Search Results

Search found 37074 results on 1483 pages for 'define method'.

Page 387/1483 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

• ActionScript / AIR - One Button Limit (Exclusive Touch) For Mobile Devices?

  - by TheDarkIn1978

  two years ago, when i was developing an application for the iPhone, i used the following built-in system method on all of my buttons: [button setExclusiveTouch:YES]; essentially, if you had many buttons on screen, this method insured that the application wouldn't be permitted do crazy things when several button events firing at the same time as any new button press would cancel all others. problematic: ButtonA and ButtonB are available. each button has a mouse up event which fire a specific animated (tweened) reorganization/layout of the UI. if both button's events are fired at the same time, their events will likely conflict, causing a strange new layout, perhaps a runtime error. solution: application buttons cancel any current pending mouse up events when said button enters mouse down. private function mouseDownEventHandler(evt:MouseEvent):void { //if other buttons are currently in a mouse down state ready to fire //a mouse up event, cancel them all here. } of course it's simple to manually handle this if there are only a few buttons on stage, but managing buttons becomes more and more complicated / bug-prone if there are several / many buttons available. is there a convenience method available in AIR specifically for this functionality?

  Read the article

• How to process events chain.

  - by theblackcascade

  I need to process this chain using one LoadXML method and one urlLoader object: ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("Config.xml"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("GraphicsSet.xml"); Loader starts loading after first frameFunc iteration (why?) I want it to start immediatly.(optional) And it starts loading only "GraphicsSet.xml" Loader class LoadXml method: public function LoadXML(URL:String):XML { urlLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,XmlLoadCompleteListener); urlLoader.load(new URLRequest(URL)); return xml; } private function XmlLoadCompleteListener(e:Event):void { var xml:XML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(xml); trace(xml.name()); if(xml.name() == "Config") XMLParser.Instance.GameSetup(xml); else if(xml.name() == "GraphicsSet") XMLParser.Instance.GraphicsPoolSetup(xml); } Here is main: public function Main() { Mouse.hide(); this.addChild(Game.Instance); this.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME,Game.Instance.Loop); } And on adding a Game.Instance to the rendering queue in game constuctor i start initialize method: public function Game():void { trace("Constructor"); if(_instance) throw new Error("Use Instance Field"); Initialize(); } its code is: private function Initialize():void { trace("initialization"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("Config.xml"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("GraphicsSet.xml"); } Thanks.

  Read the article

• Is `List<Dog>` a subclass of `List<Animal>`? Why aren't Java's generics implicitly polymorphic?

  - by froadie

  I'm a bit confused about how Java generics handle inheritance / polymorphism. Assume the following hierarchy - Animal (Parent) Dog - Cat (Children) So suppose I have a method doSomething(List<Animal> animals). By all the rules of inheritance and polymorphism, I would assume that a List<Dog> is a List<Animal> and a List<Cat> is a List<Animal> - and so either one could be passed to this method. Not so. If I want to achieve this behavior, I have to explicitly tell the method to accept a list of any subset of Animal by saying doSomething(List<? extends Animal> animals). I understand that this is Java's behavior. My question is why? Why is polymorphism generally implicit, but when it comes to generics it must be specified?

  Read the article

• Is there any performance issue using Row_Number to implement table paging in Sql Server 2008?

  - by majkinetor

  I want to implement table paging using this method: SET @PageNum = 2; SET @PageSize = 10; WITH OrdersRN AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY OrderDate, OrderID) AS RowNum ,* FROM dbo.Orders ) SELECT * FROM OrdersRN WHERE RowNum BETWEEN (@PageNum - 1) * @PageSize + 1 AND @PageNum * @PageSize ORDER BY OrderDate ,OrderID; Is there anything I should be aware of ? Table has millions of records. Thx. EDIT: After using suggested MAXROWS method for some time (which works really really fast) I had to switch back to ROW_NUMBER method because of its greater flexibility. I am also very happy about its speed so far (I am working with View having more then 1M records with 10 columns). To use any kind of query I use following modification: PROCEDURE [dbo].[PageSelect] ( @Sql nvarchar(512), @OrderBy nvarchar(128) = 'Id', @PageNum int = 1, @PageSize int = 0 ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON Declare @tsql as nvarchar(1024) Declare @i int, @j int if (@PageSize <= 0) OR (@PageSize > 10000) SET @PageSize = 10000 -- never return more then 10K records SET @i = (@PageNum - 1) * @PageSize + 1 SET @j = @PageNum * @PageSize SET @tsql = 'WITH MyTableOrViewRN AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY ' + @OrderBy + ') AS RowNum ,* FROM MyTableOrView WHERE ' + @Sql + ' ) SELECT * FROM MyTableOrViewRN WHERE RowNum BETWEEN ' + CAST(@i as varchar) + ' AND ' + cast(@j as varchar) exec(@tsql) END If you use this procedure make sure u prevented sql injection.

