Search Results

Search found 28469 results on 1139 pages for 'select statement'.

Page 402/1139 | < Previous Page | 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409  | Next Page >

  • Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to implement Auto_Increment per User, on the same table?

    - by Jonas
    I would like to have multiple users that share the same tables in the database, but have one auto_increment value per user. I will use an embedded database, JavaDB and as what I know it doesn't support this functionality. How can I implement it? Should I implement a trigger on inserts that lookup the users last inserted row, and then add one, or are there any better alternative? Or is it better to implement this in the application code? Or is this just a bad idea? I think this is easier to maintain than creating new tables for every user. Example: table +----+-------------+---------+------+ | ID | ID_PER_USER | USER_ID | DATA | +----+-------------+---------+------+ | 1 | 1 | 2 | 3454 | | 2 | 2 | 2 | 6567 | | 3 | 1 | 3 | 6788 | | 4 | 3 | 2 | 1133 | | 5 | 4 | 2 | 4534 | | 6 | 2 | 3 | 4366 | | 7 | 3 | 3 | 7887 | +----+-------------+---------+------+ SELECT * FROM table WHERE USER_ID = 3 +----+-------------+---------+------+ | ID | ID_PER_USER | USER_ID | DATA | +----+-------------+---------+------+ | 3 | 1 | 3 | 6788 | | 6 | 2 | 3 | 4366 | | 7 | 3 | 3 | 7887 | +----+-------------+---------+------+ SELECT * FROM table WHERE USER_ID = 2 +----+-------------+---------+------+ | ID | ID_PER_USER | USER_ID | DATA | +----+-------------+---------+------+ | 1 | 1 | 2 | 3454 | | 2 | 2 | 2 | 6567 | | 4 | 3 | 2 | 1133 | | 5 | 4 | 2 | 4534 | +----+-------------+---------+------+

    Read the article

  • How to solve linear recurrences involving two functions?

    - by Aditya Bahuguna
    Actually I came across a question in Dynamic Programming where we need to find the number of ways to tile a 2 X N area with tiles of given dimensions.. Here is the problem statement Now after a bit of recurrence solving I came out with these. F(n) = F(n-1) + F(n-2) + 2G(n-1), and G(n) = G(n-1) + F(n-1) I know how to solve LR model where one function is there.For large N as is the case in the above problem we can do the matrix exponentiation and achieve O(k^3log(N)) time where k is the minimum number such that for all km F(n) does not depend on F(n-k). The method of solving linear recurrence with matrix exponentiation as it is given in that blog. Now for the LR involving two functions can anyone suggest an approach feasible enough for large N.

    Read the article

  • SQL GROUP BY with "default values"

    - by Christoph Schiessl
    I'm trying to create SELECT statement with a GROUP BY clause, which should return "default values". Imagine the following simple MySQL table: CREATE TABLE `tracker` ( `id` INTEGER PRIMARY KEY auto_increment, `date` DATETIME NOT NULL, `customer_id` INTEGER NOT NULL ); The table contains only one record: INSERT INTO `tracker` (`date`, `customer_id`) VALUES('2010-05-03', 1); After wards I'm executing the following SQL query: SELECT DATE(`date`), COUNT(customer_id) FROM tracker WHERE DATE(`date`) >= '2010-05-01' AND DATE(`date`) <= '2010-05-05' GROUP BY DATE(`date`) ORDER BY DATE(`date`); And get the expected result set: +----+---------------------+-------------+ | id | date | customer_id | +----+---------------------+-------------+ | 1 | 2010-05-10 00:00:00 | 1 | +----+---------------------+-------------+ However, I would like the result set to look like this: +--------------+--------------------+ | DATE(`date`) | COUNT(customer_id) | +--------------+--------------------+ | 2010-05-01 | 0 | | 2010-05-02 | 0 | | 2010-05-03 | 1 | | 2010-05-04 | 0 | | 2010-05-05 | 0 | +--------------+--------------------+ Is it possible to achieve this behavior?

