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  • Sort/Group XML data with PHP?

    - by Volmar
    I'm trying to make a page using data from the discogs.com (XML)-API. i've been parsing it with simpleXML and it's working pretty well but there is some things i'm not sure how to do. Here is part of the XML: <releases> <release id="1468764" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>Versions</title> <format>12", EP</format> <label>Not On Label</label> <year>1999</year> </release> <release id="72246" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>The M.O.F Blend</title> <format>LP</format> <label>Blenda Records</label> <year>2002</year> </release> <release id="890064" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>The M.O.F Blend</title> <format>CD</format> <label>Blenda Records</label> <year>2002</year> </release> <release id="1563561" status="Accepted" type="TrackAppearance"> <title>Ännu En Gång Vol. 3</title> <trackinfo>Backtrack</trackinfo> <format>Cass, Comp, Mix</format> <label>Hemmalaget</label> <year>2001</year> </release> </releases> What i want to achieve is something similair to how discogs presents the releases: http://www.discogs.com/artist/Mics+Of+Fury where diferent versions of the same release are sorted together. (see. The M.O.F Blend in my link) This is done on discogs with having a master release that features the other releases. unfortunately this information isn't present in the API data, so i want to do the same thing by grouping the <release>-nodes with the same <title>-tags, or add a flag to the <releases> that don't have a unique <title>? any good ideas on the best way of doing this? i also like to know if it's possible to count the <release>-nodes (child of releases) that have the same type-attribute? like in this example count the releases with the type "Main"? maybe it's better to do this things with XMLReader or XPath?

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  • PHP: Condense array of similar strings into one merged array

    - by Matt Andrews
    Hi everyone. Working with an array of dates (opening times for a business). I want to condense them to their briefest possible form. So far, I started out with this structure Array ( [Mon] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Tue] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Wed] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Thu] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Sat] => 12noon-11pm [Sun] => 12noon-9:30pm ) What I want to achieve is this: Array ( [Mon-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Sat] => 12noon-11pm [Sun] => 12noon-9:30pm ) I've tried writing a recursive function and have managed to output this so far: Array ( [Mon-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Tue-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Wed-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Thu-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Sat] => 12noon-11pm [Sun] => 12noon-9:30pm ) Can anybody see a simple way of comparing the values and combining the keys where they're similar? My recursive function is basically two nested foreach() loops - not very elegant. Thanks, Matt EDIT: Here's my code so far, which produces the 3rd array above (from the first one as input): $last_time = array('t' => '', 'd' => ''); // blank array for looping $i = 0; foreach($final_times as $day=>$time) { if($last_time['t'] != $time ) { // it's a new time if($i != 0) { $print_times[] = $day . ' ' . $time; } // only print if it's not the first, otherwise we get two mondays } else { // this day has the same time as last time $end_day = $day; foreach($final_times as $day2=>$time2) { if($time == $time2) { $end_day = $day2; } } $print_times[] = $last_time['d'] . '-' . $end_day . ' ' . $time; } $last_time = array('t' => $time, 'd' => $day); $i++; }

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  • Cannot figure out how to take in generic parameters for an Enterprise Framework library sql statemen

    - by KallDrexx
    I have written a specialized class to wrap up the enterprise library database functionality for easier usage. The reasoning for using the Enterprise Library is because my applications commonly connect to both oracle and sql server database systems. My wrapper handles both creating connection strings on the fly, connecting, and executing queries allowing my main code to only have to write a few lines of code to do database stuff and deal with error handling. As an example my ExecuteNonQuery method has the following declaration: /// <summary> /// Executes a query that returns no results (e.g. insert or update statements) /// </summary> /// <param name="sqlQuery"></param> /// <param name="parameters">Hashtable containing all the parameters for the query</param> /// <returns>The total number of records modified, -1 if an error occurred </returns> public int ExecuteNonQuery(string sqlQuery, Hashtable parameters) { // Make sure we are connected to the database if (!IsConnected) { ErrorHandler("Attempted to run a query without being connected to a database.", ErrorSeverity.Critical); return -1; } // Form the command DbCommand dbCommand = _database.GetSqlStringCommand(sqlQuery); // Add all the paramters foreach (string key in parameters.Keys) { if (parameters[key] == null) _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, null); else _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, parameters[key].ToString()); } return _database.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); } _database is defined as private Database _database;. Hashtable parameters are created via code similar to p.Add("@param", value);. the issue I am having is that it seems that with enterprise library database framework you must declare the dbType of each parameter. This isn't an issue when you are calling the database code directly when forming the paramters but doesn't work for creating a generic abstraction class such as I have. In order to try and get around that I thought I could just use DbType.Object and figure the DB will figure it out based on the columns the sql is working with. Unfortunately, this is not the case as I get the following error: Implicit conversion from data type sql_variant to varchar is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query Is there any way to use generic parameters in a wrapper class or am I just going to have to move all my DB code into my main classes?