  Read the article

• Java - Removing duplicates in an ArrayList

  - by Will

  I'm working on a program that uses an ArrayList to store Strings. The program prompts the user with a menu and allows the user to choose an operation to perform. Such operations are adding Strings to the List, printing the entries etc. What I want to be able to do is create a method called removeDuplicates().This method will search the ArrayList and remove any duplicated values. I want to leave one instance of the duplicated value(s) within the list. I also want this method to return the total number of duplicates removed. I've been trying to use nested loops to accomplish this but I've been running into trouble because when entries get deleted, the indexing of the ArrayList gets altered and things don't work as they should. I know conceptually what I need to do but I'm having trouble implementing this idea in code. Here is some pseudo code: start with first entry; check each subsequent entry in the list and see if it matches the first entry; remove each subsequent entry in the list that matches the first entry; after all entries have been examined, move on to the second entry; check each entry in the list and see if it matches the second entry; remove each entry in the list that matches the second entry; repeat for entry in the list Here's the code I have so far: public int removeDuplicates() { int duplicates = 0; for ( int i = 0; i < strings.size(); i++ ) { for ( int j = 0; j < strings.size(); j++ ) { if ( i == j ) { // i & j refer to same entry so do nothing } else if ( strings.get( j ).equals( strings.get( i ) ) ) { strings.remove( j ); duplicates++; } } } return duplicates; }

  Read the article

• How can I spec out an authlogic sessions controller using using a stub?

  - by Dave

  I want to test my User Session Controller testing that a user session is first built then saved. My UserSession class looks like this: class UserSession < Authlogic::Session::Base end The create method of my UserSessionsController looks like this: def create @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully logged in." redirect_back_or_default administer_home_page_url else render :new end end and my controller spec looks like this: describe UserSessionsController do it "should build a new user session" do UserSession.stub!(:new).with(:email, :password) UserSession.should_receive(:new).with(:email => "[email protected]", :password => "foobar") post :create, :user_session => { :email => "[email protected]", :password => "foobar" } end end I stub out the new method but I still get the following error when I run the test: Spec::Mocks::MockExpectationError in 'UserSessionsController should build a new user session' <UserSession (class)> received :new with unexpected arguments expected: ({:password=>"foobar", :email=>"[email protected]"}) got: ({:priority_record=>nil}, nil) It's although the new method is being called on UserSession before my controller code is getting called. Calling activate_authlogic makes no difference.

  Read the article

• How do I break down an NSTimeInterval into year, months, days, hours, minutes and seconds on iPhone?

  - by willc2

  I have a time interval that spans years and I want all the time components from year down to seconds. My first thought is to integer divide the time interval by seconds in a year, subtract that from a running total of seconds, divide that by seconds in a month, subtract that from the running total and so on. That just seems convoluted and I've read that whenever you are doing something that looks convoluted, there is probably a built-in method. Is there? I integrated Alex's 2nd method into my code. It's in a method called by a UIDatePicker in my interface. NSDate *now = [NSDate date]; NSDate *then = self.datePicker.date; NSTimeInterval howLong = [now timeIntervalSinceDate:then]; NSDate *date = [NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSince1970:howLong]; NSString *dateStr = [date description]; const char *dateStrPtr = [dateStr UTF8String]; int year, month, day, hour, minute, sec; sscanf(dateStrPtr, "%d-%d-%d %d:%d:%d", &year, &month, &day, &hour, &minute, &sec); year -= 1970; NSLog(@"%d years\n%d months\n%d days\n%d hours\n%d minutes\n%d seconds", year, month, day, hour, minute, sec); When I set the date picker to a date 1 year and 1 day in the past, I get: 1 years 1 months 1 days 16 hours 0 minutes 20 seconds which is 1 month and 16 hours off. If I set the date picker to 1 day in the past, I am off by the same amount. Update: I have an app that calculates your age in years, given your birthday (set from a UIDatePicker), yet it was often off. This proves there was an inaccuracy, but I can't figure out where it comes from, can you?

