Search Results

Search found 11195 results on 448 pages for 'disconnected environment'.

Page 381/448 | < Previous Page | 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388  | Next Page >

  • How do I deploy my ASP MVC project to my Win7 system?

    - by MedicineMan
    Hi, I am deploying my first ASP MVC project. The project runs just fine, I would like to take the next step and run this outside of my visual studio environment on my local IIS. I am running Windows7, Visual Studio 2008, and I have created a basic ASP MVC project. On my solution, I find the project I would like to deploy. I right click and select Publish. I have backed up C:\inetpub\wwwroot\ and would like to deploy there. I accept all defaults, and click the "Publish" button. The Output Build window shows 1 project failed. Basically is says that it is unable to add any of the binaries to the site, copy files, create new directories... Access is denied. When I do click "Publish" at work, I don't get these errors. What do I have to do here to publish the website to make the website available to the rest of my home network? Also wwwroot appears to be readonly, but telling the folder to not be read only doesn't seem to help, it still appears to be readonly even after I've unselected this property in the property dialog.

    Read the article

  • Java assignment issues - Is this atomic?

    - by Bob
    Hi, I've got some questions about Java's assigment. Strings I've got a class: public class Test { private String s; public synchronized void setS(String str){ s = s + " - " + str; } public String getS(){ return s; } } I'm using "synchronized" in my setter, and avoiding it in my getter, because in my app, there are a tons of data gettings, and very few settings. Settings must be synchronized to avoid inconsistency. My question is: is getting and setting a variable atomic? I mean, in a multithreaded environment, Thread1 is about to set variable s, while Thread2 is about to get "s". Is there any way the getter method could get something different than the s's old value or the s's new value (suppose we've got only two threads)? In my app it is not a problem to get the new value, and it is not a problem to get the old one. But could I get something else? What about HashMap's getting and putting? considering this: public class Test { private Map<Integer, String> map = Collections.synchronizedMap(new HashMap<Integer, String>()); public synchronized void setMapElement(Integer key, String value){ map.put(key, value); } public String getValue(Integer key){ return map.get(key); } } Is putting and getting atomic? How does HashMap handle putting an element into it? Does it first remove the old value and put the now one? Could I get other than the old value or the new value? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • NoClassDefFoundError without any class name

    - by Safder
    Hello, I am trying to run a java task from ant. I am trying to run the "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher" class. I keep on getting the "NoClassDefFoundError" without any class name being specified. I am also getting a "ClassNotFoundException" along with that displaying a message "Could not find the main class: . Program will exit". Here's a snippet of the error [java] Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: [java] Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) [java] at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) [java] at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) [java] Could not find the main class: . Program will exit. [java] Java Result: 1 Now I am trying to run an ant class from an ant jar and i specifiy the classpath where this class file resides using the "classpathref" attribute, however I still get this message. I checked the ant jar to check the Manifest and the "main" class is specified properly (it's "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher") . I have exhausted all my resources. Please help ! ! ! ps: My environment is Eclipse on Ubuntu 9.04

    Read the article

  • activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

    - by Ameya Savale
    I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

    Read the article

  • Adding Mysql Columns in Rails Rake

    - by Gigg
    I have a rake file that does a series of calculations on a database. Basically it adds usage on equipment regularly. At the end of the day it needs to add that days total to a monthly total table and update that same table. i use the following simple concepts: To get data from the database is pretty simple: @usages = Usage.find(:all) time = Time.new for usage in @usages sql = ActiveRecord::Base.connection To insert it into the database: sql.execute "INSERT (or UPDATE) into usages ## add values and options as per MySQL But how do I: take a column from a database, add all of its values together that have a common value in another column, (i.e. if column x == value y) and then insert it into another column in another table, say dailyusages? I have tried these options: task (:monthly => :environment) do @dailyusages = Dailyusage.find(:all) for dailyusage in @dailyusages sql = ActiveRecord::Base.connection time = Time.new device = monthlyusages.device month = time.month if device == dailyusages.device ##&& month == dailyusages.month total = (dailyusage.total.sum.to_i) @monthlyusages = Monthlyusage.find(:all) for monthlyusage in @monthlyusages sql = ActiveRecord::Base.connection old_total = monthlyusage.total.to_i new_total = (old_total + total) sql.execute "UPDATE monthlyusages ( year, month, total, device ) values('#{time.year}', '#{time.month}', '#{total}', '#{dailyusage.device}' )" end I obviously have uncommented options and tried all sorts of things. Any help would really save me a load of trouble. Thanks in advance. (** BTW - I am new to rails, so go easy on me **)