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  • Using Constants in Perl

    - by David W.
    I am trying to define constants in Perl using the use Constant pragma: use Constant { FOO => "bar", BAR => "foo" }; I'm running into a bit of trouble, and hoping there's a standard way of handling it. First of all... I am defining a hook script for Subversion. To make things simple, I want to have a single file where the class (package) I'm using is in the same file as my actual script. Most of this package will have constants involved in it: print "This is my program"; package "MyClass"; use constant { FOO => "bar" }; sub new { yaddah, yaddah, yaddah. I would like my constant FOO to be accessible to my main program. I would like to do this without having to refer to it as MyClass::FOO. Normally, when the package is a separate file, I could do this in my main program: use MyClass qw(FOO); but, since my class and program are a single file, I can't do that. What would be the best way for my main program to be able to access my constants defined in my class? The second issue... I would like to use the constant values as hash keys: $myHash{FOO} = "bar"; The problem is that %myHash has the literal string FOO as the key and not the value of the constant. This causes problems when I do things like this: if (defined($myHash{FOO})) { print "Key " . FOO . " does exist!\n"; } I could force the context: if (defined("" . FOO . "")) { I could add parentheses: if (defined(FOO())) { Or, I could use a temporary variable: my $foo = FOO; if (defined($foo)) { None of these are really nice ways of handling this issue. So, what is the best way? Is there one way I'm missing? By the way, I don't want to use Readonly::Scalar because it is 1). slow, and 2). not part of the standard Perl package. I want to define my hook not to require additional Perl packages and to be as simple as possible to work.

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  • How to define an extern, C struct returning function in C++ using MSVC?

    - by DK
    The following source file will not compile with the MSVC compiler (v15.00.30729.01): /* stest.c */ #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif struct Test; extern struct Test make_Test(int x); struct Test { int x; }; extern struct Test make_Test(int x) { struct Test r; r.x = x; return r; } #ifdef __cplusplus } #endif Compiling with cl /c /Tpstest.c produces the following error: stest.c(8) : error C2526: 'make_Test' : C linkage function cannot return C++ class 'Test' stest.c(6) : see declaration of 'Test' Compiling without /Tp (which tells cl to treat the file as C++) works fine. The file also compiles fine in DigitalMars C and GCC (from mingw) in both C and C++ modes. I also used -ansi -pedantic -Wall with GCC and it had no complaints. For reasons I will go into below, we need to compile this file as C++ for MSVC (not for the others), but with functions being compiled as C. In essence, we want a normal C compiler... except for about six lines. Is there a switch or attribute or something I can add that will allow this to work? The code in question (though not the above; that's just a reduced example) is being produced by a code generator. As part of this, we need to be able to generate floating point nans and infinities as constants (long story), meaning we have to compile with MSVC in C++ mode in order to actually do this. We only found one solution that works, and it only works in C++ mode. We're wrapping the code in extern "C" {...} because we want to control the mangling and calling convention so that we can interface with existing C code. ... also because I trust C++ compilers about as far as I could throw a smallish department store. I also tried wrapping just the reinterpret_cast line in extern "C++" {...}, but of course that doesn't work. Pity. There is a potential solution I found which requires reordering the declarations such that the full struct definition comes before the function foward decl., but this is very inconvenient due to the way the codegen is performed, so I'd really like to avoid having to go down that road if I can.

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  • Building a QueryExpression where name field is either A or B

    - by Mike
    I'm trying to build a Dynamics CRM 4 query so that I can get calendar events that are named either "Event A" or "Event B". A QueryByAttribute doesn't seem to do the job as I cannot specify a condition where the field called "event_name" = "Event A" of "event_name" = "Event B". When using the QueryExpression, I've found the FilterExpression applies to the Referencing Entity. I don't know if the FilterExpression can be used on the Referenced Entity at all. The example below is something like what I want to achieve, though this would return an empty result set as it will go looking in the entity called "my_event_response" for a "name" attribute. It's starting to look like I will need to run several queries to get this but this is less efficient than if I can submit it all at once. ColumnSet columns = new ColumnSet(); columns.Attributes = new string[]{ "event_name", "eventid", "startdate", "city" }; ConditionExpression eventname1 = new ConditionExpression(); eventname1.AttributeName = "event_name"; eventname1.Operator = ConditionOperator.Equal; eventname1.Values = new string[] { "Event A" }; ConditionExpression eventname2 = new ConditionExpression(); eventname2.AttributeName = "event_name"; eventname2.Operator = ConditionOperator.Equal; eventname2.Values = new string[] { "Event B" }; FilterExpression filter = new FilterExpression(); filter.FilterOperator = LogicalOperator.Or; filter.Conditions = new ConditionExpression[] { eventname1, eventname2 }; LinkEntity link = new LinkEntity(); link.LinkCriteria = filter; link.LinkFromEntityName = "my_event"; link.LinkFromAttributeName = "eventid"; link.LinkToEntityName = "my_event_response"; link.LinkToAttributeName = "eventid"; QueryExpression query = new QueryExpression(); query.ColumnSet = columns; query.EntityName = EntityName.mbs_event.ToString(); query.LinkEntities = new LinkEntity[] { link }; RetrieveMultipleRequest request = new RetrieveMultipleRequest(); request.Query = query; return (RetrieveMultipleResponse)crmService.Execute(request); I'd appreciate some advice on how to get the data I need.

