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• how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

  - by Jean-Denis Muys

  My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

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• jQuery issue with anchor tag using jqTransform

  - by James Helms

  I'm using jqtransform on my site. When the user is on a for them to be able to use hot keys to move through the selections. I added this function: $wrapper.find('a').keydown(function (e) { var Esc = 27; var code = (e.keyCode ? e.keyCode : e.which); if(code== Esc || (code>=65 &&code<=90)){ var letter = String.fromCharCode(code); if (code==Esc) keyCodes = ""; else{ if (keyCodes=='') keyCodes += letter; else keyCodes += letter.toLowerCase(); var item = $wrapper.find('a[text^=\'' + keyCodes + '\']:first'); item.click(); } } }); inside of $.fn.jqTransSelect. This code works fine in all browsers but IE. the only thing i can find is that IE doesn't like the click event. Can anyone please help me with this? If i debug into the code I can see that item is a select not an anchor like i would expect it to be, and that confuses me even more.

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• Convert date to string upon saving a doctrine record

  - by takteek

  Hi, I'm trying to migrate one of my PHP projects to Doctrine. I've never used it before so there are a few things I don't understand. In my current code, I have a class similar to this: class ScheduleItem { private Date start; //A PEAR Date object. private Date end; public function getStart() { return $this-start; } public function setStart($val) { $this-start = $val; } public function getEnd() { return $this-end; } public function setEnd($val) { $this-end= $val; } } I have a ScheduleItemDAO class with methods like save(), getByID(), etc. When loading from and saving to the database, the DAO class converts the Date objects to and from strings so they can be stored in a timestamp field. In my attempt to move to Doctrine, I created a new class like this: class ScheduleItem extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this-hasColumn('start', 'timestamp'); $this-hasColumn('end', 'timestamp'); } } I had hoped I would be able to use Date objects for the start and end times, and have them converted to strings when they are saved to the database. How can I accomplish this?

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• Help with accessing a pre-existing window AFTER opener is refreshed!

  - by Wilhelm Murdoch

  Alright, I'm at my wit's end on this issue. First, backstory. I'm working on a video management system where we're allowing users, when adding new content, to upload and, optionally, transcode a media file. We're using Java applet for the browser-based FTP client. What I want to do is allow a user to initiate an upload and then send the FTP connection instance to a popup window. This window will act as a job queue for the FTP transfer process. This will allow users to move about the main interface without having to stay on the original page until an individual file transfer is complete. For the most part I have all of this working, but here's a problem. If the window is closed, all connections are dropped and the upload process for all queued files will be canceled. So, if Window One opens the Popup Window, adds stuff to the queue, refreshes the screen or moves to a different page, how will I access the Popup Window? The popup window and its contents must remain persistent while the user navigates through the original window. The original window must be able to access the popup to add a new job to the queue. The popup window itself is independent of the opening window, so communication only happens in one direction: Parent - Popup Not Parent <- Popup Window.open(null, 'WINDOW_NAME'); will not work in this case. I need to check if a window exists BEFORE using window.open. Help!?!?

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• Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

  - by sevennineteen

  I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

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• C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

  - by Doug

  (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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• iPhone TabbarController Switch Transition

  - by user269737

  I've implemented gestures (touchBegan-moved-ended) in order to allow for swiping through my tabs. It works. I'd like to add a slide-from-left and slide-from-right transition. It would be better if it could be part of the gesture if statement which tells me if the swipe is towards the right of left. Since I determine which tab is displayed from that, I could show that specific transition along with the new tab. So my question is this: what's the simplest way to simplement a slide transition at a specific instance. I don't want it to be for the whole tabbarcontrol since this is specifically for the swiping. Thanks for the help, much appreciated. For clarification purposes, this is snippet shows how I'm switching tabs: if(abs(diffx / diffy) > 2.5 && abs(diffx) > HORIZ_SWIPE_DRAG_MIN) { // It appears to be a swipe. if(isProcessingListMove) { // ignore move, we're currently processing the swipe return; } if (mystartTouchPosition.x < currentTouchPosition.x) { isProcessingListMove = YES; self.tabBarController.selectedViewController = [self.tabBarController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:0]; return; } else { isProcessingListMove = YES; self.tabBarController.selectedViewController = [self.tabBarController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:1 ]; return; }

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• Why is my panel not positioned correctly even after setting the boundaries?