    Read the article

  • XSLT 1.0 : Iterate over characters in a string

    - by subtenante
    I need to iterate over the characters in a string to build an XML structure. Currently, I am doing this : <xsl:template name="verticalize"> <xsl:param name="text">Some text</xsl:param> <xsl:for-each select="tokenize(replace(replace($text,'(.)','$1\\n'),'\\n$',''),'\\n')"> <xsl:element name="para"> <xsl:value-of select="."/> </xsl:element> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> This produces something like : <para>S</para> <para>o</para> <para>m</para> <para>e</para> <para> </para> <para>t</para> <para>e</para> <para>x</para> <para>t</para> This works fine with Xpath 2.0. But I need to apply the same treatment in a XPath 1.0 environment, where the replace() method is not available. Do you know a way to achieve this ?

    Read the article

  • Handling data update/freshness issue in web-app in general (or GWT specifically)

    - by edwin.nathaniel
    In general, how do you guys handle user update/data freshness interaction with the user (UI issue) in web-apps? For example: Multi-users web-app (like project management) Login to a "virtual" space People can update project names, etc How to handle a situation such that: user-A and user-B load a project with title "Project StackOverflow" user-B updates the title to "Project StackExchange" user-A updates the title after user-B update operation to "Project Basecamp" The question I'm asking is from the user perspective (UI) and not about transactional operation. What do most people do in this situation? What would you do after user-B updates the title in user-A screen/view? What happened when user-A tries to update the title after user-B finished his/her update operation? do you inform user-A that the title has changed and he/she has to reload the page? do you go ahead and change the title and let user-B has old data? Do you do some sort of application-level "locking" mechanism? (if someone is updating, nobody else can?) Or fix the application workflow? (who has the access to be able to change things, etc). What would be the simplest solution, but at the same time not annoy the user with more dialog/warning messages. I've encountered this particular problem frequently in a GWT app specifically where domain models are being passed around and refreshing the whole app/client-side isn't the optimal solution in my mind (since it means the whole "loading"/initialization phase must be executed again in this specific environment). Maybe the answer is to stay away from GWT? :) Love to hear options, solutions, and advises from you guys. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Execute function without sending 'self' to it

    - by Sergey
    Is that possible to define a function without referencing to self this way? def myfunc(var_a,var_b) But so that it could also get sender data, like if I defined it like this: def myfunc(self, var_a,var_b) That self is always the same so it looks a little redundant here always to run a function this way: myfunc(self,'data_a','data_b'). Then I would like to get its data in the function like this sender.fields. UPDATE: Here is some code to understand better what I mean. The class below is used to show a page based on Jinja2 templates engine for users to sign up. class SignupHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self, *args, **kwargs): utils.render_template(self, 'signup.html') And this code below is a render_template that I created as wrapper to Jinja2 functions to use it more conveniently in my project: def render_template(response, template_name, vars=dict(), is_string=False): template_dirs = [os.path.join(root(), 'templates')] logging.info(template_dirs[0]) env = Environment(loader=FileSystemLoader(template_dirs)) try: template = env.get_template(template_name) except TemplateNotFound: raise TemplateNotFound(template_name) content = template.render(vars) if is_string: return content else: response.response.out.write(content) As I use this function render_template very often in my project and usually the same way, just with different template files, I wondered if there was a way to get rid of having to call it like I do it now, with self as the first argument but still having access to that object.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to load an assembly targeting a different .NET runtime version in a new app domain?