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  • java multipart POST library

    - by tom
    Is there a multipart POST library out there that achieve the same effect of doing a POST from a html form? for example - upload a file programmingly in Java versus upload the file using a html form. And on the server side, it just blindly expect the request from client side to be a multipart POST request and parse out the data as appropriate. Has anyone tried this? specifically, I am trying to see if I can simulate the following with Java The user creates a blob by submitting an HTML form that includes one or more file input fields. Your app sets blobstoreService.createUploadUrl() as the destination (action) of this form, passing the function a URL path of a handler in your app. When the user submits the form, the user's browser uploads the specified files directly to the Blobstore. The Blobstore rewrites the user's request and stores the uploaded file data, replacing the uploaded file data with one or more corresponding blob keys, then passes the rewritten request to the handler at the URL path you provided to blobstoreService.createUploadUrl(). This handler can do additional processing based on the blob key. Finally, the handler must return a headers-only, redirect response (301, 302, or 303), typically a browser redirect to another page indicating the status of the blob upload. Set blobstoreService.createUploadUrl as the form action, passing the application path to load when the POST of the form is completed. <body> <form action="<%= blobstoreService.createUploadUrl("/upload") %>" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="file" name="myFile"> <input type="submit" value="Submit"> </form> </body> Note that this is how the upload form would look if it were created as a JSP. The form must include a file upload field, and the form's enctype must be set to multipart/form-data. When the user submits the form, the POST is handled by the Blobstore API, which creates the blob. The API also creates an info record for the blob and stores the record in the datastore, and passes the rewritten request to your app on the given path as a blob key.

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  • Deterministic key serialization

    - by Mike Boers
    I'm writing a mapping class which uses SQLite as the storage backend. I am currently allowing only basestring keys but it would be nice if I could use a couple more types hopefully up to anything that is hashable (ie. same requirements as the builtin dict). To that end I would like to derive a deterministic serialization scheme. Ideally, I would like to know if any implementation/protocol combination of pickle is deterministic for hashable objects (e.g. can only use cPickle with protocol 0). I noticed that pickle and cPickle do not match: >>> import pickle >>> import cPickle >>> def dumps(x): ... print repr(pickle.dumps(x)) ... print repr(cPickle.dumps(x)) ... >>> dumps(1) 'I1\n.' 'I1\n.' >>> dumps('hello') "S'hello'\np0\n." "S'hello'\np1\n." >>> dumps((1, 2, 'hello')) "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np0\ntp1\n." "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np1\ntp2\n." Another option is to use repr to dump and ast.literal_eval to load. This would only be valid for builtin hashable types. I have written a function to determine if a given key would survive this process (it is rather conservative on the types it allows): def is_reprable_key(key): return type(key) in (int, str, unicode) or (type(key) == tuple and all( is_reprable_key(x) for x in key)) The question for this method is if repr itself is deterministic for the types that I have allowed here. I believe this would not survive the 2/3 version barrier due to the change in str/unicode literals. This also would not work for integers where 2**32 - 1 < x < 2**64 jumping between 32 and 64 bit platforms. Are there any other conditions (ie. do strings serialize differently under different conditions)? (If this all fails miserably then I can store the hash of the key along with the pickle of both the key and value, then iterate across rows that have a matching hash looking for one that unpickles to the expected key, but that really does complicate a few other things and I would rather not do it.) Any insights?

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  • what will be the code to move to previous textfield ?

    - by rajesh
    i have the code if i press down button it goes to next textfield but to go to previous textfield what should be the code ... <html> <head> <script language="JavaScript"> function handleKeyDownEvent(elementRef,eventRef) { var charCode = (window.event) ? eventRef.keyCode : eventRef.which; //alert(charCode); // Arrow keys (37:left, 38:up, 39:right, 40:down)... if (charCode == 40) { if (window.event) window.event.keyCode = 9; else event.which = 9; return true; } return true; } </script> </head> <body> <table width="433" border="1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> </tr> <tr> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="radio" id="check" name="check" checked> </td> <td> <input type="radio" id="check" name="check" checked> </td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="checkbox" id="check" name="check"></td> <td><input type="checkbox" id="check" name="check"></td> </tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Making a JQuery tooltip retrieve a new value every time the mouse moves.