  - by nutellafella

  I'm trying to make a simple GUI with radio buttons and I grouped them into one panel. I wanted it positioned on the leftmost side so I used the setBounds method. Whatever numbers I put on the parameters, the panel won't move. Are panels not affected by the setBounds method? Or is there another way to position my panel. Here's the snippet of my code: JPanel radioPanel = new JPanel(); radioPanel.setLayout(new GridLayout(3,1)); JRadioButton Rbutton1 = new JRadioButton("Credit Card"); JRadioButton Rbutton2 = new JRadioButton("E-Funds"); JRadioButton Rbutton3 = new JRadioButton("Check"); Rbutton3.setSelected(true); ButtonGroup Bgroup = new ButtonGroup(); Bgroup.add(Rbutton1); Bgroup.add(Rbutton2); Bgroup.add(Rbutton3); radioPanel.add(Rbutton1); radioPanel.add(Rbutton2); radioPanel.add(Rbutton3); radioPanel.setBounds(10,50,50,40); //this is where I'm trying to position the panel with the radio buttons paymentPanel.add(radioPanel); contentPane.add(paymentPanel); //contentPane is the frame contentPane.setVisible(true);

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• jQuery attribute question

  - by Nick Simone

  I'm trying to select a series of divs one at a time. I'm sure theres a better way to do this, but I gave them all unique rels and I'm using the rels to select them one at a time. I want to move them over the width of the div, then animate it dropping down the screen. What I have is: $(document).ready(function(){ var totalbricks = 7; var index = 2; $(".brick").animate({top:"600px"}); while(index < totalbricks) { var postion = 45*index; $(".brick[rel='+index+']").css('left', postion+'px'); $(".brick[rel='+index+']").animate({top:"600px"}); index++; } }); All the divs are in a container div. Jquery docs say, 'Variables can be used using the following syntax: [name='" +MyVar+ "']' What am I doing wrong? Here is the HTML that is being used by the jQuery <body> <div id="container"> <div id="canvas"> <div class="brick" rel="1"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="2"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="3"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="4"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="5"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="6"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="7"> </div> </div> </div> </body>

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• SharePoint: Filtering a List that has Folders

  - by Gary McGill

  I have a SharePoint document library that has a folder structure used for organizing the documents (but also for controlling access, via permissions on the folders). The documents in the library are updated every month, and we store every month's version of the document in the same folder; there's a "month" column used for filtering that will contain values like Jan 09, Feb 09, etc. It looks like this: Title Month ----- ----- SubFolder 1 SubFolder 2 [] Interesting Facts Jan 09 [] Interesting Facts Feb 09 [] Interesting Facts Mar 09 [] Fascinating Numbers Jan 09 [] Fascinating Numbers Feb 09 ... Now, because users will generally be most interested in the 'current' month, I'd like them to be able to apply a filter, and select (say) Mar 09. However, if they do this using the built-in filtering, it also filters out the folders, and they can no longer navigate the folder hierarchy. This is no good - I want them to be able to move between folders with the filter intact, so that they don't need to keep switching it off and on again. I figured I might be able to use a custom view (selecting where type=folder or month=[month]), and to an extent that does work. However, I can only get it to work for a fixed month, whereas I need the user to be able to select the month - perhaps via a drop-down control on the page (and I don't want to create 60 views for 5 years' worth of months, nor do I want to have to create a new view every month). I thought it might be possible to create a view in code (rather than via the UI), but I've not been able to figure out how to get a dynamic value (a user-specific setting) into the CAML query. Any pointers gratefully appreciated! And by the way, I am aware of the dogma that folders are bad, and that everything should just be a list. However, having considered the alternatives, I still favour using folders - if I can solve this problem. Thanks in advance.

