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  • Can't display image with Imageview on Android

    - by user1029167
    In my \drawable-mdpi folder, I have an image named: test.jpg In my main.xml file, in my LinearLayout section, I have: <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/test" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> In my src folder, I have only 1 file, HelloAndroidActivity.java with only the following method: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView image = new ImageView(this); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.test_image); setContentView(image); } This seems to be correct, yet whenever I try to run it, I get The application HelloAndroid (process xxxxx) has stopped unexpectedly. Please try again. The strange part is it previously did display the image, but now it won't and I don't know why. Also, when I comment out the ImageDisplay code, and replace it with TextDisplay code. i.e. TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("Does this work?"); setContentView(tv); It does display the text. Edit: was asked to post logcat. Link to pastebin.

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  • Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

    - by Vaibhav
    Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

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  • How to get the Actual Link file location in VSS?

    - by Regi
    I use VSS and currently I am adding a link file using following code: int ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSNO; //Link in sourcesafe IVSSDatabase ssdb = GetVssDatabase(); Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType _sqlSubType = new Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType(); VSSItem SourceItem = ssdb.get_VSSItem(pSourceItemPath, false); //if source is a proj, recursively share the whole thing if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_PROJECT) ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSYES; VSSItem DestItem = ssdb..get_VSSItem(pDestItemPath, false); //share the item DestItem.Share(SourceItem, pComment, ShareFlags); if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_FILE) { bResult = true; } return bResult; This will works fine. My issue is that I need to find the actual link location. For example I have a Project named as Link and it contains 2 files say file1 and file2. I added a Link to my Working project (say CurrentProject). This current project have 2 files say f1 and f2. After sharing the Link project then we get the item in Current project as: $/CurrentProject/File1 $/CurrentProject/File2 $/CurrentProject/F1 $/CurrentProject/F2 Here File1 and File2 are link files. I need to get its parent (Actual) location i.e. $/Link/file1 and $/Link/File2 Is there any way to find Link files location using SourceSafeTypeLib?

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  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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  • Hibernate JPA Caching Problem, Please help!

    - by Sameer Malhotra
    Ok, Here is my problem. I have a table named Master_Info_tbl. Its a lookup table: Here is the code for the table: @Entity @Table(name="MASTER_INFO_T") public class CodeValue implements java.io.Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -3732397626260983394L; private Integer objectid; private String codetype; private String code; private String shortdesc; private String longdesc; private Integer dptid; private Integer sequen; private Timestamp begindate; private Timestamp enddate; private String username; private Timestamp rowlastchange; //getter Setter methods I have a service layer which calls the method       service.findbycodeType("Code1");   same way this table is queried for the other code types as well e.g. code2, code3 and so on till code10 which gets the result set from the same table and is shown into the drop down of the jsp pages since these drop downs are in 90% of the pages I am thinking to cache them globally. Any idea how to achieve this? FYI: I am using JPA and Hibernate with Struts2 and Spring. The database being used is DB2 UDB8.2 Please help!

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  • Define "Validation in the Model"

    - by sunwukung
    There have been a couple of discussions regarding the location of user input validation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/659950/should-validation-be-done-in-form-objects-or-the-model http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134388/where-do-you-do-your-validation-model-controller-or-view These discussions were quite old, so I wanted to ask the question again to see if anyone had any fresh input. If not, I apologise in advance. If you come from the Validation in the Model camp - does Model mean OOP representation of data (i.e. Active Record/Data Mapper) as "Entity" (to borrow the DDD terminology) - in which case you would, I assume, want all Model classes to inherit common validation constraints. Or can these rules simply be part of a Service in the Model - i.e. a Validation service? For example, could you consider Zend_Form and it's validation classes part of the Model? The concept of a Domain Model does not appear to be limited to Entities, and so validation may not necessarily need to be confined to this Entities. It seems that you would require a lot of potentially superfluous handing of values and responses back and forth between forms and "Entities" - and in some instances you may not persist the data recieved from user input, or recieve it from user input at all.