    Read the article

  • how to query with child relations to same table and order this correctly

    - by robertpnl
    Hi, Take this table: id name sub_id --------------------------- 1 A (null) 2 B (null) 3 A2 1 4 A3 1 The sub_id column is a relation to his owm table, to column ID. subid --- 0:1 --- id Now I have the problem to make a correctly SELECT query to show that the child rows (which sub_id is not null) directly selected under his parent row. So this must be a correctly order: 1 A (null) 3 A2 1 4 A3 1 2 B (null) A normal SELECT order the id. But how or which keyword help me to order this correctly? JOIN isn't possible I think because I want to get all the rows seperated. Because the rows will be displayed on a Gridview (ASP.Net) with EntityDataSource but the child rows must be displayed directly under his parent. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Selecting the contents of an ASP.NET TextBox in an UpdatePanel after a partial page postback

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I am having problems selecting the text within a TextBox in an UpdatePanel. Consider a very simple page that contains a single UpdatePanel. Within that UpdatePanel there are two Web controls: A DropDownList with three statically-defined list items, whose AutoPostBack property is set to True, and A TextBox Web control The DropDownList has a server-side event handler for its SelectedIndexChanged event, and in that event handler there's two lines of code: TextBox1.Text = "Whatever"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Select-" + TextBox1.ClientID, string.Format("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", TextBox1.ClientID), true); The idea is that whenever a user chooses and item from the DropDownList there is a partial page postback, at which point the TextBox's Text property is set and selected (via the injected JavaScript). Unfortunately, this doesn't work as-is. (I have also tried putting the script in the pageLoad function with no luck, as in: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(..., "function pageLoad() { ... my script ... }");) What happens is the code runs, but something else on the page receives focus at the conclusion of the partial page postback, causing the TextBox's text to be unselected. I can "fix" this by using JavaScript's setTimeout to delay the execution of my JavaScript code. For instance, if I update the emitted JavaScript to the following: setTimeout("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", 111); It "works." I put works in quotes because it works for this simple page on my computer. In a more complex page on a slower computer with more markup getting passed between the client and server on the partial page postback, I have to up the timeout to over a second to get it to work. I would hope that there is a more foolproof way to achieve this. Rather than saying, "Delay for X milliseconds," it would be ideal to say, "Run this when you're not going to steal the focus." What's perplexing is that the .Focus() method works beautifully. That is, if I scrap my JavaScript and replace it with a call to TextBox1.Focus(); then the TextBox receives focus (although the text is not selected). I've examined the contents of MicrosoftAjaxWebForms.js and see that the focus is set after the registered scripts run, but I'm my JavaScript skills are not strong enough to decode what all is happening here and why the selected text is unselected between the time it is selected and the end of the partial page postback. I've also tried using Firebug's JavaScript debugger and see that when my script runs the TextBox's text is selected. As I continue to step through it the text remains selected, but then after stepping off the last line of script (apparently) it all of the sudden gets unselected. Any ideas? I am pulling my hair out. Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • Extra < using auto complete in Sublime Text 2

    - by ReLeaf
    I installed the All Autocomplete package in my Sublime Text 2 editor and everything works fine except when I type "<div" or something similar, the auto-complete box pops up, I select the one I want and hit enter and it adds "<<div></div>" with an extra "<" in the front of my tag. I have to go back and delete the extra "<" every time...(!) I can't seem to resolve this issue. If I use the command CTRL+Space, the box pops up and I can select the tag I want and it does not include the extra tag but that messes with my flow. Has anyone out there experienced this? Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • Sql query - how to construct

    - by Max Malmgren
    Hi. I am working to implement a dataconnection between my C# application and an Sql Express database. Please bear in mind I have not worked with Sql queries before. I have the following relevant tables: ArticlesCommon ArticlesLocalized CategoryCommon CategoryLocalized where ArticlesCommon holds language independent information such as price, weight etc. This is the statement for now: SELECT * FROM ArticlesCommon INNER JOIN ArticlesLocalized ON ArticlesCommon.ID = ArticlesLocalized.ID WHERE ArticlesLocalized.Language = @language ORDER BY ArticlesCommon.DateAdded ArticlesCommon contains a category id for each row. Now, I want to use this to look up the localized information in CategoryLocalized and add it to the result, something like SELECT *, CategoryLocalized.Name as CategoryName. If I have gotten my point across, is this doable? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • PHP array problem?

    - by needHeLp
    I'm new to PHP and I want this code <option value="" disabled="disabled">-------------</option> to be disabled when the php code is building my select list of options. How can I fix my php code so it will always set that specific option to disabled? Here is part of the php code. echo '<select name="country" id="country" size="20">' . "\n"; foreach($countries as $option) { if ($option == $state) { echo '<option value="' . $option . '" selected="selected">' . $option . '</option>' . "\n"; } else { echo '<option value="'. $option . '">' . $option . '</option>'."\n"; } } echo '</select>'; Here is part of the HTML code that is outputed from the php code. <option value="United States">United States</option> <option value="Australia">Australia</option> <option value="Canada">Canada</option> <option value="United Kingdom">United Kingdom</option> <option value="India">India</option> <option value="" disabled="disabled">-------------</option> <option value="Afghanistan">Afghanistan</option> <option value="Aland Islands">Aland Islands</option> <option value="Albania">Albania</option> <option value="Algeria">Algeria</option> <option value="American Samoa">American Samoa</option> <option value="Andorra">Andorra</option>

    Read the article

  • why does an event handler never gets called if its added within a loop on an ienumerable

    - by André Carvalho
    For instance: IEnumerable<MyType> list = someCollection.Select(i => new MyType(i)); foreach (var item in list) item.PropertyChanged += item_PropertyChanged; <-- this never gets called Bu if list is assigned like list = someCollection.Select(i => new MyType(i)).ToArray(); the event handler does get called.. Why? (i imagine it has something to do with the fact that a linq query is lazy, but the fact of looping through the result isn't enough??)

    Read the article

  • getting the user back where they came from with mod_form_auth

    - by bmargulies
    Using the mod_form_auth module in Apache HTTPD 2.4.3, I am looking for a way to have the user redirected to their original desired target after completing a login. That is, if I have a <Location /protected> ... form auth config here </Location> the user might browse to /protected/a, or to protected/b. In either case, they will be presented with the login form. However, as far as I can see, I must specific a single 'success' URL. I'm wondering if I'm missing some Apache feature that would allow me to, for example, cause the redirect to the login form go to something like: https://login.html?origTarget=/protected/a via some syntax on the AuthForLoginRequiredLocation statement?

    Read the article

  • What is Perl's relation to hackers? [closed]

    - by K.Steff
    I know Perl is a language revered by many hackers (as in hacker vs cracker) and respected by many good programmers for its expressiveness. I also realize it is useful to know and it's very handy at generalizing common Unix tasks (Unix here includes Linux and Cygwin). I also know that being a good hacker probably means you're a good programmer in general (references on this one are sparse around the web, but about everything Paul Graham has ever written seems approving of this statement to me). So my question is whether there is a reason that attracts hackers to Perl in particular? Will learing Perl improve my general programming, problem-solving and hacking skills if done properly? Does it present unique tools that are more useful to a hacker?

    Read the article

  • Trouble using Prototype JS

    - by user309381
    I have three files named like: AjxDm.php db_test website.php What I am trying to do is AjxDm.php in this file I click and I am using Ajax.Request and it directed me to the db_test.php. In this file I am retrieving a value from the database and I assign the value into a dropdown. Again when I try to select one of the options in the dropdown it is direceting me to the Website.php using Ajax.Request with the dropdown selected value and retrieve data from database and display. The problem is that when I call from AjxDm.php to Db_test it works but when I select option in db_test.php it doesn't find a JavaScript function which direct me to the website.php. What can I do to make it work?

    Read the article

  • Doubt in Stored Procedure MySql - how to return multiple values for a variable ?

    - by Eternal Learner
    Hi, I have a stored procedure below. I intend this procedure to return the names of all the movies acted by an actor. Create Procedure ActorMovies( In ScreenName varchar(50), OUT Title varchar(50) ) BEGIN Select MovieTitle INTO Title From Movies Natural Join Acts where Acts.ScreenName = 'ScreenName '; End; I make a call like Call ActorMovies(' Jhonny Depp',@movie); Select @move; The result I get is a Null set , which is not correct.I am expecting a set of movies acted by Jhonny Depp to be returned. I am not sure as to why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • Regardign implementing Custom ExpressionBuilder.

    - by Puneet Dudeja
    I want to pass the "DisplayName" column value returned from SqlDataSource's Select command to a custom function and then the return value to be assigned to "DataTextField" property of DropDownList. I know, I can do this using "CustomExpressionBuilder", I have tried but if I use following: DataTextField="<%$ MyCustomExpressionBuilder:DisplayName %>" I do not receive the value of the DisplayName field in the overriden "GetCodeExpression" method, but the literal value "DisplayName". How can I do this? Please help me. <asp:DropDownList ID="drpCourseType" runat="server" DataSourceID="sqldsCourses" DataTextField="DisplayName" DataValueField="Type" CssClass="FilterDropdown"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:SqlDataSource runat="server" ID="sqldsCourses" SelectCommand="SELECT Type,DisplayName FROM CourseTypes ORDER BY OrderID" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:connectionString %>"></asp:SqlDataSource>

    Read the article

  • Database indexes - what should they be

    - by WebweaverD
    Most of my database tables have a clear unique index through which lookups are done 90% of the time but I am a bit unsure on this one - I have a table which keeps track of user rating totals for items in my database, I now want to add another table, to track individual ratings with an ip address column to make sure no one can rate something twice. Since I can see this becoming a big, high use table it is important to optimize it correctly. (MYSQL table) This table will have the following fields: rating_id(always - unique), item_id (always - not unique), user_id (optional - not unique), ip_address (always - not unique), rating_value(always - not unique), has_review(bool) Now I envisions 90% the queries going something like this: When a user rates something - select where item_id = x and ip_address = y, (if rows = 0) insert rating When in user account pages - select where ip_address = x or username = y Now none of the fields searched on are unique, can I still use them as indexes (for example item _id and ip_address), can I have two indexes and will this still improve performance over a non indexed table?

    Read the article

  • Keypress Left is called twice in Update when key is pressed only once

    - by Simran kaur
    I have a piece of code that is changing the position of player when left key is pressed. It is inside of Update() function. I know, Update is called multiple times, but since I have an ifstatement to check if left arrow is pressed, it should update only once. I have tested using print statement that once pressed, it gets called twice. Problem: Position updated twice when key is pressed only once. Below given is the structure of my code: void Update() { if (Input.GetKeyDown (KeyCode.LeftArrow)) { print ("PRESSEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEDDDDDDDDDDDDDD"); } } I looked up on web and what was suggested id this: if (Event.current.type == EventType.KeyDown && Event.current.keyCode == KeyCode.LeftArrow) { print("pressed"); } But, It gives me an error that says: Object reference not set to instance of an object How can I fix this?

    Read the article

  • How to invert rows and columns using a T-SQL Pivot Table

    - by Jeff Stock
    I have a query that returns one row. However, I want to invert the rows and columns, meaning show the rows as columns and columns as rows. I think the best way to do this is to use a pivot table, which I am no expert in. Here is my simple query: SELECT Period1, Period2, Period3 FROM GL.Actuals WHERE Year = 2009 AND Account = '001-4000-50031' Results (with headers): Period1, Period2, Period3 612.58, 681.36, 676.42 I would like for the results to look like this: Desired Results: Period, Amount Period1, 612.58 Period2, 681.36 Period3, 676.42 This is a simple example, but what I'm really after is a bit more comlex than this. I realize I could produce theses results by using several SELECT commands instead. I'm just hoping someone can shine some light on how to accomplish this with a Pivot Table or if there is yet a better way.

    Read the article

  • C# - Sending keyboard events to (last) selected window

    - by Mil
    Hi guys, I want to use virtual keyboard assembly found here http://www.codeproject.com/KB/miscctrl/touchscreenkeyboard.aspx like on screen keyboard (OSK.exe) in Windows. Can someone please tell me how can I use it so that it always stays on top and yet for user to be able to select other windows on dekstop for keyboard input, just like "on screen keyboard" in Windows, specifically I don't know how to select last selected window (can't use GetForegroundWindow or GetFocus only, because when user clicks on virtual keyboard it gets focused and I get handle of keyboard window itself)? This is very urgent to me so any advice would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is there alternative way to write this query?

    - by Kugel
    I have tables A, B, C, where A represents items which can have zero or more sub-items stored in C. B table only has 2 foreign keys to connect A and C. I have this sql query: select * from A where not exists (select * from B natural join C where B.id = A.id and C.value > 10); Which says: "Give me every item from table A where all sub-items have value less than 10. Is there a way to optimize this? And is there a way to write this not using exists operator?

    Read the article

  • Rails 3 query in multiple date ranges

    - by NeoRiddle
    Suppose we have some date ranges, for example: ranges = [ [(12.months.ago)..(8.months.ago)], [(7.months.ago)..(6.months.ago)], [(5.months.ago)..(4.months.ago)], [(3.months.ago)..(2.months.ago)], [(1.month.ago)..(15.days.ago)] ] and a Post model with :created_at attribute. I want to find posts where created_at value is in this range, so the goal is to create a query like: SELECT * FROM posts WHERE created_at BETWEEN '2011-04-06' AND '2011-08-06' OR BETWEEN '2011-09-06' AND '2011-10-06' OR BETWEEN '2011-11-06' AND '2011-12-06' OR BETWEEN '2012-01-06' AND '2012-02-06' OR BETWEEN '2012-02-06' AND '2012-03-23'; If you have only one range like this: range = (12.months.ago)..(8.months.ago) we can do this query: Post.where(:created_at => range) and query should be: SELECT * FROM posts WHERE created_at BETWEEN '2011-04-06' AND '2011-08-06'; Is there a way to make this query using a notation like this Post.where(:created_at => range)? And what is the correct way to build this query? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Hibernate not using schema and catalog name in id generation with strategy increment

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am using the hibernate increment strategy to create my IDs on my entities. @GenericGenerator(name="increment-strategy", strategy="increment") @Id @GeneratedValue(generator="increment=strategy") @Column(name="HDR_ID", unique=true, nullable=false) public int getHdrId(){ return this.hdrId; } The entity has the following table annotation @Table(name = "PORDER.PUB.PO_HEADER", schema = "UVOSi", catalog = "VIRT_UVOS") Please note I have two datasources. When I try to insert an entity Hibernate creates the following SQL statement: select max(hdr_id) from PORDER.PUB.PO_HEADER which causes the following error: Group specified is ambiguous, resubmit the query by fully qualifying group name. When I create a query by hand with entityManager.createQuery() hibernate uses the fully qualified name select XXX from VIRT_UVOS.UVOSi.PORDER.PUB.PO_HEADER and that works fine. So how do I get Hibernate to use the fully qualified name in the Id autogeneration? Btw. I am using Hibernate 3.2 and Seam 2.2 running on JBoss 4.2.3 Regards Immo

    Read the article

  • Retrieve entities with children per one sql call. ADO.NET Entity framework

    - by Andrew Florko
    Hello everybody, I have two tables: A & B B { B1: Field1, B2: Field2, ... } A { Children: List of B, A1: Field1, A2: Field2, } I want to retrieve "A" entities with related "B" entities like this: DataContext.A.Select( a = new MySubset( A1 = a.A1, Children = a.Children.Select(b = b.B1).ToList()); But EF can't translate ToList into SQL, so i have to call ToList() per each instance in query producing additional network call. How can I avoid this? Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • same Linq for two tables

    - by Diana
    I need to do something like this, My two tables have the same signature, but different class so It suppose to work but it is not working. var myTable; if (booleanVariable == true) { myTable = table1; } else { myTable = table2; } var myLinq1 = from p in myTable join r in myOtherTable select p; In this case, I have to initialize myTable I have tried also, var myTable= table2; if (booleanVariable == true) { myTable = table1; } var myLinq1 = from p in myTable join r in myOtherTable select p; then var is type table2, then it can't be changed to table1 type. I need help, I don't want to make a copy paste of all the code. the linq query is huge, and it s nested with 5 or 6 queries. also I have to do this on 12 different methods. Thanks a lot for your help.

    Read the article

  • Getting column index out of range, 0 < 1

    - by Natraj
    I am using OpenJPA 2.2.0 and when I am executing a select statement I am getting "Column index out of range, 0 < 1" error. EntityManager entityMgrObj = emf.getEntityManager(); entityMgrObj.clear(); Query query = entityMgrObj.createNativeQuery("select * from company_user where user_id = 1001); List<CompanyUserDO> companyUserDOObj = null; try { companyUserDOObj = query.getResultList(); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } When the query.getResultList() executes I get "Column index out of range, 0 < 1" error. Can somebody let me know what is wrong in the above code?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409  | Next Page >