    - by Micheal Smith
    As i am developing an application that makes use of a tooltip that will display a different value when the user moves the mouse. The user mouses over a table cell and the application then generates a number, the further right the cursor moves in the cell, the higher the value increases. I have created a tooltip that runs and when the cursor mouses over the cell, it does indeed show the correct value. But, when the i move the mouse, it does not show the new value but just the older one. I need to know how to make it update everytime the mouse moves or the value of a variable changes, Any ideas for the problem? <table> <tr id="mon_Section"> <td id="day_Title">Monday</td> <td id="mon_Row"></td> </tr> </table> Below is the document.ready function that calls my function: $(document).ready(function() { $("#mon_Row").mousemove(calculate_Time); }); Below is the function: <script type="text/javascript"> var mon_Pos = 0; var hour = 0; var minute = 0; var orig = 0; var myxpos = 0; function calculate_Time (event) { myxpos = event.pageX; myxpos = myxpos-194; if(myxpos<60) { orig = myxpos; $('#mon_Row').attr("title", orig); } if (myxpos>=60 && myxpos<120) { orig=myxpos; $('#mon_Row').attr("title", orig); } if (myxpos>=120 && myxpos<180) { orig=myxpos; $('#mon_Row').attr("title", orig); Inside the function is the code to generate the tooltip: $('#mon_Row').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { text: false }, position: 'topRight', hide: { fixed: true // Make it fixed so it can be hovered over }, style: { padding: '5px 15px', // Give it some extra padding name: 'dark' // And style it with the preset dark theme } }); }); I know that a new value is being assigned to the cells title attribute because it will display inside the standard small tooltip that a browser will display. The JQuery tooltip will not grab the new value and display it, only the variables initial value when it was called.

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  • Uploading file to DropBox causing UnlinkedException

    - by Boardy
    I am currently working on android project and trying to enable DropBox functionality. I've selected the access type to App Only, and I can successfully authenticate and it creates an Apps directory and inside that creates a directory with the name of my app. When I then try to put a file in the DropBox directory it goes into the DropBoxException catch and in the logcat prints com.dropbox.client2.exception.DropboxUnlinkedException. I've done a google and from what I've seen this happens if the apps directory has been deleted and so authentication is required to be re-done, but this isn't the case, I have deleted it and I am putting the file straight after doing the authentication. Below is the code that retrieves the keys and stores the file on dropbox. AccessTokenPair tokens = getTokens(); UploadFile uploadFile = new UploadFile(context, common, this, mDBApi); uploadFile.execute(mDBApi); Below is the code for the getTokens method (don't think this would help but you never know) private AccessTokenPair getTokens() { AccessTokenPair tokens; SharedPreferences prefs = context.getSharedPreferences("prefs", 0); String key = prefs.getString("dropbox_key", ""); String secret = prefs.getString("dropbox_secret", ""); tokens = new AccessTokenPair(key, secret); return tokens; } Below is the class that extends the AsyncTask to perform the upload class UploadFile extends AsyncTask<DropboxAPI<AndroidAuthSession>, Void, bool> { Context context; Common common; Synchronisation sync; DropboxAPI<AndroidAuthSession> mDBApi; public UploadFile(Context context, Common common, Synchronisation sync, DropboxAPI<AndroidAuthSession> mDBApi) { this.context = context; this.common = common; this.sync = sync; this.mDBApi = mDBApi; } @Override protected bool doInBackground(DropboxAPI<AndroidAuthSession>... params) { try { File file = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory() + "/BoardiesPasswordManager/dropbox_sync.xml"); FileInputStream inputStream = new FileInputStream(file); Entry newEntry = mDBApi.putFile("android_sync.xml", inputStream, file.length(), null, null); common.showToastMessage("Successfully uploade Rev: " + newEntry.rev, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); } catch (IOException ex) { Log.e("DropBoxError", ex.toString()); } catch (DropboxException e) { Log.e("DropBoxError", e.toString()); e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } I have no idea why it would display the UnlinkedException so any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Serialization of non-required fields in protobuf-net

    - by David Hedlund
    I have a working java client that is communicating with Google, through ProtoBuf serialized messages. I am currently trying to translate that client into C#. I have a .proto file where the parameter appId is an optional string. Its default value in the C# representation as generated by the protobuf-net library is an empty string, just as it is in the java representation of the same file. message AppsRequest { optional AppType appType = 1; optional string query = 2; optional string categoryId = 3; optional string appId = 4; optional bool withExtendedInfo = 6; } I find that when I explicitly set appId to "" in the java client, the client stops working (403 Bad Request from Google). When I explicitly set appId to null in the java client, everything works, but only because hasAppId is being set to false (I'm uncertain as to how that affects the serialization). In the C# client, I always get 403 responses. I don't see any logic behind the distinction between not setting a value, and setting the default value, that seems to make all the difference in the java client. Since the output is always a binary stream, I am not sure if the successful java messages are being serialized with an empty string, or not serialized at all. In the C# client, I've tried setting IsRequired to true on the ProtoMember attribute, to force them to serialize, and I've tried setting the default value to null, and explicitly set "", so I'm quite sure I've tried some configuration where the value is being serialized. I've also played around with ProtoBuf.ProtoIgnore and at some point, removing the appId parameter altogether, but I haven't been able to avoid the 403 errors in C#. I've tried manually copying the serialized string from java, and that resolved my issues, so I'm certain that the rest of the HTTP Request is working, and the error can be traced to the serialized object. My serialization is simply this: var clone = ProtoBuf.Serializer.DeepClone(request); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(2000); ProtoBuf.Serializer.Serialize(ms, clone); var bytearr = ms.ToArray(); string encodedData = Convert.ToBase64String(bytearr); I'll admit to not being quite sure about what DeepClone does. I've tried both with and without it...

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  • XSD: xs:sequence & xs:choice combination for xs:extension elements?

    - by bguiz
    Hi, My question is about defining an XML schema that will validate the following sample XML: <rules> <other>...</other> <bool>...</bool> <other>...</other> <string>...</string> <other>...</other> </rules> The order of the child nodes does not matter. The cardinality of the child nodes is 0..unbounded. All the child elements of the rules node have a common base type, rule, like so: <xs:complexType name="booleanRule"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="rule"> ... </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> <xs:complexType name="stringFilterRule"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="filterRule"> ... </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> My current attempt at defining the schema for the rules node is below. However, Can I nest xs:choice within xs:sequence? If, where do I specify the maxOccurs="unbounded" attribute? Is there a better way to do this, such as an xs:sequence which specifies only the base type of its child elements? <xs:element name="rules"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:choice> <xs:element name="bool" type="booleanRule" /> <xs:element name="string" type="stringRule" /> <xs:element name="other" type="someOtherRule" /> </xs:choice> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element>

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  • Ruby: UnknownAttributeError

    - by Flexo
    Hi i have some Orders that can have several Items and these Items have an associated Kind. The Kind can belong to many Items. but i get a "unknown attribute: kinds" in my OrdersController when i hit the submit form button. I use nested forms btw. Order.rb class Order < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ref_nr, :total_price has_many :items, :dependent => :destroy has_many :kinds, :through => :items accepts_nested_attributes_for :items accepts_nested_attributes_for :kinds validates_associated :items validates_associated :kinds end Item.rb class Item < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :order has_one :kind accepts_nested_attributes_for :kind validates_associated :kind end Kind.rb class Kind < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :item end OrdersController.rb:Create def create @order = Order.new(params[:order]) end new.erb.html <% form_for @order do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <% f.fields_for :items do |builder| %> <table> <tr> <% f.fields_for :kinds do |m| %> <td><%= m.collection_select :kind, Kind.find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC"), :id, :name, {:prompt => "Select a Type" }, {:id => "selector", :onchange => "type_change(this)"} %></td> <% end %> <td><%= f.text_field :amount, :id => "amountField", :onchange => "change_total_price()" %></td> <td><%= f.text_field :text, :id => "textField" %></td> <td><%= f.text_field :price, :class => "priceField", :onChange => "change_total_price()" %></td> <td><%= link_to_remove_fields "Remove Item", f %></td> </tr> </table> <% end %> <p><%= link_to_add_fields "Add Item", f, :items %></p> <p> <%= f.label :total_price %><br /> <%= f.text_field :total_price, :class => "priceField", :id => "totalPrice" %> </p> <p><%= submit_tag %></p> <% end %> i cant see what im missing

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  • .NET: Is there a way to finagle a default namespace in an XPath 1.0 query?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm building a tool that performs xpath 1.0 queries on XHTML documents. The requirement to use a namespace prefix in the query is killing me. The query looks like this: html/body/div[@class='contents']/div[@class='body']/ div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/h2[a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ul[1]/li/a (all on one line) ...which is bad enough, except because it's xpath 1.0, I need to use an explicit namespace prefix on each QName, so it looks like this: ns1:html/ns1:body/ns1:div[@class='contents']/ns1:div[@class='body']/ ns1:div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/ns1:h2[ns1:a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ns1:ul[1]/ns1:li/ns1:a To set up the query, I do something like this: var xpathDoc = new XPathDocument(new StringReader(theText)); var nav = xpathDoc.CreateNavigator(); var xmlns = new XmlNamespaceManager(nav.NameTable); foreach (string prefix in xmlNamespaces.Keys) xmlns.AddNamespace(prefix, xmlNamespaces[prefix]); XPathNodeIterator selection = nav.Select(xpathExpression, xmlns); But what I want is for the xpathExpression to use the implicit default namespace. Is there a way for me to transform the unadorned xpath expression, after it's been written, to inject a namespace prefix for each element name in the query? I'm thinking, anything between two slashes, I could inject a prefix there. Excepting of course axis names like "parent::" and "preceding-sibling::" . And wildcards. That's what I mean by "finagle a default namespace". Is this hack gonna work? Addendum Here's what I mean. suppose I have an xpath expression, and before passing it to nav.Select(), I transform it. Something like this: string FixupWithDefaultNamespace(string expr) { string s = expr; s = Regex.Replace(s, "^(?!::)([^/:]+)(?=/)", "ns1:$1"); // beginning s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([^/:]+)(?=/)", "/ns1:$1"); // stanza s = Regex.Replace(s, "::([A-Za-z][^/:*]*)(?=/)", "::ns1:$1"); // axis specifier s = Regex.Replace(s, "\\[([A-Za-z][^/:*\\(]*)(?=[\\[\\]])", "[ns1:$1"); // predicate s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([A-Za-z][^/:]*)(?!<::)$", "/ns1:$1"); // end s = Regex.Replace(s, "^([A-Za-z][^/:]*)$", "ns1:$1"); // edge case s = Regex.Replace(s, "([-A-Za-z]+)\\(([^/:\\.,\\)]+)(?=[,\\)])", "$1(ns1:$2"); // xpath functions return s; } This actually works for simple cases I tried. To use the example from above - if the input is the first xpath expression, the output I get is the 2nd one, with all the ns1 prefixes. The real question is, is it hopeless to expect this Regex.Replace approach to work, as the xpath expressions get more complicated?