    - by Notre
    Hello, I've an application that is based on .NET 2 runtime. I want to add a little bit of support for .NET 4 but don't want to (in the short term), convert the whole application (which is very large) to target .NET 4. I tried the 'obvious' approach of creating an application .config file, having this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" /> </startup> but I ran into some problems that I noted here. I got the idea of creating a separate app domain. To test it, I created a WinForm project targeting .NET 2. I then created a class library targeting .NET 4. In my WinForm project, I added the following code: AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup(); setup.ApplicationBase = "path to .NET 4 assembly"; setup.ConfigurationFile = System.Environment.CurrentDirectory + "\\DotNet4AppDomain.exe.config"; // Set up the Evidence Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence(baseEvidence); // Create the AppDomain AppDomain dotNet4AppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("DotNet4AppDomain", evidence, setup); try { Assembly doNet4Assembly = dotNet4AppDomain.Load( new AssemblyName("MyDotNet4Assembly, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=66f0dac1b575e793")); MessageBox.Show(doNet4Assembly.FullName); } finally { AppDomain.Unload(dotNet4AppDomain); } My DotNet4AppDomain.exe.config file looks like this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" /> </startup> Unfortunately, this throws the BadImageFormatException when dotNet4AppDomain.Load is executed. Am I doing something wrong in my code, or is what I'm trying to do just not going to work? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How do I work with constructs in PHPUnit?

    - by Ben Dauphinee
    I am new into PHPUnit, and just digging through the manual. I cannot find a decent example of how to build a complete test from end to end though, and so, am left with questions. One of these is how can I prep my environment to properly test my code? I am trying to figure out how to properly pass various configuration values needed for both the test setup/teardown methods, and the configs for the class itself. // How can I set these variables on testing start? protected $_db = null; protected $_config = null; // So that this function runs properly? public function setUp(){ $this->_acl = new acl( $this->_db, // The database connection for the class passed // from whatever test construct $this->_config // Config values passed in from construct ); } // Can I just drop in a construct like this, and have it work properly? // And if so, how can I set the construct call properly? public function __construct( Zend_Db_Adapter_Abstract $db, $config = array(), $baselinedatabase = NULL, $databaseteardown = NULL ){ $this->_db = $db; $this->_config = $config; $this->_baselinedatabase = $baselinedatabase; $this->_databaseteardown = $databaseteardown; } // Or is the wrong idea to be pursuing?

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to easily convert a series of tarballs of a source tree into a git repository?

    - by Hotei
    I'm new to git and I have a moderately large number of weekly tarballs from a long running project. Each tarball has on average a few hundred files in it. I'm looking for a git strategy that will allow me to add the expanded contents of each tarball to a new git repository, starting from version 1.001 and going through version 1.650. As of this stage of the project 99.5% of tarball(n) is just a copy of version(n-1) - in other words, a perfect candidate for git. The desired end result is to have only the master branch remaining at the end of the process. I think I know git well enough to do this "by hand". As I understand it there is no possibility of a merge conflict since there will be no opportunity to change the master before the next version is added and committed. A shell script is my first guess, but I'm not sure how well bash will like it when git checkout branch_n gets processed while bash is executing in branch_n-1. For the purposes of this project the host environment is Ubuntu 10.4, resources available are 8 Gig RAM, 500 Gig Disk space free and 4 CPU processor at 3.ghz . I don't need someone else to solve the problem but I could use a nudge in the right direction as to how a git expert would approach it. Any advice from someone who's "been there done that" would be appreciated. Hotei PS: I have looked at site's suggested "related questions" and found nothing relevant.

    Read the article

  • Orphan IBM JVM process

    - by Nicholas Key
    Hi people, I have this issue about orphan IBM JVM process being created in the process tree: For example: C:\Program Files\IBM\WebSphere\AppServer\bin>wsadmin -lang jython -f "C:\Hello.py" Hello.py has the simple implementation: import time i = 0 while (1): i = i + 1 print "Hello World " + str(i) time.sleep(3.0) My machine has such JVM information: C:\Program Files\WebSphere\java\bin>java -verbose:sizes -version -Xmca32K RAM class segment increment -Xmco128K ROM class segment increment -Xmns0K initial new space size -Xmnx0K maximum new space size -Xms4M initial memory size -Xmos4M initial old space size -Xmox1624995K maximum old space size -Xmx1624995K memory maximum -Xmr16K remembered set size -Xlp4K large page size available large page sizes: 4K 4M -Xmso256K operating system thread stack size -Xiss2K java thread stack initial size -Xssi16K java thread stack increment -Xss256K java thread stack maximum size java version "1.6.0" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build pwi3260sr6ifix-20091015_01(SR6+152211+155930+156106)) IBM J9 VM (build 2.4, JRE 1.6.0 IBM J9 2.4 Windows Server 2003 x86-32 jvmwi3260sr6-20091001_43491 (JIT enabled, AOT enabled) J9VM - 20091001_043491 JIT - r9_20090902_1330ifx1 GC - 20090817_AA) JCL - 20091006_01 While the program is running, I tried to kill it and subsequently I found an orphan IBM JVM process in the process tree. Is there a way to fix this issue? Why is there an orphan process in the first place? Is there something wrong with my code? I really don't believe that my simplistic code is wrongly implemented. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Using Scala and StringTemplate, how do I loop through a Map