  Read the article

• Ruby on Rails user login form in main layout

  - by Jimmy

  Hey guys I have a simple ror application for some demo stuff. I am running into a problem with trying to move my login form from the users controller and just have it displayed in the main navigation so that a user can easily log in from anywhere. The problem is the form doesn't generate the correct action for the html form. Ruby code: <% form_for(url_for(:action => 'login'), :method => 'post') do |f| %> <li><%= f.text_field("username") %></li> <li><%= f.password_field("password") %></li> <li><%= submit_tag("Login")%></li> <% end %> The problem is depending on the controller I am currently in this generates HTML actions like <form action="/home" method="post">...</form> when it should be generating HTML like so <form action="/login" method="post">...</form> I know I could simply do an HTML form here but I want to keep things as easy to maintain as possible. Any help?

  Read the article

• SugarmCRM REST API always returns "null"

  - by TuomasR

  I'm trying to test out the SugarCRM REST API, running latest version of CE (6.0.1). It seems that whenever I do a query, the API returns "null", nothing else. If I omit the parameters, then the API returns the API description (which the documentation says it should). I'm trying to perform a login, passing as parameter the method (login), input_type and response_type (json) and rest_data (JSON encoded parameters). The following code does the query: $api_target = "http://example.com/sugarcrm/service/v2/rest.php"; $parameters = json_encode(array( "user_auth" => array( "user_name" => "admin", "password" => md5("adminpassword"), ), "application_name" => "Test", "name_value_list" => array(), )); $postData = http_build_query(array( "method" => "login", "input_type" => "json", "response_type" => "json", "rest_data" => $parameters )); echo $parameters . "\n"; echo $postData . "\n"; echo file_get_contents($api_target, false, stream_context_create(array( "http" => array( "method" => "POST", "header" => "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n", "content" => $postData ) ))) . "\n"; I've tried different variations of parameters and using username instead of user_name, and all provide the same result, just a response "null" and that's it.

  Read the article

• What to pass parameters to start an workflow through WCF

  - by Rubens Farias

  It's possible to define some start values to an workflow using WorkflowInstance.CreateWorkflow, like this: using(WorkflowRuntime runtime = new WorkflowRuntime()) { Dictionary<string, object> parameters = new Dictionary<string, object>(); parameters.Add("First", "something"); parameters.Add("Second", 42); WorkflowInstance instance = runtime.CreateWorkflow(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow), parameters); instance.Start(); waitHandle.WaitOne(); } This way, a MyStateMachineWorkflow instance is created and First and Second public properties gets that dictionary values. But I'm using WCF; so far, I managed to create a Start method which accepts that two arguments and I set that required fields by using bind on my ReceiveActivity: using (WorkflowServiceHost host = new WorkflowServiceHost(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow))) { host.Open(); ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow> factory = new ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow>("MyStateMachineWorkflow"); IMyStateMachineWorkflow proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); // set this values through binding on my ReceiveActivity proxy.Start("something", 42); } While this works, that create an anomaly: that method should be called only and exactly once. How can I start an workflow instance through WCF passing those arguments? On my tests, I just actually interact with my workflow through wire after I call that proxy method. Is there other way?

  Read the article

• @selector and return value

  - by user320926

  The idea it's very easy, i have an http download class, this class must support the http authentication but it's basically a background thread so i would like to avoid to prompt directly to the screen, i would like to use a delegate method to require from outside of the class, like a viewController. But i don't know if is possible or if i have to use a different syntax. This class use this delegate protocol: //Updater.h @protocol Updater <NSObject> -(NSDictionary *)authRequired; @optional -(void)statusUpdate:(NSString *)newStatus; -(void)downloadProgress:(int)percentage; @end @interface Updater : NSThread { ... } This is the call to the delegate method: //Updater.m // This check always fails :( if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(authRequired:)]) { auth = [delegate authRequired]; } This is the implementation of the delegate method //rootViewController.m -(NSDictionary *)authRequired; { // TODO: some kind of popup or modal view NSMutableDictionary *ret=[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [ret setObject:@"utente" forKey:@"user"]; [ret setObject:@"password" forKey:@"pass"]; return ret; }

  Read the article

• Calling private constructors with Reflection.Emit?

  - by Jakob Botsch Nielsen

  I'm trying to emit the following IL: LocalBuilder pointer = il.DeclareLocal(typeof(IntPtr)); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); il.Emit(OpCodes.Stloc, pointer); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ldloca, pointer); il.Emit(OpCodes.Call, typeof(IntPtr).GetMethod("ToPointer")); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); The delegate I bind with has the signature void* TestDelegate(IntPtr ptr) It throws the exception Operation could destabilize the runtime. Anyone knows what's wrong? EDIT: Alright, so I got the IL working now. The entire goal of this was to be able to call a private constructor. The private constructor takes a pointer so I can't use normal reflection. Now.. When I call it, I get an exception saying Attempt by method <built method> to access method <private constructor> failed. Apparently it's performing security checks - but from experience I know that Reflection is able to do private stuff like this normally, so hopefully there is a way to disable that check?

  Read the article

• How to deal with a flaw in System.Data.DataTableExtensions.CopyToDataTable()

  - by andy

  Hey guys, so I've come across something which is perhaps a flaw in the Extension method .CopyToDataTable. This method is used by Importing (in VB.NET) System.Data.DataTableExtensions and then calling the method against an IEnumerable. You would do this if you want to filter a Datatable using LINQ, and then restore the DataTable at the end. i.e: Imports System.Data.DataRowExtensions Imports System.Data.DataTableExtensions Public Class SomeClass Private Shared Function GetData() As DataTable Dim Data As DataTable Data = LegacyADO.NETDBCall Data = Data.AsEnumerable.Where(Function(dr) dr.Field(Of Integer)("SomeField") = 5).CopyToDataTable() Return Data End Function End Class In the example above, the "WHERE" filtering might return no results. If this happens CopyToDataTable throws an exception because there are no DataRows. Why? The correct behavior should be to return a DataTable with Rows.Count = 0. Can anyone think of a clean workaround to this, in such a way that whoever calls CopyToDataTable doesn't have to be aware of this issue? System.Data.DataTableExtensions is a Static Class so I can't override the behavior....any ideas? Have I missed something? cheers UPDATE: I have submitted this as an issue to Connect. I would still like some suggestions, but if you agree with me, you could vote up the issue at Connect via the link above cheers

  Read the article

• N Tiers with SubSonic 3, Dirty Columns collection is alwayes empty on update

  - by Adel

  Hello guys here is what i am doing, and not working for me. I have a DAL generated with SubSonic 3 ActiveRecord template, i have a service layer (business layer if you well) that have mixture of facade and some validation. say i have a method on the Service layer like public void UpdateClient(Client client); in my GUI i create a Client object fill it with some data with ID and pass it to the service method and this never worked, the dirty columns collection (that track which columns are altered in order to use more efficant update statment) is alwayes empty. if i tried to get the object from database inside my GUI then pass it to the service method it's not working either. the only scenario i find working is if i query the object from the database and call Update() on the same context all inside my GUI and this defeats the whole service layer i've created. however for insert and delete everything working fine, i wonder if this have to do something with object tracking but what i know is SubSonic don't do that. please advice. thanks. Adel.

  Read the article

• Linq to SQL duplicating entry when referencing FK

  - by Oscar

  Hi! I am still facing some problems when using LINQ-to-SQL. I am also looking for answers by myself, but this problem is so akward that I am having problems to find the right keywords to look for it. I have this code here: public CustomTask SaveTask(string token, CustomTask task) { TrackingDataContext dataConext = new TrackingDataContext(); //Check the token for security if (SessionTokenBase.Instance.ExistsToken(Convert.ToInt32(token)) == null) return null; //Populates the Task - the "real" Linq to SQL object Task t = new Task(); t.Title = task.Title; t.Description = task.Description; //****The next 4 lines are important**** if (task.Severity != null) t.Severity = task.Severity; else t.SeverityID = task.SeverityID; t.StateID = task.StateID; if (task.TeamMember != null) t.TeamMember = task.TeamMember; else t.ReporterID = task.ReporterID; if (task.ReporterTeam != null) t.Team = task.ReporterTeam; else t.ReporterTeamID = task.ReporterTeamID; //Saves/Updates the task dataConext.Tasks.InsertOnSubmit(t); dataConext.SubmitChanges(); task.ID = t.ID; return task; } The problem is that I am sending the ID of the severity, and then, when I get this situation: DB State before calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low Call the method selecting "medium" as severity DB State after calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low 4 medium The point is: -It identified that the ID was related to the Medium entry (and for this reason it could populate the "Name" Column correctly), but if duplicated this entry. The problem is: Why?!! Some explanation about the code: CustomTask is almost the same as Task, but I was having problems regarding serialization as can be seen here I don't want to send the Severity property populated because I want my message to be as small as possible. Could anyone clear to my, why it recognize the entry, but creates a new entry in the DB?

  Read the article

• Can I do this?? Trying to load an object from within itself.

  - by Smikey

  Hi all! I have an object which conforms to the NSCoding protocol. The object contains a method to save itself to memory, like so: - (void)saveToFile { NSMutableData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] init]; NSKeyedArchiver *archiver = [[NSKeyedArchiver alloc] initForWritingWithMutableData:data]; [archiver encodeObject:self forKey:kDataKey]; [archiver finishEncoding]; [data writeToFile:[self dataFilePath] atomically:YES]; [archiver release]; [data release]; } This works just fine. But I would also like to initialise an empty version of this object and then call its own 'Load' method to load whatever data exists on file into its variables. So I've created the following: - (void)loadFromFile { NSString *filePath = [self dataFilePath]; if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]) { NSData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self dataFilePath]]; NSKeyedUnarchiver *unarchiver = [[NSKeyedUnarchiver alloc] initForReadingWithData:data]; self = [unarchiver decodeObjectForKey:kDataKey]; [unarchiver finishDecoding]; } } Now this second method doesn't manage to load any variables. Is this line not possible perhaps? self = [unarchiver decodeObjectForKey:kDataKey]; Ultimately I would like to use the code like this: One viewController takes user entered input, creates an object and saves it to memory using [anObject saveToFile]; And a second viewController creates an empty object, then initialises its values to those stored on file by calling: [emptyObject loadFromFile]; Any suggestions on how to make this work would be hugely appreciated. Thanks :) Michael

  Read the article

• using yield in C# like I would in Ruby

  - by Sarah Vessels

  Besides just using yield for iterators in Ruby, I also use it to pass control briefly back to the caller before resuming control in the called method. What I want to do in C# is similar. In a test class, I want to get a connection instance, create another variable instance that uses that connection, then pass the variable to the calling method so it can be fiddled with. I then want control to return to the called method so that the connection can be disposed. I guess I'm wanting a block/closure like in Ruby. Here's the general idea: private static MyThing getThing() { using (var connection = new Connection()) { yield return new MyThing(connection); } } [TestMethod] public void MyTest1() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } [TestMethod] public void MyTest2() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } ... This doesn't work in C#; ReSharper tells me that the body of getThing cannot be an iterator block because MyThing is not an iterator interface type. That's definitely true, but I don't want to iterate through some list. I'm guessing I shouldn't use yield if I'm not working with iterators. Any idea how I can achieve this block/closure thing in C# so I don't have to wrap my code in MyTest1, MyTest2, ... with the code in getThing()'s body?

  Read the article

• how do I best create a set of list classes to match my business objects

  - by ken-forslund

  I'm a bit fuzzy on the best way to solve the problem of needing a list for each of my business objects that implements some overridden functions. Here's the setup: I have a baseObject that sets up database, and has its proper Dispose() method All my other business objects inherit from it, and if necessary, override Dispose() Some of these classes also contain arrays (lists) of other objects. So I create a class that holds a List of these. I'm aware I could just use the generic List, but that doesn't let me add extra features like Dispose() so it will loop through and clean up. So if I had objects called User, Project and Schedule, I would create UserList, ProjectList, ScheduleList. In the past, I have simply had these inherit from List< with the appropriate class named and then written the pile of common functions I wanted it to have, like Dispose(). this meant I would verify by hand, that each of these List classes had the same set of methods. Some of these classes had pretty simple versions of these methods that could have been inherited from a base list class. I could write an interface, to force me to ensure that each of my List classes has the same functions, but interfaces don't let me write common base functions that SOME of the lists might override. I had tried to write a baseObjectList that inherited from List, and then make my other Lists inherit from that, but there are issues with that (which is really why I came here). One of which was trying to use the Find() method with a predicate. I've simplified the problem down to just a discussion of Dispose() method on the list that loops through and disposes its contents, but in reality, I have several other common functions that I want all my lists to have. What's the best practice to solve this organizational matter?