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  • Multi-Threading Question Concerning WPF

    - by Andrew
    Hello, I'm a newbie to threading, and I don't really know how to code a particular task. I would like to handle a mouse click event on a window that will kick off a while loop in a seperate thread. This thread, which is distinct from the UI thread, should call a function in the while loop which updates a label on the window being serviced by the UI thread. The while loop should stop running when the left mouse button is no longer being pressed. All the loop does is increment a counter, and then repeatedly call the function which displays the updated value in the window. The code for the window and all of the threading is given below (I keep getting some error about STA threading, but don't know where to put the attribute). Also, I'm hoping to use this solution, if it ever works, in another project that makes asynchronous calls elsewhere to a service via wcf, so I was hoping not to make any application-wide special configurations, since I'm really new to multi-threading and am quite worried about breaking other code in a larger program... Here's what I have: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication2" Name="MyMainWindow" Title="MainWindow" Width="200" Height="150" PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown="MyMainWindow_PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown"> <Label Height="28" Name="CounterLbl" /> </Window> And here's the code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Threading; namespace WpfApplication2 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { private int counter = 0; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private delegate void EmptyDelegate(); private void MyMainWindow_PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Thread counterThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(MyThread)); counterThread.Start(); } private void MyThread() { while (Mouse.LeftButton == MouseButtonState.Pressed) { counter++; Dispatcher.Invoke(new EmptyDelegate(UpdateLabelContents), null); } } private void UpdateLabelContents() { CounterLbl.Content = counter.ToString(); } } } Anyways, multi-threading is really new to me, and I don't have any experience implementing it, so any thoughts or suggestions are welcome! Thanks, Andrew

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  • How to keep a local value from being set when a binding fails (so inherited values will propagate)

    - by redoced
    Consider the following scenario: I want to bind the TextElement.FontWeight property to an xml attribute. The xml looks somewhat like this and has arbitrary depth. <text font-weight="bold"> bold text here <inlinetext>more bold text</inlinetext> even more bold text </text> I use hierarchical templating to display the text, no problem there, but having a Setter in the template style like: <Setter Property="TextElement.FontWeight" Value="{Binding XPath=@font-weight}"/> sets the fontweight correctly on the first level, but overwrites the second level with null (as the binding can't find the xpath) which reverts to Fontweight normal. I tried all sorts of things here but nothing quite seems to work. e.g. i used a converter to return UnsetValue, which didn't work. I'm currently trying with: <Setter Property="custom:AttributeInserter.Wrapper" Value="{custom:AttributeInserter Property=TextElement.FontWeight, Binding={Binding XPath=@font-weight}}"/> Codebehind: public static class AttributeInserter { public static AttributeInserterExtension GetWrapper(DependencyObject obj) { return (AttributeInserterExtension)obj.GetValue(WrapperProperty); } public static void SetWrapper(DependencyObject obj, AttributeInserterExtension value) { obj.SetValue(WrapperProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Wrapper. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty WrapperProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("Wrapper", typeof(AttributeInserterExtension), typeof(AttributeInserter), new UIPropertyMetadata(pcc)); static void pcc(DependencyObject o,DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { var n=e.NewValue as AttributeInserterExtension; var c = o as FrameworkElement; if (n == null || c==null || n.Property==null || n.Binding==null) return; var bex = c.SetBinding(n.Property, n.Binding); bex.UpdateTarget(); if (bex.Status == BindingStatus.UpdateTargetError) c.ClearValue(n.Property); } } public class AttributeInserterExtension : MarkupExtension { public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { return this; } public DependencyProperty Property { get; set; } public Binding Binding { get; set; } } which kinda works, but can't track changes of the property Any ideas? Any links? thx for the help

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • Using IOperationBehavior to supply a WCF parameter