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  • NSPredicate always gives back the same data

    - by Stef Geelen
    I am trying to work with NSPredicates. But it always give me back the same array. Here you can see my predicate. NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"whichAlbum.album_id == %d", AlbumId]; [request setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Picture" inManagedObjectContext:self.genkDatabase.managedObjectContext]]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; Also when I try it hardcoded. It gives back the same array. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"whichAlbum.album_id == 5"]; Here you can see my database model. And here you can see how I put data in my database for entity Picture. + (Picture *)pictureWithGenkInfo:(NSDictionary *)genkInfo inManagedObjectContext:(NSManagedObjectContext *)context withAlbumId:(int)albumId withPictureId:(int)pictureId; { Picture *picture = nil; picture = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Picture" inManagedObjectContext:context]; picture.url = [genkInfo objectForKey:PICTURES_URL]; picture.pic_album_id = [NSNumber numberWithInt:albumId]; picture.picture_id = [NSNumber numberWithInt:pictureId]; return picture; } Anybody can help me ? Kind regards

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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • HIbernate 3.5.1 - can I just drop in EHCache 2.0.1?

    - by caerphilly
    I'm using Hibernate 3.5.1, which comes with EHCache 1.5 bundled. If I want to use the latest EHCache release (2.0.1), is it just a matter of removing the ehcache-1.5.jar from my project, and replacing with ehcache-core-2.0.1.jar? Any issues to be aware of? Also - is a cache "region" in the Hibernate mapping file that same as a cache "name" in the ehcache configuration xml? What I want to do is define 2 named cache regions - one for read-only reference entities that won't change (lookup lists etc), and one for all other entities. So in ehcache I want to define two elements; <cache name="readonly"> ... </cache> <cache name="mutable"> ... </cache> And then in my Hibernate mapping files, I will specify the cache to be used for each entity: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="lookuplist"> <cache region="readonly" usage="read-only"/> <property> ... </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Will that work? Some of the documentation seems to imply that a separate region/cache gets created for each mapped class... Thanks.

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  • Is there any need for me to use wstring in the following case

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    Currently, I am developing an app for a China customer. China customer are mostly switch to GB2312 language in their OS encoding. I need to write a text file, which will be encoded using GB2312. I use std::ofstream file I compile my application under MBCS mode, not unicode. I use the following code, to convert CString to std::string, and write it to file using ofstream std::string Utils::ToString(CString& cString) { /* Will not work correctly, if we are compiled under unicode mode. */ return (LPCTSTR)cString; } To my surprise. It just works. I thought I need to at least make use of wstring. I try to do some investigation. Here is the MBCS.txt generated. I try to print a single character named ? (its value is 0xBDC5) When I use CString to carry this character, its length is 2. When I use Utils::ToString to perform conversion to std::string, the returned string length is 2. I write to file using std::ofstream My question is : When I exam MBCS.txt using a hex editor, the value is displayed as BD (LSB) and C5 (MSB). But I am using little endian machine. Isn't hex editor should show me C5 (LSB) and BD (MSB)? I check from wikipedia. GB2312 seems doesn't specific endianness. It seems that using std::string + CString just work fine for my case. May I know in what case, the above methodology will not work? and when I should start to use wstring?

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  • Recommendations for IPC between parent and child processes in .NET?

    - by Jeremy
    My .NET program needs to run an algorithm that makes heavy use of 3rd party libraries (32-bit), most of which are unmanaged code. I want to drive the CPU as hard as I can, so the code runs several threads in parallel to divide up the work. I find that running all these threads simultaneously results in temporary memory spikes, causing the process' virtual memory size to approach the 2 GB limit. This memory is released back pretty quickly, but occasionally if enough threads enter the wrong sections of code at once, the process crosses the "red line" and either the unmanaged code or the .NET code encounters an out of memory error. I can throttle back the number of threads but then my CPU usage is not as high as I would like. I am thinking of creating worker processes rather than worker threads to help avoid the out of memory errors, since doing so would give each thread of execution its own 2 GB of virtual address space (my box has lots of RAM). I am wondering what are the best/easiest methods to communicate the input and output between the processes in .NET? The file system is an obvious choice. I am used to shared memory, named pipes, and such from my UNIX background. Is there a Windows or .NET specific mechanism I should use?

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  • Why is Excel's 'Evaluate' method a general expression evaluator?