    - by Marcus Kazmierczak
    I have my environment setup nicely using Scala, StringTempalte within the Google AppEngine. I am having trouble looping through a Map and getting it to display in the template. When I assign a simple List of just Strings to the template it works using: In Scala Servlet: var photos = List[String]() //... get photo url and title ... photos = photo_url :: photos template.setAttribute("photos", photos: _*) In Template: $photos: { photo| <div><img src="$photo$_s.jpg"></div> }$ The above works. However, any attempt of creating a Map using url and title and assigning to the template gives me an error. Here is my attempt, which does not work: In Scala Servlet: var photos = List[Map[String,String]]() //... get photo url and title ... photos = Map("url" -> url, "title" -> title) :: photos template.setAttribute("photos", photos: _*) In Template: $photos: { photo| <div><img src="$photo.url$_s.jpg" title="$photo.title$"></div> }$ This gives me the following error Class scala.collection.immutable.Map$Map2 has no such attribute: title in template context Thoughts / Ideas ?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

    - by Memor-X
    in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

    Read the article

  • Simplest PHP Routing framework .. ?

    - by David
    I'm looking for the simplest implementation of a routing framework in PHP, in a typical PHP environment (Running on Apache, or maybe nginx) .. It's the implementation itself I'm mostly interested in, and how you'd accomplish it. I'm thinking it should handle URL's, with the minimal rewriting possible, (is it really a good idea, to have the same entrypoint for all dynamic requests?!), and it should not mess with the querystring, so I should still be able to fetch GET params with $_GET['var'] as you'd usually do.. So far I have only come across .htaccess solutions that puts everything through an index.php, which is sort of okay. Not sure if there are other ways of doing it. How would you "attach" what URL's fit to what controllers, and the relation between them? I've seen different styles. One huge array, with regular expressions and other stuff to contain the mapping. The one I think I like the best is where each controller declares what map it has, and thereby, you won't have one huge "global" map, but a lot of small ones, each neatly separated. So you'd have something like: class Root { public $map = array( 'startpage' => 'ControllerStartPage' ); } class ControllerStartPage { public $map = array( 'welcome' => 'WelcomeControllerPage' ); } // Etc ... Where: 'http://myapp/' // maps to the Root class 'http://myapp/startpage' // maps to the ControllerStartPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/welcome' // maps to the WelcomeControllerPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/?hello=world' // Should of course have $_GET['hello'] == 'world' What do you think? Do you use anything yourself, or have any ideas? I'm not interested in huge frameworks already solving this problem, but the smallest possible implementation you could think of. I'm having a hard time coming up with a solution satisfying enough, for my own taste. There must be something pleasing out there that handles a sane bootstrapping process of a PHP application without trying to pull a big magic hat over your head, and force you to use "their way", or the highway! ;)

    Read the article

  • "You have already activated" message even when using bundle exec

    - by juanpastas
    I am installing gems in my Gemfile in shared path as Capistrano does by default, and when I run: bundle exec rake assets:precompile RAILS_ENV=production I get: You have already activated rake 0.9.2.2, but your Gemfile requires rake 10.0.4. Using bundle exec may solve this. See that: cat Gemfile.lock | grep rake returns: rake (>= 0.8.7) rake (10.0.4) This is my gem environment output: - RUBYGEMS VERSION: 1.8.24 - RUBY VERSION: 1.9.3 (2013-06-27 patchlevel 448) [x86_64-linux] - INSTALLATION DIRECTORY: /home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/ - RUBY EXECUTABLE: /opt/bitnami/ruby/bin/ruby - EXECUTABLE DIRECTORY: /home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/bin - RUBYGEMS PLATFORMS: - ruby - x86_64-linux - GEM PATHS: - /home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/ - GEM CONFIGURATION: - :update_sources => true - :verbose => true - :benchmark => false - :backtrace => false - :bulk_threshold => 1000 - "gemhome" => "/home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/" - "gempath" => ["/home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/"] - REMOTE SOURCES: - http://rubygems.org/ Update which -a rake /opt/bitnami/rvm/bin/rake /opt/bitnami/ruby/bin/rake Update 2 I tried giving full path to rake, but same problem

    Read the article

  • How to prevent chrome from injecting content to webpage

    - by Nazariy
    Recently I have discovered that my application is misbehaving in Google Chrome. On a page with a form, after it was submitted, my application reloads page using simple method like this: header('Location: ' . $url); after that, page is rendered incorrectly and this content is injected to DOM <div id="sbi_camera_button" class="sbi_search" style="left: 0px; top: 0px; position: absolute; width: 29px; height: 27px; border: none; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; z-index: 2147483647; display: none; "></div> After manual page refresh everything works as expected. I'm not sure what causing this behavior, as I'm working in closed local environment and application works fine in Firefox. My application using following libraries (hosted locally): jQuery v1.7.1 jQuery UI 1.8.16 Bootstrap.js v 2.1.1 Can someone suggest me what can possibly cause this issue?

    Read the article

  • Cheapest way to to determine if a MySQL connection is still alive

    - by MtnViewMark
    I have a pool of MySQL connections for a web-based data service. When it starts to service a request, it takes a connection from the pool to use. The problem is that if there has been a significant pause since that particular connection has been used, the server may have timed it out and closed its end. I'd like to be able to detect this in the pool management code. The trick is this: The environment in which I'm coding gives me only a very abstact API into the connection. I can basically only execute SQL statements. I don't have access to the actual socket or direct access to the MySQL client API. So, the question is: What is the cheapest MySQL statement I can execute on the connection to determine if it is working. For example SELECT 1; should work, but I'm wondering if there is something even cheaper? Perhaps something that doesn't even got across the wire, but is handled in the MySQL client lib and effectively answers the same question?

    Read the article

  • Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

    - by Pandafox
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • NULL-keys for key/value table

    - by user72185
    (Using Oracle) I have a table with key/value pairs like this: create table MESSAGE_INDEX ( KEY VARCHAR2(256) not null, VALUE VARCHAR2(4000) not null, MESSAGE_ID NUMBER not null ) I now want to find all the messages where key = 'someKey' and value is 'val1', 'val2' or 'val3' - OR value is null in which case there will be no entry in the table at all. This is to save space; there would be a large number of keys with null values if I stored them all. I think this works: SELECT message_id FROM message_index idx WHERE ((key = 'someKey' AND value IN ('val1', 'val2', 'val3')) OR NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM message_index WHERE key = 'someKey' AND idx.message_id = message_id)) But is is extremely slow. Takes 8 seconds with 700K records in message_index and there will be many more records and more search criteria when moving outside of my test environment. Primary key is key, value, message_id: add constraint PK_KEY_VALUE primary key (KEY, VALUE, MESSAGE_ID) And I added another index for message_id, to speed up searching for missing keys: create index IDX_MESSAGE_ID on MESSAGE_INDEX (MESSAGE_ID) I will be doing several of these key/value lookups in every search, not just one as shown above. So far I am doing them nested, where output id's of one level is the input to the next. E.g.: SELECT message_id from message_index WHERE (key/value compare) AND message_id IN ( SELECT ... and so on ) What can I do to speed this up?

    Read the article

  • Ant fails without message at javac

    - by digitala
    I've written an Ant build.xml file which obtains a number of source files via WSDL and compiles them. These have been working on an old, now destroyed (and therefore unavailable for comparison), system but the build process isn't completing on this newer, faster system. The relevant section of the build file looks like this: <target name="compile" depends="init"> <java classname="org.apache.axis.wsdl.WSDL2Java"> <arg line="--all --server-side --skeletonDeploy --factory --wrapArrays --output src ${srcurl}" /> </java> <javac srcdir="${src}" destdir="${build}" verbose="yes" /> </target> The files are downloaded via the WSDL service successfully, however after that point Ant simply stops & returns to the commandline. Versions of the relevant apps: # java -version java version "1.6.0_14" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_14-b08) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.0-b16, mixed mode) # javac -version javac 1.6.0_14 # ant -version Apache Ant version 1.6.5 compiled on January 6 2007 I'm assuming that there's a problem with javac that Ant isn't passing back. Is there any way I can get some debugging information from javac? I've tried adding a <record /> tag to the target but that doesn't give any more information than running ant -v does. Any other suggestions would be great, also!