    - by Chris Kemp
    This is my first step into the world of stackoverflow, so apologies if I cock anything up. I'm trying to create a WCF Operation which has a parameter that is not exposed to the outside world, but is instead automatically passed into the function. So the world sees this: int Add(int a, int b) But it is implemented as: int Add(object context, int a, int b) Then, the context gets supplied by the system at run-time. The example I'm working with is completely artificial, but mimics something that I'm looking into in a real-world scenario. I'm able to get close, but not quite the whole way there. First off, I created a simple method and wrote an application to confirm it works. It does. It returns a + b and writes the context as a string to my debug. Yay. [OperationContract] int Add(object context, int a, int b); I then wrote the following code: public class SupplyContextAttribute : Attribute, IOperationBehavior { public void Validate(OperationDescription operationDescription) { if (!operationDescription.Messages.Any(m => m.Body.Parts.First().Name == "context")) throw new FaultException("Parameter 'context' is missing."); } public void ApplyDispatchBehavior(OperationDescription operationDescription, DispatchOperation dispatchOperation) { dispatchOperation.Invoker = new SupplyContextInvoker(dispatchOperation.Invoker); } public void ApplyClientBehavior(OperationDescription operationDescription, ClientOperation clientOperation) { } public void AddBindingParameters(OperationDescription operationDescription, BindingParameterCollection bindingParameters) { // Remove the 'context' parameter from the inbound message operationDescription.Messages[0].Body.Parts.RemoveAt(0); } } public class SupplyContextInvoker : IOperationInvoker { readonly IOperationInvoker _invoker; public SupplyContextInvoker(IOperationInvoker invoker) { _invoker = invoker; } public object[] AllocateInputs() { return _invoker.AllocateInputs().Skip(1).ToArray(); } private object[] IntroduceContext(object[] inputs) { return new[] { "MyContext" }.Concat(inputs).ToArray(); } public object Invoke(object instance, object[] inputs, out object[] outputs) { return _invoker.Invoke(instance, IntroduceContext(inputs), out outputs); } public IAsyncResult InvokeBegin(object instance, object[] inputs, AsyncCallback callback, object state) { return _invoker.InvokeBegin(instance, IntroduceContext(inputs), callback, state); } public object InvokeEnd(object instance, out object[] outputs, IAsyncResult result) { return _invoker.InvokeEnd(instance, out outputs, result); } public bool IsSynchronous { get { return _invoker.IsSynchronous; } } } And my WCF operation now looks like this: [OperationContract, SupplyContext] int Amend(object context, int a, int b); My updated references no longer show the 'context' parameter, which is exactly what I want. The trouble is that whenver I run the code, it gets past the AllocateInputs and then throws an Index was outside the bounds of the Array. error somewhere in the WCF guts. I've tried other things, and I find that I can successfully change the type of the parameter and rename it and have my code work. But the moment I remove the parameter it falls over. Can anyone give me some idea of how to get this to work (or if it can be done at all).

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  • How to make html image clickable inside a TextView

    - by Gonan
    I have the following text in a string in the resources file: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;</a> It shows the image fine (I implemented ImageGetter) but it is not clickable. I have tried adding the Linkify thingy but I don't think it's meant for this case, and so it doesn't work. The setMovementMethod doesn't work either. I have tried different combinations of the above: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;hello</a> Here, even the "hello" part is not clickable (neither blue nor underlined). <a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail_big" /></a> This doesn't even show the image. &lt;a href="mailto:[email protected]"&gt;&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;&lt;/a&gt; If I just write the email, without the <a> tag it works perfectly, but I would like to use the image of an envelope that the user can click on. It's not possible to use an imagebutton because this text is in the middle of a string and so I can't split it. Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: I found a solution or rather found how to do it correctly. All I had to do was adding the setMovementMethod call before the call to setText in the TextView and ALSO, and COMPLETELY NECESSARY, remove the attribute "android:autoLink="all" from the layout. Apparently, parsing mails and urls in a string is mutually exclusive to interpreting the link tags in a string. So one or the other but not both. Finally my layout is just a TextView with nothing special, just width and height. The activity is like this: TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.about_text); tv.setMovementMethod(LinkMovementMethod.getInstance()); tv.setText(Html.fromHtml(getString(R.string.about_content), new ImageGetter(), null)); And the string is like this: <string name="about_content"><a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail" /></a></string>

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  • How to hide certain elements on a page using jQuery

    - by Ankur
    I am trying to implement something that is similar to a faceted search. My data is a series of objects and relationships. The idea is that you click an object (in this case "95 Theses" and then the possibly relationships are displayed, in this case "author" and clicking the relationship shows the object that matches the relationship, in this case "Martin Luther". My clicking of objects and relationsips (predicates) works fine. What I need to do is allow users to click an object or relationship and have all those that extend from it removed. This is what I thought of adding when a object or relationship 'tag' is clicked (every time I add another object or relationship I increment the global attribute called 'level'): if($(".objHolder,. preHolder").filter("[level>'"+level+"']").filter("[holderId='"+holderId+"']").length) { $(".objHolder,. preHolder").filter("[level>'"+level+"']").filter("[holderId='"+holderId+"']").remove(); } <table border="0" cellpadding="4" cellspacing="2"> <tbody><tr> <td class="objHolder" objid="1" holderid="1" level="1"> <table border="0" cellpadding="4" cellspacing="2"> <tbody><tr class="objItemRow" objid="1" holderid="1" level="1"> <td class="objItem" objid="1" holderid="1" level="2" bgcolor="#eeeeee" nowrap="nowrap">95 Theses</td> </tr></tbody> </table></td> <td><img src="images/right.jpg" alt="" height="10" width="16"></td> <td class="preHolder" level="2" holderid="1"> <table border="0" cellpadding="4" cellspacing="2"><tbody> <tr><td class="preItem" level="3" subid="1" preid="1" holderid="1" bgcolor="#eeeeee" nowrap="nowrap">author</td></tr> </tbody></table></td> <td><img src="images/right.jpg" alt="" height="10" width="16"></td> <td class="objHolder" level="3" holderid="1"> <table border="0" cellpadding="4" cellspacing="2"><tbody><tr><td class="objItem" level="4" objid="3" holderid="1" bgcolor="#eeeeee" nowrap="nowrap">Martin Luther</td></tr></tbody></table> </td> </tr></tbody> </table>