  Read the article

• How to add a gwt widget to a gwt Composite already visible at runtime using MVP?

  - by mary4pfc

  Hi! I'm building an application whose menus depend on user roles. Once user is logged in and, therefore, her roles are known, I want to create the Hyperlinks related to the user and add them to the menu. I'm using MVP. Here's my code for the presenter: public class AdminMenuAreaPresenter extends WidgetPresenter<AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display> { public interface Display extends WidgetDisplay{ public void addLink(String link); } private DispatchAsync dispatcher; private SessionManager sessionManager; @Inject public AdminMenuAreaPresenter(AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display display, EventBus bus, DispatchAsync dispatcher, SessionManager sessionManager){ super(display, bus); this.dispatcher = dispatcher; this.sessionManager = sessionManager; this.bind(); } @Override protected void onBind() { super.onBind(); registerHandler(eventBus.addHandler(LoginEvent.TYPE, new LoginEventHandler() { @Override public void onLogin(LoginEvent event) { display.addLink("register user"); } })); } @Override protected void onUnbind() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override protected void onRevealDisplay() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } And here's the View: public class AdminMenuAreaView extends Composite implements AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display{ private VerticalPanel vPanel; private Hyperlink registerUserLink; public AdminMenuAreaView(){ vPanel = new VerticalPanel(); initWidget(vPanel); } @Override public Widget asWidget() { return this; } public void addLink(String s){ registerUserLink = new Hyperlink(s, "this is new target"); this.vPanel.add(registerUserLink); registerUserLink.setVisible(true); } public HasClickHandlers getRegisterUserLink(){ return registerUserLink; } What am I doing wrong? Flow program goes throgh the addLink() method, but nothing is added to the view either dom document. Thank you.

  Read the article

• different thread accessing MemoryStream

  - by Wayne

  There's a bit of code which writes data to a MemoryStream object directly into it's data buffer by calling GetBuffer(). It also uses and updates the Position and SetLength() properties appropriately. This code works purposes 99.9999% of the time. Literally. Only every so many 100,000's of iterations it will barf. The specific problem is that the memory.Position property suddenly returns zero instead of the appropriate value. However, code was added that checks for the 0 and throws an exception which include log of the MemoryStream properties like Position and Length in a separate method. Those return the correct value. Further addition shows that when this rare condition occurs, the memory.Position only has zero inside this particular method. Okay. Obviously, this must be a threading issue. But this code is well locked. However, the nature of this software is that it's organized by "tasks" with a scheduler and so any one of several actual O/S thread may run this code at any give time--but never more than one at a time. So it's my guess that ordinarily it so happens that the same thread keeps getting used for this method and then on a rare occasion a different thread get used. Then due to compiler optimizations, the different thread never gets the correct value. It gets a "stale" value. Ordinarily in a situation like this I would apply a "volatile" keyword to the variable in question. But that (those) variables are inside the MemoryStream object. Does anyone have any other idea? Or does this mean we have to implement our own MemoryStream object? (Just like we end up having to do with practically every collection in .NET?) It's a shame to have such an awesome platform as .NET and have virtually the entire system useless as-is for seriously parallelized applications. If I'm wrong or you have other ideas, please advise. Sincerely, Wayne

  Read the article

• Implementing client callback functionality in WCF

  - by PoweredByOrange

  The project I'm working on is a client-server application with all services written in WCF and the client in WPF. There are cases where the server needs to push information to the client. I initially though about using WCF Duplex Services, but after doing some research online, I figured a lot of people are avoiding it for many reasons. The next thing I thought about was having the client create a host connection, so that the server could use that to make a service call to the client. The problem however, is that the application is deployed over the internet, so that approach requires configuring the firewall to allow incoming traffic and since most of the users are regular users, that might also require configuring the router to allow port forwarding, which again is a hassle for the user. My third option is that in the client, spawns a background thread which makes a call to the GetNotifications() method on server. This method on the server side then, blocks until an actual notification is created, then the thread is notified (using an AutoResetEvent object maybe?) and the information gets sent to the client. The idea is something like this: Client private void InitializeListener() { Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { while (true) { var notification = server.GetNotifications(); // Display the notification. } }, CancellationToken.None, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning, TaskScheduler.Default); } Server public NotificationObject GetNotifications() { while (true) { notificationEvent.WaitOne(); return someNotificationObject; } } private void NotificationCreated() { // Inform the client of this event. notificationEvent.Set(); } In this case, NotificationCreated() is a callback method called when the server needs to send information to the client. What do you think about this approach? Is this scalable at all?

  Read the article

• Hibernate Transient Extends problem

  - by mrvreddy

  @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseAbstract implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; protected String test = //some random value; public String getTest() { return test; } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } @Entity public class Artist extends BaseAbstract { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private Integer id; @override @Transient public String getTest() { return test; } ..... } My question is... when i am trying to do any operation on the artist, along with id and name, test is also getting saved which should not be the case... if i add the same transient on the baseabstract class getTest() method, i see test column NOT getting created(ideally what it should happen) but if i try to override the method with adding annotaion in the sub class it creates the test column... I dont know why this is happening since when hibernate is creating the artist object and checks for annotations, it should see the transient annotation present on the getTest() of artist method...and should not create a column in the database... Let me know if you need any clarification.... Any response on this is greatly appreciated.... Thank you

  Read the article

• C++ socket protocol design issue (ring inclusion)

  - by Martin Lauridsen

  So I have these two classes, mpqs_client and client_protocol. The mpqs_client class handles a Boost socket connection to a server (sending and receiving messages with some specific format. Upon receiving a message, it calls a static method, parse_message(..), in the class client_protocol, and this method should analyse the message received and perform some corresponding action. Given some specific input, the parse_message method needs to send some data back to the server. As mentioned, this happens through the class mpqs_client. So I could, from mpqs_client, pass "this" to parse_message(..) in client_protocol. However, this leads to a two-way association relationship between the two classes. Something which I reckon is not desireable. Also, to implement this, I would need to include the other in each one, and this gives me a terrible pain. I am thinking this is more of a design issue. What is the best solution here? Code is posted below. Class mpqs_client: #include "mpqs_client.h" mpqs_client::mpqs_client(boost::asio::io_service& io_service, tcp::resolver::iterator endpoint_iterator) : io_service_(io_service), socket_(io_service) { ... } ... void mpqs_client::write(const network_message& msg) { io_service_.post(boost::bind(&mpqs_client::do_write, this, msg)); } Class client_protocol: #include "../network_message.hpp" #include "../protocol_consts.h" class client_protocol { public: static void parse_message(network_message& msg, mpqs_sieve **instance_, mpqs_client &client_) { ... switch (type) { case MPQS_DATA: ... break; case POLYNOMIAL_DATA: ... break; default: break; } }

  Read the article

• Stuck trying to get Log4Net to work with Dependency Injection

  - by Pure.Krome

  I've got a simple winform test app i'm using to try some Log4Net Dependency Injection stuff. I've made a simple interface in my Services project :- public interface ILogging { void Debug(string message); // snip the other's. } Then my concrete type will be using Log4Net... public class Log4NetLogging : ILogging { private static ILog Log4Net { get { return LogManager.GetLogger( MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); } } public void Debug(string message) { if (Log4Net.IsDebugEnabled) { Log4Net.Debug(message); } } } So far so good. Nothing too hard there. Now, in a different project (and therefore namesapce), I try and use this ... public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { FileInfo fileInfo = new FileInfo("Log4Net.config"); log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(fileInfo); } private void Foo() { // This would be handled with DI, but i've not set it up // (on the constructor, in this code example). ILogging logging = new Log4NetLogging(); logging.Debug("Test message"); } } Ok .. also pretty simple. I've hardcoded the ILogging instance but that is usually dependency injected via the constructor. Anyways, when i check this line of code... return LogManager.GetLogger(MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); the DeclaringType type value is of the Service namespace, not the type of the Form (ie. X.Y.Z.Form1) which actually called the method. Without passing the type INTO method as another argument, is there anyway using reflection to figure out the real method that called it?

  Read the article

• EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

  - by Martin

  Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >