html" --> /PDPRegistration.csproj/Pages/ContentPage.Master(15): error ASPPARSE: Failed to map the path '/v3/sits/pdpdev/assets-templates/inc/head.html'. The error for each included file actually appears multiple times. I'm not sure what is being mapped or why, but this was never a problem until I started using WDP (which I wanted to alter web.config depending on the build environment, among other things.) The project is built locally on my PC and then copied to the web server via a mapped drive. I found a few solutions on the 'net involving IIS metabase - they weren't quite clear to me, and I'm not sure if they apply given how I build and deploy the project (that is, would I have to build on the same system as IIS in order to make use of the metabase?) Can anyone suggest how I can get my project to build with WDP?

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  • Javascript library: to obfuscate or not to obfuscate - that is the question

    - by morpheous
    I need to write a GUI related javascript library. It will give my website a bit of an edge (in terms of functionality I can offer) - up until my competitors play with it long enough to figure out how to write it by themselves. I can accept the fact that it will be emulated over time - thats par for the course (its part of business). However, what I cannot bear, is the idea of effectively, simply handing over all the hard work that would have gone into the library to my competitors, by using plain javascript that anyone can download and use. It is an established fact that no none in the industry I am "attacking" has this functionality, so the value of such a library is undeniable and is not up for discussion (i.e. thats not what I'm asking here). What I am seeking to find out are the pros and cons of obfuscating a javascript library, so that I can come to a final decision. Two of my biggest concerns are debugging, and subtle errors that may be introduced by the obfuscator. I would like to know: How can I manage those risks (being able to debug faulty code, ensuring/minimizing against obfuscation errors) Are there any good quality industry standard obfuscators you can recommend (preferably something you use yourself). What are your experiences of using obfuscated code in a production environment?

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