    - by jtolle
    A few questions have come up recently involving the Application.Evaluate method callable from Excel VBA. The old XLM macro language also exposes an EVALUATE() function. Both can be quite useful. Does anyone know why the evaluator that is exposed can handle general expressions, though? My own hunch is that Excel needed to give people a way to get ranges from string addresses, and to get the value of named formulas, and just opening a portal to the expression evaluator was the easiest way. (The help for the VBA version does say its purpose it to "convert a Microsoft Excel name to an object or a value".) But of course you don't need the ability to evaluate arbitrary expressions just to do that. (That is, Excel could provide a Name.Evaluate method or something instead.) Application.Evaluate seems kind of...unfinished. It's full behavior isn't very well documented, and there are quite a few quirks and limitations (as described by Charles Williams here: http://www.decisionmodels.com/calcsecretsh.htm) with what is exposed. I suppose the answer could be simply "why not expose it?", but I'd be interested to know what design decisions led to this feature taking the form that it does. Failing that, I'd be interested to hear other hunches.

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  • How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

    - by haarrrgh
    I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

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  • Ways to access a 32bit DLL from a 64bit exe

    - by bufferz
    I have a project that must be compiled and run in 64 bit mode. Unfortunately, I am required to call upon a DLL that is only available in 32 bit mode, so there's no way I can house everything in a 1 Visual Studio project. I am working to find the best way to wrap the 32 bit DLL in its own exe/service and issue remote (although on the same machine) calls to that exe/service from my 64 bit app. My OS is Win7 Pro 64 bit. The required calls to this 32 bit process are several dozen per second, but low data volume. This is a realtime image analysis application so response time is critical despite low volume. Lots of sending/receiving single primitives. Ideally, I would host a WCF service to house this DLL, but in a 64 bit OS one cannot force the service to run as x86! Source. That is really unfortunate since I timed function calls to the WCF service to be only 4ms on my machine. I have experimented with named pipes is .net. I found them to be 40-50 times slower than WCF (unusable for me). Any other options or suggestions for the best way to approach my puzzle?

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  • malloc:mmap(size=XX) failed (error code=12)

    - by Michel
    I have a memory problem in an iPhone app, giving me a hard time. Here is the error message I get: malloc: * mmap(size=9281536) failed (error code=12) * error: can't allocate region I am using ARC for this app, in case that might be useful information. The code (below) is just using a file in the Bundle in order to load a core data entity. The strange thing is the crash happens only after more than 90 loops; while it seems to mee that since the size of the "contents" in getting smaller and smaller, the memory request should also get smaller and smaller. Here is the code, if any one can see a flaw please let me know. NSString *path,*contents,*lineBuffer; path=[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"myFileName" ofType:@"txt"]; contents=[NSString stringWithContentsOfFile:path encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:nil]; int counter=0; while (counter<10000) { lineBuffer=[contents substringToIndex:[contents rangeOfCharacterFromSet:[NSCharacterSet newlineCharacterSet]].location]; contents=[contents substringFromIndex:[lineBuffer length]+1]; newItem=[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"myEntityName" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [newItem setValue:lineBuffer forKey:@"name"]; request=[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity: [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"myEntityName" inManagedObjectContext:context]]; error=nil; [context save:&error]; counter++; }

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  • What are the hibernate annotations used to persist a Map with an enumerated type as a key?

    - by Jason Novak
    I am having trouble getting the right hibernate annotations to use on a Map with an enumerated class as a key. Here is a simplified (and extremely contrived) example. public class Thing { public String id; public Letter startLetter; public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } public enum Letter { A, B, C, D } Here are my current annotations on Thing @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) public Letter startLetter; @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name = "Thing_letterFrequencies", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "thingId")) @MapKey(columns = @Column(name = "letter", nullable = false)) @Column(name = "count") public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } Hibernate generates the following DDL to create the tables for my MySql database create table Thing (id varchar(255) not null, startLetter varchar(255), primary key (id)) type=InnoDB; create table Thing_letterFrequencies (thingId varchar(255) not null, count double precision, letter tinyblob not null, primary key (thingId, letter)) type=InnoDB; Notice that hibernate tries to define letter (my map key) as a tinyblob, however it defines startLetter as a varchar(255) even though both are of the enumerated type Letter. When I try to create the tables I see the following error BLOB/TEXT column 'letter' used in key specification without a key length I googled this error and it appears that MySql has issues when you try to make a tinyblob column part of a primary key, which is what hibernate needs to do with the Thing_letterFrequencies table. So I would rather have letter mapped to a varchar(255) the way startLetter is. Unfortunately, I've been fussing with the MapKey annotation for a while now and haven't been able to make this work. I've also tried @MapKeyManyToMany(targetEntity=Product.class) without success. Can anyone tell me what are the correct annotations for my letterCounts map so that hibernate will treat the letterCounts map key the same way it does startLetter?

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  • How do I form a Rails link_to with custom field value as parameter

    - by rwheadon
    I have an invoice form where I'm giving the user opportunity to apply coupons to the invoice total. These coupons are held in another Model and I am going to do a lookup on the Coupon code (something like "20OFFONFRIDAY") which I will use to find what the restrictions and benefits of the coupon. (and to see if it even exists at all) The invoice does not have "coupon_code" on it so I hand forged the field onto my form with html: <% if (@invoice.status == 'new') %> <input id="coupon_code" name="coupon_code" type="text"/> <% end %> and I am calling a controller method with link_to and would like something like the following jquery enhanced link_to to work: <%= link_to "Apply Coupon", { :controller=>"invoices", :id=>@invoice.id, :coupon_code=>$('.coupon_code').val(), :action=>"apply_coupon_code" }, :method=>"post" %> ^formatted for easier reading Then inside my "apply_coupon_code" method I will go off to a couple other models and perform business logic before returning the updated invoice page. ...but maybe it's a pipe dream. I guess if push came to shove I could add the "coupon_code" field to my invoice model (even though it's persisted elsewhere.) so it's part of the entity and thus easily available on my form to send back into a controller, but I just hate adding a column to make a coupon validation easier. I figured I'd ping stackoverflow before taking that path.

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  • LINQ to SQL - Lightweight O/RM?

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I've heard from some that LINQ to SQL is good for lightweight apps. But then I see LINQ to SQL being used for Stackoverflow, and a bunch of other .coms I know (from interviewing with them). Ok, so is this true? for an e-commerce site that's bringing in millions and you're typically only doing basic CRUDs most the time with the exception of an occasional stored proc for something more complex, is LINQ to SQL complete enough and performance-wise good enough or able to be tweaked enough to run happily on an e-commerce site? I've heard that you just need to tweak performance on the DB side when using LINQ to SQL for a better approach. So there are really 2 questions here: 1) Meaning/scope/definition of a "Lightweight" O/RM solution: What the heck does "lightweight" mean when people say LINQ to SQL is a "lightweight O/RM" and is that true??? If this is so lightweight then why do I see a bunch of huge .coms using it? Is it good enough to run major .coms (obviously it looks like it is) and what determines what the context of "lightweight" is...it's such a generic statement. 2) Performance: I'm working on my own .com and researching different O/RMs. I'm not really looking at the Entity Framework (yet), just want to figure out the LINQ to SQL basics here and determine if it will be efficient enough for me. The problem I think is you can't tweak or control the SQL it generates...

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  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

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  • Javascript Namespace Help

    - by Jason
    Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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  • How can i get the flash player working

    - by Selase
    Am only looking to play some flash content on my page. found this code on the web and just copied it into my codes and changed the file name. However the intellisense underlines part of the code in green and says "File 'swfobject.js' was not found" this is the code i copied below. <asp:Content ID="HeaderContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="HeadContent"> <script type='text/javascript' src='swfobject.js'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> var s1 = new SWFObject('cmsflash.swf','player', '400', '300', '9'); s1.addParam('allowfullscreen', 'false'); s1.addParam('allowscriptaccess', 'always'); s1.addParam('flashvars', 'file=video.flv'); s1.write('preview'); </script> <style type="text/css"> and it underlines only (swfobject.js) saying file not found. the file i wish to display is named cmsflash and is in the root directory probably ~/cmsflash.swf where and what could be going wrong? the block where the flash should display is declared as follows <table class="style2" style="height: 309px; width: 76%"> <tr> <td> <p id='preview'>The player will show in this paragraph</p> </td> </tr> </table> <span class="style6"> <br /> Please Help

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  • Determine if a directory is empty, delete it if it is and delete that directroy name from a separate list. C-shell

    - by Kg123
    I have a directory named STA. Within that directory are about 600 other directories that have the format hh:mm:ss (for example 00:01:34). Within each of these sub-directories should be three files. I also have a file, 'waveformlist', (contained within STA) which is a list of all of these sub-directories i.e.: 00:01:34 00:02:35 etc. A lot of the sub-directories do not contain these three files and are instead empty. I want to run a C-shell script to go through every sub directory and check if it is empty. If it is empty I want to delete that sub directory from the main directory STA, and also remove that sub-directory name from the list 'waveformlist'. Below is my script so far. It does not recognize when the sub-directory is empty or not and does not like the rm $dir line. Also, I do not know how to go and remove the sub-directory name from 'waveformlist'. #!/bin/csh echo "Enter name of station folder to apply filter to as 'STA' e.g. APZ:" set ans = $< cd $ans set c=0 foreach dir (*:*) if ("${c}" == 0) then echo "Empty directory:" $dir rm $dir else echo ${dir} "has files" endif end I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you.

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  • What do you call a set of Javascript closures that share a common context?

    - by Ed Stauff
    I've been trying to learn closures (in Javascript), which kind of hurts my brain after way too many years with C# and C++. I think I now have a basic understanding, but one thing bothers me: I've visited lots of websites in this Quest for Knowledge, and nowhere have I seen a word (or even a simple two-word phrase) that means "a set of Javascript closures that share a common execution context". For example: function CreateThingy (name, initialValue) { var myName = name; var myValue = initialValue; var retObj = new Object; retObj.getName = function() { return myName; } retObj.getValue = function() { return myValue; } retObj.setValue = function(newValue) { myValue = newValue; } return retObj; }; From what I've read, this seems to be one common way of implementing data hiding. The value returned by CreateThingy is, of course, an object, but what would you call the set of functions which are properties of that object? Each one is a closure, but I'd like a name I can used to describe (and think about) all of them together as one conceptual entity, and I'd rather use a commonly accepted name than make one up. Thanks! -- Ed

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  • Why can't I pass a form field of type file to a CFFUNCTION using structure syntax?

    - by Eric Belair
    I'm trying to pass a form field of type "file" to a CFFUNCTION. The argument type is "any". Here is the syntax I am trying to use (pseudocode): <cfloop from="1" to="5" index="i"> <cfset fieldname = "attachment" & i /> <cfinvoke component="myComponent" method="attachFile"> <cfinvokeargument name="attachment" value="#FORM[fieldname]#" /> </cfinvoke> </cfloop> The loop is being done because there are five form fields named "attachment1", "attachment2", et al. This throws an exception in the function: coldfusion.tagext.io.FileTag$FormFileNotFoundException: The form field C:\ColdFusion8\...\neotmp25080.tmp did not contain a file. However, this syntax DOES work: <cfloop from="1" to="5" index="i"> <cfinvoke component="myComponent" method="attachFile"> <cfinvokeargument name="attachment" value="FORM.attachment#i#" /> </cfinvoke> </cfloop> I don't like writing code like that in the second example. It just seems like bad practice to me. So, can anyone tell me how to use structure syntax to properly pass a file type form field to a CFFUNCTION??

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  • Service Layer are repeating my Repositories

    - by Felipe
    Hi all, I'm developing an application using asp.net mvc, NHibernate and DDD. I have a service layer that are used by controllers of my application. Everything are using Unity to inject dependencies (ISessionFactory in repositories, repositories in services and services in controllers) and works fine. But, it's very common I need a method in service to get only object in my repository, like this (in service class): public class ProductService { private readonly IUnitOfWork _uow; private readonly IProductRepository _productRepository; public ProductService(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, IProductRepository productRepository) { this._uow = unitOfWork; this._productRepository = productRepository; } /* this method should be exists in DDD ??? It's very common */ public Domain.Product Get(long key) { return _productRepository.Get(key); } /* other common method... is correct by DDD ? */ public bool Delete(long key) { usign (var tx = _uow.BeginTransaction()) { try { _productRepository.Delete(key); tx.Commit(); return true; } catch { tx.RollBack(); return false; } } } /* ... others methods ... */ } This code is correct by DDD ? For each Service class I have a Repository, and for each service class need I do a method "Get" for an entity ? Thanks guys Cheers

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