Search Results

Search found 10755 results on 431 pages for 'cluster shared volume'.

Page 387/431 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

• LoadError in Ruby

  - by wilhelmtell

  I'm having issues requiring 'digest/sha1'. ~$ ./configure --prefix=$HOME/usr --program-suffix=19 --enable-shared ~$ make ~$ make install ~$ irb19 irb(main):001:0> require 'digest/sha1' LoadError: dlopen(/Users/matan/usr/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/i386-darwin9.8.0/digest/sha1.bundle, 9): Symbol not found: _rb_Digest_SHA1_Finish Referenced from: /Users/matan/usr/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/i386-darwin9.8.0/digest/sha1.bundle Expected in: flat namespace - /Users/matan/usr/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/i386-darwin9.8.0/digest/sha1.bundle from (irb):1:in `require' from (irb):1 from /Users/matan/usr/bin/irb19:12:in `<main>' irb(main):002:0> I know some standard modules require fine, while others don't. If i'd say require 'yaml' or even require 'digest' then that works fine. I am using OS X 10.5.8, with Ruby 1.9.1-p378. The system-wide install of Ruby 1.8.6 works fine. Just last week I uninstalled Ruby and re-installed it. When I first installed Ruby I installed it in a similar manner, from source prefixed at my local $HOME/usr directory. I tried removing each and every file make install installs, then re-installing, but that didn't help. Do you have an idea what the issue is and how to resolve it?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

  - by Colin

  I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

  Read the article

• PHP mail() function not delivering mail

  - by Ryan Jones

  Hi there, I have a slight problem. I am using a working script (works on my testing account - shared server) to send a mail through PHP using the mail() function. I just got a dedicated server, and I haven't been able to get the function to work. I've spent the last 10 or so hours reading various documentations on BIND (for the SPF record), dovecot, sendmail and postfix trying various things to get this to work. There is clearly something that I am missing. So we know the PHP code works fine. All the headers are fine everything. We know this as it's a direct copy from my testing account. So the problem must arise somewhere in the server config. The path to sendmail is correct, and sendmail is (apparently) working fine. I've set up the script to now deliver "Sent" or "Error" based on the boolean result from the PHP mail() function. That is: if(mail($blah,$blah,$blah,$blah,$blah)) { echo "Sent"; } else { echo "Error";} And the result ALWAYS comes up as "Sent" - however, the email never arrives. Can someone suggest things to check, as I'm completely new to this (24 hours or so!). Thanks in advance. Ryan

  Read the article

• Java Concurrency in practice sample question

  - by andy boot

  I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. This states that if a thread has references to a shared object then other threads may be able to access that object before the constructor has finished executing. I have tried to put this into practice and so I wrote this code thinking that if I ran it enough times a RuntimeException("World is f*cked") would occur. But it isn't doing. Is this a case of the Java spec not guaranting something but my particular implementation of java guaranteeing it for me? (java version: 1.5.0 on Ubuntu) Or have I misread something in the book? Code: (I expect an exception but it is never thrown) public class Threads { private Widgit w; public static void main(String[] s) throws Exception { while(true){ Threads t = new Threads(); t.runThreads(); } } private void runThreads() throws Exception{ new Checker().start(); w = new Widgit((int)(Math.random() * 100) + 1); } private class Checker extends Thread{ private static final int LOOP_TIMES = 1000; public void run() { int count = 0; for(int i = 0; i < LOOP_TIMES; i++){ try { w.checkMe(); count++; } catch(NullPointerException npe){ //ignore } } System.out.println("checked: "+count+" times out of "+LOOP_TIMES); } } private static class Widgit{ private int n; private int n2; Widgit(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(2); this.n2 = n; } void checkMe(){ if (n != n2) { throw new RuntimeException("World is f*cked"); } } } }

  Read the article

• How to force inclusion of an object file in a static library when linking into executable?