    Read the article

  • Problems compiling libjingle/gtk+-2.0 for Mac OS X

    - by mindthief
    Hi All, I'm trying to compile libjingle on Mac OSX Snow Leopard. The INSTALL file said to './configure', 'make' and 'make install', as usual. But make fails for me. Initially it gave some messages indicating that I didn't have pkg-config installed (I guess OSX doesn't come with it installed?), so I downloaded pkg-config from http://pkgconfig.freedesktop.org/releases/ Now I get this message: Package gtk+-2.0 was not found in the pkg-config search path. Perhaps you should add the directory containing `gtk+-2.0.pc' to the PKG_CONFIG_PATH environment variable No package 'gtk+-2.0' found I tried to install gtk by using the script at SourceForge: http://sourceforge.net/projects/gtk-osx/ (this is the website pointed to by the gtk website) Running the script didn't really seem to do anything, here is the output: $./gtk-osx-build-setup.sh Checking out jhbuild (2.27.3) from git... From git://git.gnome.org/jhbuild * tag 2.27.3 -> FETCH_HEAD Installing jhbuild... Installing jhbuild configuration... Installing gtk-osx moduleset files... Done. $ And I still get that error message about "Package gtk+-2.0 not found" while make-ing libjingle. Help will be appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • 'Forward-Compatible' Program Design

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    The majority of my questions I've asked here so far on StackOverflow have been how to implement individual concepts and techniques towards developing a software-based NES clone via the XNA environment. The small samples that I've thrown together on my PC work relatively great and everything. Except I hit a brick wall. How do I merge all of these samples together. Having proof-of-concept is amazing, except when you need it to go beyond just that. I now have samples strewn about that I'm trying to merge, some of them incomplete. And now I'm stuck with the chicken-and-the-egg situation of where I would like to incorporate these samples together, to make sure they work, but I cannot without test data. And I don't have tools to create test data, because they'd need to be based off of the individual pieces that need to be put together. In my mind, I'm having nightmares with circular reference. For my sample data, I am hoping to save it in XML and write a specification - and then make sample data by hand - but I'm too paranoid of manually creating an XML file full of incorrect data and blaming it on my code, or vice-versa. It doesn't help that the end-result of my work is graphic-oriented, which makes it interseting how a graphic on the screen can be visualized in XML Nodes. I guess, my question is this: What design patterns and disciplines exist in the coding world that address this type of concern? I've always relied on brute-force coding and restarting a project with a whole new code base in attempts to further along my goals, but I doubt that would be the best way to do so. Within my college career, the majority of my programming was to work on simple projects that came out of a book, or with a given correct data set and a verifyable result. I don't have that, as my own design documents that I am going by could be terribly wrong.

    Read the article

  • mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

    - by axeoth
    See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

    Read the article

  • Problem with load testing Web Service - VSTS 2008

    - by Carlos
    Hello, I have a webtest with makes a simple call to a WebService which looks like that: MyWebService webService = new MyWebService(); webService.Timeout = 180000; webService.myMethod(); I am not using ThinkTimes, also the Run Duration is set to 5 minutes. When I ran this test simulating only 1 user, I check the counters and I found something like that: Tests Total: 4500 Network Interface\Bytes sent (agent machine): 35,500 Then I ran the same tests, but this time simulating 2 users and I got something like that: Tests Total: 2225 Network Interface\Bytes sent (agent machine): 30,500 So when I increased the numbers of users the tests/sec was half than when I use only 1 user and the bytes sent by the agent was also lower. I think it is strange, because it doesn't seems I have a bottleneck in my agent machine since CPU is never higher than 30% and I have over 1.5GB of RAM free, also my network utilization is like 0.5% of its capacity. In order to troubleshot this I ran a test using Step Pattern, the simulated users went from 20 to 800 users. When I check the requests/sec it is practically constant through the whole test, so it is clear there is something in my test or my environment which is preventing the number of requests from gets higher. It would be a expected behavior if the "response time" was getting higher because it would tell me the requests wasn't been processed properly, but the strange thing is the response time is practically constant all the time and it is pretty low actually. I have no idea why my agent can't send more requests when I increase the numbers of users, any help/tip/guess would be really appreciate.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388  | Next Page >