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• UIButton receives touches at the wrong position after CABasicAnimaton applied

  - by Dmitry

  I need to add an animation to UIButton - simple moving animation. When I do this, the button moves, but the click area of that button remains at old position: UIButton *slideButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [slideButton addTarget:self action:@selector(clicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [slideButton setFrame:CGRectMake(50, 50, 50, 50)]; [self.view addSubview:slideButton]; CABasicAnimation *slideAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; [slideAnimation setRemovedOnCompletion:NO]; [slideAnimation setDuration:1]; [slideAnimation setFillMode:kCAFillModeBoth]; [slideAnimation setAutoreverses:NO]; slideAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; slideAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(100, 100)]; [slideButton.layer addAnimation:slideAnimation forKey:@"slide"]; I already saw an answer to change the frame of the button at the end of the animation (like here UIButton receives touchEvents at the wrong position after a CABasicAnimaton) But it's not my case because I should give possibility to user to click on the button while it's moving... Also, I can't use another approaches (like NSTimer) as a replacement for CABasicAnimation because I will have a complex path to move the object... Thanks for Your help!

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• Events and references pattern

  - by serhio

  In a project I have the following relation between BO and GUI By e.g. G could represent a graphic with time lines, C a TimeLine curve, P - points of that curve and T the time that represents each point. Each GUI object is associated with the BO corresponding object. When T changes GUI P captures the Changed event and changes its location. So, when G should be modified, it modifies internally its objects and as result T changes, P moves and the GuiG visually changes, everything is OK. But there is an inconvenient of this architecture... BO should not be recreated, because this will breack the link between BO and GUIO. In particular, GUI P should always have the same reference of T. If in a business logic I do by e.g. P1.T = new T(this.T + 10) GUI_P1 will not move anymore, because it wait an event from the reference of former P1.T object, that does not belongs to P1 anymore. So the solution was to always modify the existing objects, not to recreate it. But here is an other inconvenient: performance. Say I have a ready newC object that should replace the older one. Instead of doing G1.C = newC I should do foreach T in foreach P in C replace with T from P from newC. Is there an other more optimal way to do it?

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• Javascript check of a form, not waiting for ajax response

  - by Y.G.J

  this is a part of the check in my form function check(theform) { var re = /^\w[0-9A-Za-z]{5,19}$/; if (!re.test(theform.username.value)) { alert("not valid username"); theform.username.focus(); return false; } $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "username.asp", data: "username="+theform.username.value, success: function(msg){ username = msg; if (!username) { alert("username already in use"); return false; } } }); var re = /^\w[0-9A-Za-z]{5,19}$/; if (!re.test(theform.password.value)) { alert("not valid password"); theform.password.focus(); return false; } } for some reason of sync... it check the username then duplicated username with the ajax and not waiting for respond and jump to the password check. i don't want to insert the rest of the code to isreadystate (or what ever it is) because i might move the username duplicate check to the end... and then the function will end before the ajax anyway what should i do?

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• Word wrap in multiline textbox after 35 characters

  - by Kanavi

  <asp:TextBox CssClass="txt" ID="TextBox1" runat="server" onkeyup="CountChars(this);" Rows="20" Columns="35" TextMode="MultiLine" Wrap="true"> </asp:TextBox> I need to implement word-wrapping in a multi-line textbox. I cannot allow users to write more then 35 chars a line. I am using the following code, which breaks at precisely the specified character on every line, cutting words in half. Can we fix this so that if there's not enough space left for a word on the current line, we move the whole word to the next line? function CountChars(ID) { var IntermediateText = ''; var FinalText = ''; var SubText = ''; var text = document.getElementById(ID.id).value; var lines = text.split("\n"); for (var i = 0; i < lines.length; i++) { IntermediateText = lines[i]; if (IntermediateText.length <= 50) { if (lines.length - 1 == i) FinalText += IntermediateText; else FinalText += IntermediateText + "\n"; } else { while (IntermediateText.length > 50) { SubText = IntermediateText.substring(0, 50); FinalText += SubText + "\n"; IntermediateText = IntermediateText.replace(SubText, ''); } if (IntermediateText != '') { if (lines.length - 1 == i) FinalText += IntermediateText; else FinalText += IntermediateText + "\n"; } } } document.getElementById(ID.id).value = FinalText; $('#' + ID.id).scrollTop($('#' + ID.id)[0].scrollHeight); } Edit - 1 I have to show total max 35 characters in line without specific word break and need to keep margin of two characters from the right. Again, the restriction should be for 35 characters but need space for total 37 (Just for the Visibility issue.)