  - by Brian Bassett

  I have a C++ project that due to its directory structure is set up as a static library A, which is linked into shared library B, which is linked into executable C. (This is a cross-platform project using CMake, so on Windows we get A.lib, B.dll, and C.exe, and on Linux we get libA.a, libB.so, and C.) Library A has an init function (A_init, defined in A/initA.cpp), that is called from library B's init function (B_init, defined in B/initB.cpp), which is called from C's main. Thus, when linking B, A_init (and all symbols defined in initA.cpp) is linked into B (which is our desired behavior). The problem comes in that the A library also defines a function (Af, defined in A/Afort.f) that is intended to by dynamically loaded (i.e. LoadLibrary/GetProcAddress on Windows and dlopen/dlsym on Linux). Since there are no references to Af from library B, symbols from A/Afort.o are not included into B. On Windows, we can artifically create a reference by using the pragma: #pragma comment (linker, "/export:_Af") Since this is a pragma, it only works on Windows (using Visual Studio 2008). To get it working on Linux, we've tried adding the following to A/initA.cpp: extern void Af(void); static void (*Af_fp)(void) = &Af; This does not cause the symbol Af to be included in the final link of B. How can we force the symbol Af to be linked into B?

  Read the article

• Another developer revoked and re-created my client's iOS Distribution Certificate - does this mean I can never update my client's existing app?

  - by Schnapple

  Here is the story so far: A client hired us to do an iPhone app for them. This client had never done an iPhone app before and as part of the arrangement we handled all aspects for them, including app store submission, and we handle some level of future development (new features, bug/security fixes, etc.) We created a Distribution certificate and key pair on the client's behalf We developed the app, published it to the App Store without incident Some time later the client hired a second developer to do a different app for them This second developer, it appears, has revoked the existing Distribution certificate and created a new one with a new key pair on their system This second developer shared the new Distribution certificate and key pair with us for future reference. Due to user error, this new certificate and key pair has now been imported onto the Macintosh where the original certificate and key pair for the original app we developed were created and the originals were not backed up. So we have App #1 on the App Store with Distribution certificate/key pair #1 App #2 either on the App Store or soon to be using Distribution certificate/key pair #2 Distribution certificate/key pair #1 appears to be lost now So my question is: if we ever need to update App #1, will we be able to, using Distribution certificate/key pair #2? Or will we have to upload it as a new app?

  Read the article

• Servlet Security question about j_security_check, j_username and j_password

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, I used jdbcRealm in my web application and it's working fine. I defined all constraints also in my web.xml. Like all pages of url pattern /Admin/* should be accessed by only admin. I have a login form with uses standard j_security_check, j_username and j_password. Now, when i type Admin/home.jsf it rightly redirects me login.jsf and there when i type the password i am redirected to home.jsf. This works alright but problem comes i directly go to login.jsf and then type password and username. This time it again redirects me to login.jsf. Is there any way through which i can specify which page to go when successful login is there? I need to specify different different pages for different roles. For Admin, it is /Admin/home.jsf for general users it is /General/home.jsf because login form is shared between different type of users. Where do i specify all these things? Secondly, i want to have a remember me checkbox at the end of login form. How do i do this? By default, it is submitted to j_security_check servlet and i have no control over its execution. Please help. This doesn't seem so hard but looks like i am missing something.

  Read the article

• [C++][OpenMP] Proper use of "atomic directive" to lock STL container

  - by conradlee

  I have a large number of sets of integers, which I have, in turn, put into a vector of pointers. I need to be able to update these sets of integers in parallel without causing a race condition. More specifically. I am using OpenMP's "parallel for" construct. For dealing with shared resources, OpenMP offers a handy "atomic directive," which allows one to avoid a race condition on a specific piece of memory without using locks. It would be convenient if I could use the "atomic directive" to prevent simultaneous updating to my integer sets, however, I'm not sure whether this is possible. Basically, I want to know whether the following code could lead to a race condition vector< set<int>* > membershipDirectory(numSets, new set<int>); #pragma omp for schedule(guided,expandChunksize) for(int i=0; i<100; i++) { set<int>* sp = membershipDirectory[5]; #pragma omp atomic sp->insert(45); } (Apologies for any syntax errors in the code---I hope you get the point) I have seen a similar example of this for incrementing an integer, but I'm not sure whether it works when working with a pointer to a container as in my case.