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  • Simple RSA encryption (Java)

    - by jake blue
    This is simply for fun. This will not be used for any actual encryption. I'm only first year comp sci student and love cryptography. This took a long time to get working. At approximately N = 18, it begins breaking down. It won't encrypt messages properly after that point. I'm not sure why. Any insights? I'd also appreciate any links you could provide me to tutorials or interesting reading about Cryptography. import java.math.BigInteger; import java.security.SecureRandom; /** * Cryptography. * * Generates public and private keys used in encryption and * decryption * */ public class RSA { private final static BigInteger one = new BigInteger("1"); private final static SecureRandom random = new SecureRandom(); // prime numbers private BigInteger p; private BigInteger q; // modulus private BigInteger n; // totient private BigInteger t; // public key private BigInteger e; // private key private BigInteger d; private String cipherText; /** * Constructor for objects of class RSA */ public RSA(int N) { p = BigInteger.probablePrime(N/2, random); q = BigInteger.probablePrime(N/2, random); // initialising modulus n = p.multiply(q); // initialising t by euclid's totient function (p-1)(q-1) t = (p.subtract(one)).multiply(q.subtract(one)); // initialising public key ~ 65537 is common public key e = new BigInteger("65537"); } public int generatePrivateKey() { d = e.modInverse(t); return d.intValue(); } public String encrypt(String plainText) { String encrypted = ""; int j = 0; for(int i = 0; i < plainText.length(); i++){ char m = plainText.charAt(i); BigInteger bi1 = BigInteger.valueOf(m); BigInteger bi2 = bi1.modPow(e, n); j = bi2.intValue(); m = (char) j; encrypted += m; } cipherText = encrypted; return encrypted; } public String decrypt() { String decrypted = ""; int j = 0; for(int i = 0; i < cipherText.length(); i++){ char c = cipherText.charAt(i); BigInteger bi1 = BigInteger.valueOf(c); BigInteger bi2 = bi1.modPow(d, n); j = bi2.intValue(); c = (char) j; decrypted += c; } return decrypted; } }

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  • How to parse an XML string in TDI

    - by ongle
    I am new to TDI. I have a TDI assembly line that calls a web service (ibmdi.InvokeSoapWS) which returns the result as a string in the work attribute 'xmlString'. I then have an AttributeMap that attempts to parse the xml and extract a value (the node it seeks is a few nodes deep). var parser = system.getParser('ibmdi.SOAP'); var xmlString = work.getString('xmlString'); var entity = parser.parseRequest(xmlString); task.dump(entity); The trouble is, the parsed object does not contain an accurate representation of the XML. It contains only two attributes, the first is correctly the first node following the soap body (e.g., ns0:SomeNodeReply), the second being a node inside the first (e.g., ns0:DetailCount). And as far as I can determine, both attributes are just strings so I cannot recurse into the object graph. Below is a sample soap reply: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns0:SomeNodeReply xmlns:ns0="http://xmlns.example.com/unique/default/namespace/1136581686664"> <ns0:Status> <ns0:StatusCD>000</ns0:StatusCD> <ns0:StatusDesc /> </ns0:Status> <ns0:DetailCount>1</ns0:DetailCount> <ns0:SomeDetail> <ns0:CodeA>Foo</ns0:CodeA> <ns0:CodeB>Bar</ns0:CodeB> </ns0:SomeDetail> </ns0:SomeNodeReply> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> And below is a sample dump of the parsed string: 19:03:23 CTGDIS003I *** Start dumping Entry 19:03:23 Operation: generic 19:03:23 Entry attributes: 19:03:23 SOAP_CALL (replace): 'ns0:SomeNodeReply' 19:03:23 ns0:DetailCount(replace): '1' 19:03:23 CTGDIS004I *** Finished dumping Entry All I really need to do is be able to parse out a value that may or may not be there, depending on the value of another node (e.g., DetailCount == 1, get CodeA otherwise return empty string). I am open to changing anything about how this works if I can extract the data into the work Entry.

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  • jQuery Validator's "required" not working when value is set at statup

    - by nandrew
    Hello, I have a problem with jQuery Validator. I want to use "required" property on a text input. It doesn't work when input has set value attribute by HTML code (tested on Firefox (3.5), and on IE 8 - on IE it works a bit better). Story: 1. Page loads; 2. value is cleared; 3. focus is changed. 4. Nothing happens but the error message should be displayed; 5. getting back to the field and typing some characters. 6. changing focus; 7. getting back to the field; 8. clearing the field. 9. Error is displayed even before leaving the field. The HTML code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <script src="Web/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Web/Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1"> <input type="text" id="name1" name="name1" value="test" /><br /> <input type="text" /> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var validator = $("form").validate({ rules: { name1: { required: true, minlength: 2 } }, messages: { name1: "bad name" }, }); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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