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• Are there pitfalls to using static class/event as an application message bus

  - by Doug Clutter

  I have a static generic class that helps me move events around with very little overhead: public static class MessageBus<T> where T : EventArgs { public static event EventHandler<T> MessageReceived; public static void SendMessage(object sender, T message) { if (MessageReceived != null) MessageReceived(sender, message); } } To create a system-wide message bus, I simply need to define an EventArgs class to pass around any arbitrary bits of information: class MyEventArgs : EventArgs { public string Message { get; set; } } Anywhere I'm interested in this event, I just wire up a handler: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoSomething(); Likewise, triggering the event is just as easy: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.SendMessage(this, new MyEventArgs() {Message="hi mom"}); Using MessageBus and a custom EventArgs class lets me have an application wide message sink for a specific type of message. This comes in handy when you have several forms that, for example, display customer information and maybe a couple forms that update that information. None of the forms know about each other and none of them need to be wired to a static "super class". I have a couple questions: fxCop complains about using static methods with generics, but this is exactly what I'm after here. I want there to be exactly one MessageBus for each type of message handled. Using a static with a generic saves me from writing all the code that would maintain the list of MessageBus objects. Are the listening objects being kept "alive" via the MessageReceived event? For instance, perhaps I have this code in a Form.Load event: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoReload(); When the Form is Closed, is the Form being retained in memory because MessageReceived has a reference to its DoReload method? Should I be removing the reference when the form closes: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived -= (s,e) => DoReload();

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• Anchor HTML DIV tag to right of screen

  - by Phillip

  Hello, I have a site that has 2 DIV tags, one floats left the other floats right. The left DIV contains text for the page, the other DIV is used to display a video. When I have text in the left DIV that fits the entire width of the screen the video shows up where I want it. However, a few pages have very little text and cause the video to show up in the right-center of the screen. I want to anchor this DIV to the right of the screen regardless of how much text is shown. I don't seem to get this problem in lower resolutions, it occurs more in the higher resolutions (such as 1280x1024). You can see an example on these pages: http://www.quilnet.com/TechSupport.aspx - Positions the right DIV where I want it regardless of the resolution. http://www.quilnet.com/ContactUs.aspx - Makes the right DIV closer to the center in higher resolutions. I want it in the position of the page TechSupport.aspx. I am trying to refrain from using the width parameter because I want it to be resolutionally compliant. I don't want my viewers to have to move a scroll bar left and right. Any ideas? Thanks!

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• Downloading javascript Without Blocking

  - by doug

  The context: My question relates to improving web-page loading performance, and in particular the effect that javascript has on page-loading (resources/elements below the script are blocked from downloading/rendering). This problem is usually avoided/mitigated by placing the scripts at the bottom (eg, just before the tag). The code i am looking at is for web analytics. Placing it at the bottom reduces its accuracy; and because this script has no effect on the page's content, ie, it's not re-writing any part of the page--i want to move it inside the head. Just how to do that without ruining page-loading performance is the crux. From my research, i've found six techniques (w/ support among all or most of the major browsers) for downloading scripts so that they don't block down-page content from loading/rendering: (i) XHR + eval(); (ii) XHR + 'inject'; (iii) download the HTML-wrapped script as in iFrame; (iv) setting the script tag's 'async' flag to 'TRUE' (HTML 5 only); (v) setting the script tag's 'defer' attribute; and (vi) 'Script DOM Element'. It's the last of these i don't understand. The javascript to implement the pattern (vi) is: (function() { var q1 = document.createElement('script'); q1.src = 'http://www.my_site.com/q1.js' document.documentElement.firstChild.appendChild(q1) })(); Seems simple enough: inside this anonymous function, a script element is created, its 'src' element is set to it's location, then the script element is added to the DOM. But while each line is clear, it's still not clear to me how exactly this pattern allows script loading without blocking down-page elements/resources from rendering/loading?

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• How many users are sufficient to make a heavy load for web application

  - by galymzhan

  I have a web application, which has been suffering high load recent days. The application runs on single server which has 8-core Intel CPU and 4gb of RAM. Software: Drupal 5 (Apache 2, PHP5, MySQL5) running on Debian. After reaching 500 authenticated and 200 anonymous users (simultaneous), the application drastically decreases its performance up to total failure. The biggest load comes from authenticated users, who perform activities, causing insert/update/deletes on db. I think mysql is a bottleneck. Is it normal to slow down on such number of users? EDIT: I forgot to mention that I did some kind of profiling. I runned commands top, htop and they showed me that all memory was being used by MySQL! After some time MySQL starts to perform terribly slow, site goes down, and we have to restart/stop apache to reduce load. Administrators said that there was about 200 active mysql connections at that moment. The worst point is that we need to solve this ASAP, I can't do deep profiling analysis/code refactoring, so I'm considering 2 ways: my tables are MyIsam, I heard they use table-level locking which is very slow, is it right? could I change it to Innodb without worry? what if I take MySQL, and move it to dedicated machine with a lot of RAM?

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• Problem writing a snippet containing Emacs Lisp code

  - by user388346

  Hi all, I've been trying to make use of a cool feature of YASnippet: write snippets containing embedded Emacs Lisp code. There is a snippet for rst-mode that surrounds the entered text with "=" that is as long as the text such as in ==== Text ==== Based on this snippet, I decided to slightly modify it (with Elisp) so that it comments out these three lines depending on the major mode you are in (I thought that such a snippet would be useful to organize the source code). So I wrote this: ${1:`(insert comment-start)`} ${2:$(make-string (string-width text) ?\-)} $1 ${2:Text} $1 ${2:$(make-string (string-width text) ?\-)} $0 This code works relatively well except for one problem: the indentation of these three lines gets mixed up, depending on the major mode I'm in (e.g., in emacs-lisp-mode, the second and the third lines move more to the right than the first line). I think the source of the problem might have something to do with what comes after the string ${1: on the first line. If I add a character, I have no problem (i.e., all three lines are correctly aligned at the end of the snippet expansion). If I add a single space after this string, the misalignment problem still continues though. So my question is: do you know of any way of rewriting this snippet so that this misalignment does not arise? Do you know what's the source of this behaviour? Cheers,

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• Using a Control Template for all controls across the application

  - by samar

  Hi, I have a control template in one of my pages and i am assigning this template to my textbox's Validation.ErrorTemplate property. The following code would give you a better view. <ControlTemplate x:Key="ValidationErrorTemplate"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" HorizontalAlignment="Right"> <AdornedElementPlaceholder/> <Image Name="ValidizorImage" Stretch="None" Source="validizor.gif" ToolTip="{Binding [0].ErrorContent}" ToolTipService.InitialShowDelay="0" ToolTipService.ShowDuration="60000"/> </StackPanel> </ControlTemplate> The above template sets the image at the end of the textbox which is having the error. This template is used as below. <TextBox Grid.Column="5" Grid.Row="1" x:Name="txtemail" Grid.ColumnSpan="3" Margin="0,1,20,1" Validation.ErrorTemplate="{StaticResource ValidationErrorTemplate}" /> My question here is I want to move this control template outside of this page so that i can use it across the application. I tried putting the exact same code of the control template in a user control say "ErrorUC" and using it as below TextBox1.SetResourceReference (System.Windows.Controls.Validation.ErrorTemplateProperty, new ErrorUC()); On running the above code i learnt that "AdornedElementPlaceholder" can be used only in templates and not in user controls. If i comment the same i am not getting the desired result. Can anyone please help! Thanks in advance! Regards, Samar

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• ASP.NET web form Routing issue via UNC Path

  - by Slash

  I create a IIS 7.0 website via UNC path to load .aspx to dynamic compile files and runs. however, it's running perfect. I always use IIS URL Rewrite module 2 to rewrite my site URL n' its perfect, too. Today, I wanna use System.Web.Routing to implement url rewrite but I encountered difficulties... When I wrote code in Global.asax: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("TEST", "AAA/{prop}", "~/BBB/CCC.aspx"); And it just CANNOT reDirect to /BBB/CCC.aspx When I type the URL(like: xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx) in browser directly, it runs normally that I want. (so it proof CCC.aspx is in right path.) thus, I copy all of the code and open VS2010 running with IIS 7.5 Express locally, it works perfect! e.g: in browser URL I type xx.xx.xx.xx/AAA/1234, it will turn to page xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx (Works perfect!) Why??? help me plz. thanks. Update: I think I should consider not UNC path to make it error! when I move all code to physical disk and setup IIS 7.0 to monitor this Folder, it still not works! But the same code run in VS2010 + IIS 7.5 Express it works!? so strange!

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• Why Android for enterprise applications?

  - by mcabral

  Recently one of our clients is considering the posibility of picking up an old WinMobile 5.0 project. Several features are to be added to the point it will be a major version update. The client is worried about the mobile market, and thinks there's a chance all the effort put in this development will have to be thrown away in a couple of year due to the dinamics of the mobile market and the deprecation of mobile devices. So, the client is not sure whether he should continue with Windows Mobile (changing from WM 5.0 to 6.X) or starting from scratch with another technology. From our part we have been studing the mobile market, looking for clues for which will be the winning horse. The safe move seems to continue with WM just because re writing an entire application from scratch involves more risks and delays. On the other hand WM seems to be losing market and the ghost of an exit on their part is growing stronger everyday. But what can be say about Android? Everyone is talking about it and is growing at full speed but what avantagies will it bring to the table? Why should we start a fresh applicaction on this technology? So the question remains the same.. is Andriod mature enough for an enterprise application? Will you recomend it to one of your clients? Will you port/rewrite a WM application to Andriod? What's the trade-off? EDIT: Addressing commentaries. The app is entirely built with C# and Compact Framework. The app is for logistics/management.

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• .NET consumer of ActiveX throwing TargetParameterCountException

  - by DevSolo

  I have a .NET (3.5 w/ Dev Studio 2008) app that hosts a visual Active X (written in C++ w/ Dev Studio 2003). Have access to all sources, but can't easily move the Active X control up to 2008. This as worked fine in the past. Made some changes to the Active X control and now, when calling one method on the Active X, I'm getting a TargetParameterCountException 100% of the time. The signature of the Active X method is: LONG CMyActive::License(LPCTSTR string1, LPCTSTR string2, LONG long1, LPCTSTR string3, LPCTSTR string4); When viewing the method in object browser of reflector, .NET sees it as: public virtual int License(string string1, string string2, int long1, string string3, string string4) I renamed the parameters for demonstration purpose (boss gets twitchy about any code). I left the method name, as it could be relevant. There are method calls prior that work. I just can't seen to figure out why I'm all of a sudden getting this exception. The HRESULT is 0x8002000e and a quick search seems to indicate that's a general one. Thanks to all for reading.

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• Moving information between databases

  - by williamjones

  I'm on Postgres, and have two databases on the same machine, and I'd like to move some data from database Source to database Dest. Database Source: Table User has a primary key Table Comments has a primary key Table UserComments is a join table with two foreign keys for User and Comments Dest looks just like Source in structure, but already has information in User and Comments tables that needs to be retained. I'm thinking I'll probably have to do this in a few steps. Step 1, I would dump Source using the Postgres Copy command. Step 2, In Dest I would add a temporary second_key column to both User and Comments, and a new SecondUserComments join table. Step 3, I would import the dumped file into Dest using Copy again, with the keys input into the second_key columns. Step 4, I would add rows to UserComments in Dest based on the contents of SecondUserComments, only using the real primary keys this time. Could this be done with a SQL command or would I need a script? Step 5, delete the SecondUserComments table and remove the second_key columns. Does this sound like the best way to do this, or is there a better way I'm overlooking?

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• WPF/MVVM - keep ViewModels in application component or separate?

  - by Anders Juul

  Hi all, I have a WPF application where I'm using the MVVM pattern. I get the VM activated for actions that require user input and thus need to activate views from the VM. I've started out separating the VMs into a separate component/assembly, partly because I see them as the unit testable part, partly because views should rely on VM, not the other way round. But when I then need to bring up a window, the window is not known by the VM. All introductions I find place the VM in the WPF/App component, thus eliminating the problem. This article recommends keeping them in separate layers : http://waf.codeplex.com/wikipage?title=Architecture%20-%20Get%20The%20Big%20Picture&referringTitle=Home As I see it, I have the following choices Move VMs to the WPF/App assembly to allow VMs to access the windows directly. Place interfaces of views in VM-assembly, implement views in WPF/App assembly and register the connection through IOC or alternative ways. File a 'request' from the VM into some mechanism/bus that routes the request (but which mechanism!? E.g something in Prism?!) What's the recommendation? Thanks for any comments, Anders, Denmark

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