  Read the article

• MS Access Bulk Insert exits app

  - by Brij

  In the web service, I have to bulk insert data in MS Access database. First, There was single complex Insert-Select query,There was no error but app exited after inserting some records. I have divided the query to make it simple and using linq to remove complexity of query. now I am inserting records using for loop. there are approx 10000 records. Again, same problem. I put a breakpoint after loop, but No hit. I have used try catch, but no error found. For Each item In lstSelDel Try qry = String.Format("insert into Table(Id,link,file1,file2,pID) values ({0},""{1}"",""{2}"",""{3}"",{4})", item.WebInfoID, item.Links, item.Name, item.pName, pDateID) DAL.ExecN(qry) Catch ex As Exception Throw ex End Try Next Public Shared Function ExecN(ByVal SQL As String) As Integer Dim ret As Integer = -1 Dim nowConString As String = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + System.AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + "DataBase\\mydatabase.mdb;" Dim nowCon As System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection nowCon = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection(nowConString) Dim cmd As New OleDb.OleDbCommand(SQL, nowCon) nowCon.Open() ret = cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() nowCon.Close() nowCon.Dispose() cmd.Dispose() Return ret End Function After exiting app, I see w3wp.exe uses more than 50% of Memory. Any idea, What is going wrong? Is there any limitation of MS Access?

  Read the article

• CUDA - multiple kernels to compute a single value

  - by Roger

  Hey, I'm trying to write a kernel to essentially do the following in C float sum = 0.0; for(int i = 0; i < N; i++){ sum += valueArray[i]*valueArray[i]; } sum += sum / N; At the moment I have this inside my kernel, but it is not giving correct values. int i0 = blockIdx.x * blockDim.x + threadIdx.x; for(int i=i0; i<N; i += blockDim.x*gridDim.x){ *d_sum += d_valueArray[i]*d_valueArray[i]; } *d_sum= __fdividef(*d_sum, N); The code used to call the kernel is kernelName<<<64,128>>>(N, d_valueArray, d_sum); cudaMemcpy(&sum, d_sum, sizeof(float) , cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); I think that each kernel is calculating a partial sum, but the final divide statement is not taking into account the accumulated value from each of the threads. Every kernel is producing it's own final value for d_sum? Does anyone know how could I go about doing this in an efficient way? Maybe using shared memory between threads? I'm very new to GPU programming. Cheers

  Read the article

• Is it possible to have an enum field in a class persisted with OrmLite?

  - by htf

  Hello. I'm trying to persist the following class with OrmLite: public class Field { @DatabaseField(id = true) public String name; @DatabaseField(canBeNull = false) public FieldType type; public Field() { } } The FieldType is a public enum. The field, corresponding to the type is string in SQLite (is doesn't support enums). When I try to use it, I get the following exception: INFO [main] (SingleConnectionDataSource.java:244) - Established shared JDBC Connection: org.sqlite.Conn@5224ee Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanInitializationException: Initialization of DAO failed; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unknown field class class enums.FieldType for field FieldType:name=type,class=class orm.Field at org.springframework.dao.support.DaoSupport.afterPropertiesSet(DaoSupport.java:51) at orm.FieldDAO.getInstance(FieldDAO.java:17) at orm.Field.fromString(Field.java:23) at orm.Field.main(Field.java:38) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unknown field class class enums.FieldType for field FieldType:name=type,class=class orm.Field at com.j256.ormlite.field.FieldType.<init>(FieldType.java:54) at com.j256.ormlite.field.FieldType.createFieldType(FieldType.java:381) at com.j256.ormlite.table.DatabaseTableConfig.fromClass(DatabaseTableConfig.java:82) at com.j256.ormlite.dao.BaseJdbcDao.initDao(BaseJdbcDao.java:116) at org.springframework.dao.support.DaoSupport.afterPropertiesSet(DaoSupport.java:48) ... 3 more So how do I tell OrmLite, values on the Java side are from an enum?

  Read the article

• HTML not appearing in Emails

  - by John

  My website sends out html emails but most of my recipients are receiving them as HTML marked up source pages instead of the nice table layouts. The problem doesn't appear to be an email client issue since the emails display properly in web mail clients like gmail, yahoo, hotmail etc... They also display properly when viewed through outlook or thunderbird that are connected to gmail, yahoo, hotmail etc... However, I have one domain name that I registered with a shared hosting provider called 1and1.com. I tried viewing my emails through their webmail client, thunderbird and outlook, but in all three cases, only the html mark up showed up. Also, I assume most of my recipients use MS Outlook with MS Exchange Server because they are business/finance people. Unfortunately, I don't know how to get an email that's managed by an MS Exchange Server. I made sure I'm sending my emails with the following headers: MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-type: text/html; charset=iso-8859-1 Does anyone know what might be wrong? can anyone recommend a solution?

  Read the article

• XSLT, worth investing time in, any actual alternatives?

  - by Keeno

  I realise this has been a few other questions on this topic, and people are saying use your language of choice to manipulate the xml etc etc however, not quite fit my question exactly. Firstly, the scope of the project: We want to develop platform independant e-learning, currently, its a bunch of HTML pages but as they grow and develop they become hard to maintain. The idea: Generate up an XML file + Schema, then produce some XSLT files that process the XML into the eLearning modiles. XML to HTML via XSLT. Why: We would like the flexibily to be able to easy reformat the content (i realise CSS is a viable alternative here) If we decide to alter the pages layout or functionality in anyway, im guessing altering the "shared" XSLT files would be easier than updating the HTML files. So far, we have about 30 modules, with up to 10-30 pages each Depending on some "parameters" we could output drastically different page layouts/structures, above and beyond what CSS can do Now, all this has to be platform independant, and to be able to run "offline" i.e. without a server powering the HTML Negatives ive read so far for XSLT: Overheard? Not exactly sure why...is it the compute power need to convert to HTML? Difficult to learn Better alternatives Now, what I would like to know exactly is: are there actually any viable alternatives for this "offline"? Am I going about it in the correct manner, do you guys have any advice or alternatives. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Flex vs GWT again

  - by CK Lee

  Hi all, I am working on a customized web ontology editor (something like http://webprotege.stanford.edu/ which is built by GWT). My backend will be Java+Spring+Hibernate and domain models are in Java. My frontend will be something like WebProtege which requires extensive RPC call. It is quite clear that I should use GWT as I can refer to the open source code. However, due to company policy, I shall consider Flex as well. I understand Flex can remotely invoke Java backend methods via BlazeDS using AMF (Is there a Flex equivalent of GWT-RPC?). I have read discussion on GWT vs Flex vs ?. If I can make full decision sure I will go with GWT. GWT strengths like support right to left characters, support iPhone/iPad, smaller size, support JSON out of the box, support printing are not important considerations for my project. Besides GWT supports Java generic, enum; domain objects can be shared with both GWT client and server; coding are more seamlessly... anyone can suggest other strong reasons that I should only go with GWT? FYI, I have plenty of Java experience but both GWT and Flex are new to me. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question

  - by songdogtech

  Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question I'm using the Javascript function below for Twitter sharing (as well as other services; the function code is simplified to just Twitter for this question) that grabs the to-be-shared page URL and title and it is invoked in the link with onclick. That results in the Twitter share page loading in a pop up browser window, i.e.<img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> In order to be consistent with other design aspects of the site, what I'd like to be able to do is have the Twitter share page open not in a standard browser window but in a Fancybox (jQuery) window. Fancybox can load an external page in an iFrame when the img or href link contains a class (in this case class="iframe" ) in the link and in the document ready function in the header. Right now, of course, when I give the iframe class to the link that also has the onclick share.tw(), I get two popups: one browser window popup with the correct Twitter share page loaded, and a Fancybox jQuery popup that shows a site 404. How can I change the function to use Fancybox to present the Twitter share page? Is that a correct way to approach it? Or is there a better way, such as implementing the share function in jQuery, too? Thanks... Javascript share function: var share = { tw:function(title,url) { this.share('http://twitter.com/home?status=##URL##+##TITLE##',title,url); }, share:function(tpl,title,url) { if(!url) url = encodeURIComponent(window.location); if(!title) title = encodeURIComponent(document.title); tpl = tpl.replace("##URL##",url); tpl = tpl.replace("##TITLE##",title); window.open(tpl,"sharewindow"+tpl.substr(6,15),"width=640,height=480"); } }; It is invoked, i.e.: <img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> Fancybox function, invoked by adding class="iframe" in the img or href link $(".iframe").fancybox({ 'width' : '100%', 'height' : '100%', 'autoScale' : false, 'transitionIn' : 'none', 'transitionOut' : 'none', 'type' : 'iframe' });

  Read the article

• How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

  - by Wion

  Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• PHP hack files found - help decoding and identifying

  - by akc

  I found a handful of hack files on our web server. I managed to de-obfuscate them a bit -- they all seem to have a part that decodes into a chunk that looks like: if (!empty($_COOKIE['v']) and $_COOKIE['v']=='d'){if (!empty($_POST['c'])) {echo '<textarea rows=28 cols=80>'; $d=base64_decode(str_replace(' ','+',$_POST['c']));if($d) @eval($d); echo '</textarea>';}echo '<form action="" method=post><textarea cols=80 rows=28 name=c></textarea><br><input type=submit></form>';exit;} But this chunk (decoded above) is usually embedded into a larger code snippet. I've shared the code of one of the files in its entirety here: http://pastie.org/3753704 I can sort of see where this code is going, but definitely not an expert at PHP and could use some help figuring out more specifically what it's doing or enabling. Also, if anyone happens to be familiar with this hack, any information on how it works, and where the backdoor and other components of the hack may be hidden would be super helpful and greatly appreciated. I tried to Google parts of the code, to see if others have reported it, but only came up with this link: http://www.daniweb.com/web-development/php/threads/365059/hacked-joomla Thanks!

  Read the article

• Does .Net use Device Dependent or Device Independent Bitmaps?

  - by Brian

  When loading an image into memory, does .Net use DDB, DIB, or something else entirely? If possible, please cite your sources. I'm wondering because we currently have a classic ASP application that is using a 3rd party component to load images that is occasionally creating a “Not enough storage is available to process this command.” error. The error is very inconsistent but tends to happen on larger images (not always, but often). After resetting IIS, processing the same file again typically works just fine. After much research I have found that DDBs tend to have this problem when processing large images because they work out of video memory. Considering that we are running on a web server with an integrated video card and limited shared memory, this could certainly be our problem. We are in the early stages of converting our app to .Net and am wondering if using .Net for this might be a viable alternative to our current method which is why I am asking the question. Any advice is welcome :) but out of curiosity if nothing else, I am really hoping for an answer to the question; does .Net use DDB or DIB?

  Read the article

• Can we have a component-scoped bean in a JSF2 composite component?

  - by Pradyumna

  Hi, I was wondering how I could create "component-scoped" beans, or so-to-say, "local variables inside a composite component" that are private to the instance of the composite component, and live as long as that instance lives. Below are more details, explained with an example: Suppose there is a "calculator" component - something that allows users to type in a mathematical expression, and evaluates its value. Optionally, it also plots the associated function. I can make a composite component that has: a text box for accepting the math expression two buttons called "Evaluate", and "Plot" another nested component that plots the function It is evidently a self-contained piece of function; so that somebody who wants to use it may just say <math:expressionEvaluator /> But obviously, the implementation would need a java object - something that evaluates the expression, something that computes the plot points, etc. - and I imagine it can be a bean - scoped just for this instance of this component, not a view-scoped or request-scoped bean that is shared across all instances of the component. How do I create such a bean? Is that even possible with composite components?

  Read the article

• How to deal with a flaw in System.Data.DataTableExtensions.CopyToDataTable()

  - by andy

  Hey guys, so I've come across something which is perhaps a flaw in the Extension method .CopyToDataTable. This method is used by Importing (in VB.NET) System.Data.DataTableExtensions and then calling the method against an IEnumerable. You would do this if you want to filter a Datatable using LINQ, and then restore the DataTable at the end. i.e: Imports System.Data.DataRowExtensions Imports System.Data.DataTableExtensions Public Class SomeClass Private Shared Function GetData() As DataTable Dim Data As DataTable Data = LegacyADO.NETDBCall Data = Data.AsEnumerable.Where(Function(dr) dr.Field(Of Integer)("SomeField") = 5).CopyToDataTable() Return Data End Function End Class In the example above, the "WHERE" filtering might return no results. If this happens CopyToDataTable throws an exception because there are no DataRows. Why? The correct behavior should be to return a DataTable with Rows.Count = 0. Can anyone think of a clean workaround to this, in such a way that whoever calls CopyToDataTable doesn't have to be aware of this issue? System.Data.DataTableExtensions is a Static Class so I can't override the behavior....any ideas? Have I missed something? cheers UPDATE: I have submitted this as an issue to Connect. I would still like some suggestions, but if you agree with me, you could vote up the issue at Connect via the link above cheers

  Read the article

• Browser download file prompt using javascript

  - by aix

  hi, I was wondering if there was any method to implement browser's download file prompt using javascript. My reason - well users will be uploading files to a local fileserver which cannot be accessed from the webserver. In other words, both will be on different domains! e.g. let’s say websites hosted on www.xyz.com, but files would reside on local file server with address like \10.10.10.01\Files\file.txt. How am I uploading/transferring file to local fileserver... using ACTIVEX(yikes) & VBscript!!!! (don’t ask :-) so i am storing local file path in my database and binding that data to a grid. So when the user clicks on that link, the file opens in a window (using javascript). Problem is certain file types like text, jpg, pdf, etc open inside browser window. How would i be able to implement content-type or content-disposition using client side scripting? Is that even possible? hoping my description was clear. Any ideas? EDIT: the local file server has a window's shared folder on which the files are saved.

  Read the article

• Mutually beneficial IP/copyright clauses for contract-based freelance work

  - by Nathan de Vries

  I have a copyright section in the contract I give to my clients stating that I retain copyright on any works produced during my work for them as an independent contractor. This is most definitely not intended to place arbitrary restrictions on my clients, but rather to maintain my ability to decide on how the software I create is licensed and distributed. Almost every project I work on results in at least one part of it being released as open source. Every project I work on makes use of third-party software released in the same fashion, so returning the favour is something I would like to continue doing. Unfortunately, the contract is not so clear when it comes to defining the rights of the client in the use of said software. I mention that the code will be licensed to them, but do not mention specifics about exclusivity, ability to produce derivatives etc. As such, a client has raised concerns about the copyright section of my contract, and has suggested that I reword it such that all copyrights are transferred entirely to the client on final payment for the project. This will almost certainly reduce my ability to distribute the software I have created; I would much prefer to find a more mutually beneficial agreement where both our concerns are appeased. Are there any tried and true approaches to licensing software in this kind of situation? To summarise: I want to maintain the ability to license (parts of) the software under my own terms, independently of my relationship with the client; with some guarantee to the client that no trade-secrets or critical business logic will be shared; giving them the ability to re-use my code in their future projects; but not necessarily letting them sell it (I'm not sure about this, though...what happens if they sell their business and the software along with it?) I realise that everyone's feedback is going to be prefixed with "IANAL", however I appreciate any thoughts you might have on the matter.

  Read the article

• Problems with Threading in Python 2.5, KeyError: 51, Help debugging?

  - by vignesh-k

  I have a python script which runs a particular script large number of times (for monte carlo purpose) and the way I have scripted it is that, I queue up the script the desired number of times it should be run then I spawn threads and each thread runs the script once and again when its done. Once the script in a particular thread is finished, the output is written to a file by accessing a lock (so my guess was that only one thread accesses the lock at a given time). Once the lock is released by one thread, the next thread accesses it and adds its output to the previously written file and rewrites it. I am not facing a problem when the number of iterations is small like 10 or 20 but when its large like 50 or 150, python returns a KeyError: 51 telling me element doesn't exist and the error it points out to is within the lock which puzzles me since only one thread should access the lock at once and I do not expect an error. This is the class I use: class errorclass(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, queue): self.__queue=queue threading.Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): while 1: item = self.__queue.get() if item is None: break result = myfunction() lock = threading.RLock() lock.acquire() ADD entries from current thread to entries in file and REWRITE FILE lock.release() queue = Queue.Queue() for i in range(threads): errorclass(queue).start() for i in range(desired iterations): queue.put(i) for i in range(threads): queue.put(None) Python returns with KeyError: 51 for large number of desired iterations during the adding/write file operation after lock access, I am wondering if this is the correct way to use the lock since every thread has a lock operation rather than every thread accessing a shared lock? What would be the way to rectify this?

  Read the article

• Constructor initializer list: code from the C++ Primer, chapter 16

  - by Alexandros Gezerlis

  Toward the end of Chapter 16 of the "C++ Primer" I encountered the following code (I've removed a bunch of lines): class Sales_item { public: // default constructor: unbound handle Sales_item(): h() { } private: Handle<Item_base> h; // use-counted handle }; My problem is with the Sales_item(): h() { } line. For the sake of completeness, let me also quote the parts of the Handle class template that I think are relevant to my question (I think I don't need to show the Item_base class): template <class T> class Handle { public: // unbound handle Handle(T *p = 0): ptr(p), use(new size_t(1)) { } private: T* ptr; // shared object size_t *use; // count of how many Handles point to *ptr }; I would have expected something like either: a) Sales_item(): h(0) { } which is a convention the authors have used repeatedly in earlier chapters, or b) Handle<Item_base>() if the intention was to invoke the default constructor of the Handle class. Instead, what the book has is Sales_item(): h() { }. My gut reaction is that this is a typo, since h() looks suspiciously similar to a function declaration. On the other hand, I just tried compiling under g++ and running the example code that uses this class and it seems to be working correctly. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

  - by DuFace

  I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >