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  • Entity framework memory leak after detaching newly created object

    - by Tom Peplow
    Hi, Here's a test: WeakReference ref1; WeakReference ref2; TestRepositoryEntitiesContainer context; int i = 0; using (context = GetContext<TestRepositoryEntitiesContainer>()) { context.ObjectMaterialized += (o, s) => i++; var item = context.SomeEntities.Where(e => e.SomePropertyToLookupOn == "some property").First(); context.Detach(item); ref1 = new WeakReference(item); var newItem = new SomeEntity {SomePropertyToLookupOn = "another value"}; context.SomeEntities.AddObject(newItem); ref2 = new WeakReference(newItem); context.SaveChanges(); context.SomeEntities.Detach(newItem); newItem = null; item = null; } context = null; GC.Collect(); Assert.IsFalse(ref1.IsAlive); Assert.IsFalse(ref2.IsAlive); First assert passes, second fails... I hope I'm missing something, it is late... But it appears that detaching a fetched item will actually release all handles on the object letting it be collected. However, for new objects something keeps a pointer and creates a memory leak. NB - this is EF 4.0 Anyone seen this before and worked around it? Thanks for your help! Tom

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  • javascript to reference input IDs in php loop and pass values back to same input ID

    - by Smudger
    I have a form which is essentially an autocomplete input box. I can get this to work perfectly for a single text box. What I need to do is create unique input boxes by using a php for loop. This will use the counter $i to give each input box a unique name and id. The problem is that the unique value of the input box needs to be passed to the javascript. this will then pass the inputted data to the external php page and return the mysql results. As mentioned I have this working for a single input box but need assistance with passing the correct values to the javascript and returning it to correct input box. existing code for working solution (first row works only, all other rows update first row input box) <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(inputString) { if(inputString.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions').hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions').show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList').html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(thisValue) { $('#inputString').val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions').hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> code for autocompleteperson.php is: $query = $db->query("SELECT fullname FROM Persons WHERE fullname LIKE '$queryString%' LIMIT 10"); if($query) { while ($result = $query ->fetch_object()) { echo '<li onClick="fill(\''.$result->fullname.'\');">'.$result->fullname.'</li>'; } } in order to get it to work for all rows, I include the counter $i in each of the file names as below: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(inputString<? echo $i; ?>) { if(inputString<? echo $i; ?>.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString<? echo $i; ?>+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>').html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(thisValue) { $('#inputString<? echo $i; ?>').val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString<? echo $i; ?>" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions<? echo $i; ?>" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> The autocomplete suggestion works (although always shown on first row) but when selecting the data always returns to row 1, even if input was on row 5. I have a feeling this has to do with the fill() but not sure? is it due the the autocomplete page code? or does the fill referencing ThisValue have something to do with it. example of this page (as above) can be found here Thanks for the assistance, much appreciated. UPDATE - LOLO <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(i, inputString) { if(inputValue.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions' + i).hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions' + i).show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList' + i).html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(i, thisValue) { $('#inputString' + i).val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions' + i).hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString<?php echo $i; ?>" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions<? echo $i; ?>" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> google chrome catched the following errors: first line on input, second line on loosing focus

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  • UICollectionView with one static cell and N dynamic ones from a fetchresultscontroller exception

    - by nflacco
    I'm trying to make a UITableView that shows a blog post and comments for that post. My setup is a tableview in storyboard with two dynamic prototype cells. The first cell is for the post and should never change. The second cell represents the 0 to N comments. My cellForRowAtIndexPath method shows the post cell properly, but fails to get the comment at the given index path (though if I comment out the fetch I get the appropriate number of comment cells with a green background that I set as a visual debug thing). let comment = fetchedResultController.objectAtIndexPath(indexPath) as Comment I get the following exception on this line: 2014-08-24 15:06:40.712 MessagePosting[21767:3266409] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '*** -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:]: index 1 beyond bounds [0 .. 0]' *** First throw call stack: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x0000000101aa43e5 __exceptionPreprocess + 165 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00000001037f9967 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 CoreFoundation 0x000000010198f4c3 -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:] + 227 3 CoreData 0x00000001016e4792 -[NSFetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:] + 162 Section and cell setup: override func tableView(tableView: UITableView!, numberOfRowsInSection section: Int) -> Int { // #warning Incomplete method implementation. // Return the number of rows in the section. switch section { case 0: return 1 default: if let realPost:Post = post { return fetchedResultController.sections[0].numberOfObjects } else { return 0 } } } override func tableView(tableView: UITableView!, cellForRowAtIndexPath indexPath: NSIndexPath!) -> UITableViewCell! { switch indexPath.section { case 0: let cell = tableView.dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier(postViewCellIdentifier, forIndexPath: indexPath) as UITableViewCell cell.backgroundColor = lightGrey if let realPost:Post = self.post { cell.textLabel.text = realPost.text } return cell default: let cell = tableView.dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier(commentCellIdentifier, forIndexPath: indexPath) as UITableViewCell cell.backgroundColor = UIColor.greenColor() let comment = fetchedResultController.objectAtIndexPath(indexPath) as Comment // <---------------------------- :( cell.textLabel.text = comment.text return cell } } FRC: func controllerDidChangeContent(controller: NSFetchedResultsController!) { tableView.reloadData() } func getFetchedResultController() -> NSFetchedResultsController { fetchedResultController = NSFetchedResultsController(fetchRequest: taskFetchRequest(), managedObjectContext: managedObjectContext, sectionNameKeyPath: nil, cacheName: nil) return fetchedResultController } func taskFetchRequest() -> NSFetchRequest { if let realPost:Post = self.post { let fetchRequest = NSFetchRequest(entityName: "Comment") let sortDescriptor = NSSortDescriptor(key: "date", ascending: false) fetchRequest.predicate = NSPredicate(format: "post = %@", realPost) fetchRequest.sortDescriptors = [sortDescriptor] return fetchRequest } else { return NSFetchRequest(entityName: "") } }

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  • Is it possible to update old database from dbml file ? (C#, .Net 4, Linq, SQL Server)

    - by Emil
    Hi all, I began recently a new job, a very interesting project (C#,.Net 4, Linq, VS 2010 and SQL Server). And immediately I got a very exciting challenge: I must implement either a new tool or integrate the logic when program start, or whatever, but what must happen is the following: the customers have previous application and database (full with their specific data). Now a new version is ready and the customer gets the update. In the mean time we made some modification on DB (new table, columns, maybe an old column deleted, or whatever). I’m pretty new in Linq and also SQL databases and my first solution can be: I check the applications/databases version and implement all the changes step by step comparing all tables, columns, keys, constrains, etc. (all this new information I have in my dbml and the old I asked from the existing DB). And I’ll do this each time the version changed. But somehow I feel, this is NOT a smart solution so I look for a general solution of this problem. Is there a way to update customers DB from the dbml file? To create a new one is not a problem (CreateDatabase with DataContext), is there any update/alter database methods? I guess I’m not the only one who search for such a solution (I found nothing in internet – or I looked for bad keywords). How did you solve this problem? I look also for an external tool, but first for a solution with C#, Linq or something similar. For any idea thank you in advance! Best regards, Emil

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  • Prevent Navigation to CreateUserWizardStep in the Postback event of nextbutton

    - by Aparna
    I am working with CreateUserWizard tool for creating a registration page. This is the first time and I am encountering problem with the following: I defined two steps in WizardSteps in the page: <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep ID="CreateUserWizardStep0" runat="server" Title="Sign Up for your new Account !!"> <asp:TextBox ID="Email" runat="server"> In the first wizard step, the user provides email, and we need to check if this email meets certain criteria (if he exists in our internal database, country is US etc) and if he/she is eligible navigate to CreateUserWizardStep1. I have a StartNextButton in the Start Navigation template for the WizardStep0. <StartNavigationTemplate> <br /> <asp:Button ID="StartNextButton" runat="server" CommandName="MoveNext" OnClick="StartNextButton_Click" Text="Check My Eligibility" /> </StartNavigationTemplate> I do all the logic of checking eligibility in the post-back event OnClick="StartNextButton_Click . If he is not eligible, I should display the error message in the step0 textbox and prevent navigation to CreateUserWizardStep1. I tried the following: if(noteligible) { lblError1.Visible = true; lblError1.Text = this.hfUserAlreadyRegistered.Value.ToString(); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = this.CreateUserWizard1.WizardSteps.IndexOf(this.CreateUserWizardStep0); this.CreateUserWizard1.Controls.Remove(CreateUserWizardStep1); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 0; break; } But this is not working. I am taken out of step0 and step1 is coming irrespective of this. How can I just remain in Step0 and display the error message when the user is not eligible and navigate to Step1 only when he is eligible to register ? Thank you very much.

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  • GD PHP Base64 Picture (png) error

    - by hogofwar
    This is part of my code: $con = mysql_connect("localhost","username","passs"); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("database", $con); if(mysql_num_rows(mysql_query("SELECT name FROM xbox_user WHERE name = '$user'"))){ // Code inside if block if userid is already there $result = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM xbox_user WHERE name = '$user'"); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { if ($row['date'] > $row['date']+100){ $src = imagecreatefrompng($result['XboxInfo']['TileUrl']); $base64= base64_encode(file_get_contents($result['XboxInfo']['TileUrl'])); $date = date("Ymd"); mysql_query("UPDATE xbox_user SET date = '$date' SET avatar = '$base64' WHERE name = '$user'"); }else{ $encode = $row['avatar']; //echo $encode; $rand = rand(1, 1337); file_put_contents('/tmp/'.$rand.'.png', base64_decode($row['avatar'])); //ERROR LINE $src = imagecreatefrompng('/tmp/'.$rand.'.png'); unlink('/tmp/'.$rand.'.png'); } } }else{ $src = imagecreatefrompng($result['XboxInfo']['TileUrl']); $base64= base64_encode(file_get_contents($result['XboxInfo']['TileUrl'])); $date = date("Ymd"); mysql_query("INSERT INTO xbox_user (name, avatar, date) VALUES ('$user', '$base64', '$date')"); } It comes up with multiple errors but I feel this one should be addressed first as the other could just be caused by the first error: Warning: imagecreatefrompng() [function.imagecreatefrompng]: '/tmp/628.png' is not a valid PNG file in /home/nah/public_html/experiment/xbox/draw3.php on line 60 It also does create an entry in my mysql DB

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  • Debugging a HTTP Handler from Visual Studio

    - by O.O.
    I am trying to debug a HTTP Handler in Visual Studio and the break point is not getting hit. Does anyone have an idea on how to go about debugging HTTP Handlers in Visual Studio? I am using VS 2010 Premium, .NET 4.0 on a Windows 7 machine. In my Web Application I have a HTTP Handler in /HTTPHandler/TrackingHandler.cs The following is in my web config file: <system.webServer> <handlers> <add name="TrackingHandler" path="/tx/*" verb="*" type="ProjectNamespace.TrackingHandler" resourceType="Unspecified" preCondition="integratedMode" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> My HTTP Handler looks like below namespace ProjectNamespace { public class TrackingHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { //Breakpoint on the very first line below string tracker = Path.GetFileName(context.Request.PhysicalPath); ....... } } } I start my Web Application using any random page in Visual Studio Debug using the builtin Web Server. I then maually edit the URL to point to the /tx/ directory and some random string after it. For e.g. my current URL looks like http://localhost:53699/tx/sdfs. I thought this should pull up the breakpoint on the first line of ProcessRequest() but it does not. I’d be grateful for any ideas. O. O.

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  • secure rest API for running user "apps" in an iframe

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I want to let users create "apps" (like Facebook apps) for my website, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to make it secure. I have a REST api i want to run the user apps in an iframe on my own site (not a safe markup language like FBML) I was first looking at oAuth but this seems overkill for my solution. The "apps" don't need to be run on external sites or in desktop apps or anything. The user would stay on my site at all times but see the user submitted "app" through the iframe. So when I call the app the first time through the iframe, I can pass it some variables so it knows which logged in user is using it on my site. It can then use this user session in it's own API calls to customize the display. If the call is passed in the clear, I don't want someone to be able to intercept the session and impersonate the user. Does anyone know a good way to do this or good write up on it? Thanks!

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  • NHibernate flush should save only dirty objects

    - by Emilian
    Why NHibernate fires an update on firstOrder when saving secondOrder in the code below? I'm using optimistic locking on Order. Is there a way to tell NHibernate to update firstOrder when saving secondOrder only if firstOrder was modified? // Configure var cfg = new Configuration(); var configFile = Path.Combine( AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "NHibernate.MySQL.config"); cfg.Configure(configFile); // Create session factory var sessionFactory = cfg.BuildSessionFactory(); // Create session var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession(); // Set session to flush on transaction commit session.FlushMode = FlushMode.Commit; // Create first order var firstOrder = new Order(); var firstOrder_OrderLine = new OrderLine { ProductName = "Bicycle", ProductPrice = 120.00M, Quantity = 1 }; firstOrder.Add(firstOrder_OrderLine); // Save first order using (var tx = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { session.Save(firstOrder); tx.Commit(); } catch { tx.Rollback(); } } // Create second order var secondOrder = new Order(); var secondOrder_OrderLine = new OrderLine { ProductName = "Hat", ProductPrice = 12.00M, Quantity = 1 }; secondOrder.Add(secondOrder_OrderLine); // Save second order using (var tx = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { session.Save(secondOrder); tx.Commit(); } catch { tx.Rollback(); } } session.Close(); sessionFactory.Close();

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  • Saving twice don't update my object in JDO

    - by Javi
    Hello I have an object persisted in the GAE datastore using JDO. The object looks like this: public class MyObject implements Serializable, StoreCallback { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String id; @Persistent private String firstId; ... } As usually when the object is stored for the first time a new id value is generated for the identifier. I need that if I don't provide a value for firstId it sets the same value as the id. I don't want to solve it with a special getter which checks for null value in firstId and then return the id value because I want to make queries relating on firstId. I can do it in this way by saving the object twice (Probably there's a better way to do this, but I'll do it in this way until I find a better one). But it is not working. when I debug it I can see that result.firstId is set with the id value and it seems to be persisted, but when I go into the datastore I see that firstId is null (as it was saved the first time). This save method is in my DAO and it is called in another save method in the service annotated with @Transactional. Does anyone have any idea why the second object in not persisted properly? @Override public MyObject save(MyObject obj) { PersistenceManager pm = JDOHelper.getPersistenceManagerFactory("transactions-optional"); MyObject result = pm.makePersistent(obj); if(result.getFirstId() == null){ result.setFirstId(result.getId()); result = pm.makePersistent(result); } return result; } Thanks.

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  • emacs: x-popup-menu max size constraints?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm working on an intellisense or code-completion capability for C#. So far, so good. Right now I have basic completion working. There are 2 ways to request completion. The first cycles through all the potential matches. The second presents a popup menu of the matches. It works for types: And also for local variables: I'm confronting two problems with x-popup-menu: the popup menu can expand to consume all available screen space, when the number of choices is large. Literally it can obscure the entire screen. The silly thing is, it's scrollable. First it expands to consume all available space, then it also becomes scrollable. Is there a way I can limit the maximum size of x-popup-menu? To specify the position of the popup menu, I pass in a position, and x-popup-menu uses that as the *middle*, not the left, of the top line of the menu. Why middle? who knows. What this means is, if I specify (40 . 60) for the location of the menu, and the menu happens to be 100 pixels wide, the menu will extend beyond the left border of the emacs window. You can see this in the 2nd image above. If I knew how wide the popup would be before specifying the position, I could compensate. But I don't. Is there a workaround? Is there a way to get x-popup-menu to take its position as the LEFT rather than the middle.

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  • Merging k sorted linked lists - analysis

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I am thinking about different solutions for one problem. Assume we have K sorted linked lists and we are merging them into one. All these lists together have N elements. The well known solution is to use priority queue and pop / push first elements from every lists and I can understand why it takes O(N log K) time. But let's take a look at another approach. Suppose we have some MERGE_LISTS(LIST1, LIST2) procedure, that merges two sorted lists and it would take O(T1 + T2) time, where T1 and T2 stand for LIST1 and LIST2 sizes. What we do now generally means pairing these lists and merging them pair-by-pair (if the number is odd, last list, for example, could be ignored at first steps). This generally means we have to make the following "tree" of merge operations: N1, N2, N3... stand for LIST1, LIST2, LIST3 sizes O(N1 + N2) + O(N3 + N4) + O(N5 + N6) + ... O(N1 + N2 + N3 + N4) + O(N5 + N6 + N7 + N8) + ... O(N1 + N2 + N3 + N4 + .... + NK) It looks obvious that there will be log(K) of these rows, each of them implementing O(N) operations, so time for MERGE(LIST1, LIST2, ... , LISTK) operation would actually equal O(N log K). My friend told me (two days ago) it would take O(K N) time. So, the question is - did I f%ck up somewhere or is he actually wrong about this? And if I am right, why doesn't this 'divide&conquer' approach can't be used instead of priority queue approach?

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  • find(:all) and then add data from another table to the object

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I have two tables: create_table "friendships", :force => true do |t| t.integer "user1_id" t.integer "user2_id" t.boolean "hasaccepted" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end and create_table "users", :force => true do |t| t.string "email" t.string "password" t.string "phone" t.boolean "gender" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.string "firstname" t.string "lastname" t.date "birthday" end I need to show the user a list of Friendrequests, so I use this method in my controller: def getfriendrequests respond_to do |format| case params[:id] when "to_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user2_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) when "from_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user1_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) end format.xml { render :xml => @friendrequests } format.json { render :json => @friendrequests } end end I do nearly everything using AJAX, so to fetch the First and Last name of the user with UID user2_id (the to_me param comes later, don't worry right now), I need a for loop which make multiple AJAX calls. This sucks and costs much bandwidth. So I'd rather like that getfriendrequests also returns the First and Last name of the corresponding users, so, e.g. the JSON response would not be: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3 } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4 } } ] but rather: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3, "firstname": "Jon", "lastname": "Skeet" } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4, "firstname": "Mark", "lastname": "Gravell" } } ] I thought of a for loop in the getfriendrequests method, but I don't know how to implement this, and maybe there is an easier way. It must also work for XML. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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  • Is my heuristic algorithm correct? (Sudoku solver)

    - by Aposperite
    First of -yes this IS a homework- but it's primarily a theoretical question rather than a practical one, I am simply asking a confirmation if I am thinking correctly or any hints if I am not. I have been asked to compile a simple Sudoku solver (on Prolog but that is not so important right now) with the only limitation being that it must utilize a heuristic function using Best-First Algorithm. The only heuristic function I have been able to come up with is explained below: 1. Select an empty cell. 1a. If there are no empty cells and there is a solution return solution. Else return No. 2. Find all possible values it can hold. %% It can't take values currently assigned to cells on the same line/column/box. 3. Set to all those values a heuristic number starting from 1. 4. Pick the value whose heuristic number is the lowest && you haven't checked yet. 4a. If there are no more values return no. 5. If a solution is not found: GoTo 1. Else Return Solution. // I am sorry for errors in this "pseudo code." If you want any clarification let me know. So am I doing this right or is there any other way around and mine is false? Thanks in advance.

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  • Can FluentNHibernate be used with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • Why isn't my UITableView appearing in the correct scroll position?

    - by zbrimhall
    I have a split view-based app that presents a master-detail interface, and uses a popover to present the master list when in portrait mode. The popover presents a sectioned table view that ultimately gets populated by a subclass of NSFetchedResultsController. I can tap the tool bar button to present the master list, scroll to whatever row, and tap the row to dismiss the popover. My problem is that if the table is scrolled past the top of the second section, when I dismiss the popover and then later tap the toolbar button to re-present it, the table's scroll position is always set such that the first row of the second section is at the top of the list. If I haven't scrolled past the top of the second section, it correctly remembers its scroll position when the table is presented again. Similarly, in landscape mode, if I scroll the table past the top of the third section and then rotate to portrait, when I come back to landscape the scroll position is always set such that the first row of the third section is at the top of the list. I tried calling -scrollToNearestSelectedRowAtScrollPosition:animated in both the master view controller's -viewWillAppear, as well as in the split view delegate's splitViewController:popoverController:willPresentViewController:, to no effect. Anybody have a clue what I might be doing wrong?

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  • How to query two tables based on whether or not record exists in a third?

    - by Katherine
    I have three tables, the first two fairly standard: 1) PRODUCTS table: pid pname, etc 2) CART table: cart_id cart_pid cart_orderid etc The third is designed to let people save products they buy and keep notes on them. 3) MYPRODUCTS table: myprod_id myprod_pid PRODUCTS.prod_id = CART.cart_prodid = MYPRODUCTS.myprod_pid When a user orders, they are presented with a list of products on their order, and can optionally add that product to myproducts. I am getting the info necessary for them to do this, with a query something like this for each order: SELECT cart.pid, products.pname, products.pid FROM products, cart WHERE products.pid = cart_prodid AND cart_orderid=orderid This is fine the first time they order. However, if they subsequently reorder a product which they have already added to myproducts, then it should NOT be possible for them to add it to myproducts again - basically instead of 'Add to MyProducts' they need to see 'View in MyProducts'. I am thinking I can separate the products using two queries: Products never added to MyProducts By somehow identifying whether the user has the product in MyProducts already, and if so excluding it from the query above. Products already in MyProducts By reversing the process above. I need some pointers on how to do this though.

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  • Misalignement in the output Bitmap created from a byte array

    - by Daniel
    I am trying to understand why I have troubles creating a Bitmap from a byte array. I post this after a careful scrutiny of the existing posts about Bitmap creation from byte arrays, like the followings: Creating a bitmap from a byte[], Working with Image and Bitmap in c#?, C#: Bitmap Creation using bytes array My code is aimed to execute a filter on a digital image 8bppIndexed writing the pixel value on a byte [] buffer to be converted again (after some processing to manage gray levels) in a 8BppIndexed Bitmap My input image is a trivial image created by means of specific perl code: https://www.box.com/shared/zqt46c4pcvmxhc92i7ct Of course, after executing the filter the output image has lost the first and last rows and the first and last columns, due to the way the filter manage borders, so from the original 256 x 256 image i get a 254 x 254 image. Just to stay focused on the issue I have commented the code responsible for executing the filter so that the operation really performed is an obvious: ComputedPixel = InputImage.GetPixel(myColumn, myRow).R; I know, i should use lock and unlock but I prefer one headache one by one. Anyway this code should be a sort of identity transform, and at last i use: private unsafe void FillOutputImage() { OutputImage = new Bitmap (OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows , PixelFormat .Format8bppIndexed); ColorPalette ncp = OutputImage.Palette; for (int i = 0; i < 256; i++) ncp.Entries[i] = Color .FromArgb(255, i, i, i); OutputImage.Palette = ncp; Rectangle area = new Rectangle(0, 0, OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows); var data = OutputImage.LockBits(area, ImageLockMode.WriteOnly, OutputImage.PixelFormat); Marshal .Copy (byteBuffer, 0, data.Scan0, byteBuffer.Length); OutputImage.UnlockBits(data); } The output image I get is the following: https://www.box.com/shared/p6tubyi6dsf7cyregg9e It is quite clear that I am losing a pixel per row, but i cannot understand why: I have carefully controlled all the parameters: OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows and the byte [] byteBuffer length and content even writing known values as way to test. The code is nearly identical to other code posted in stackOverflow and elsewhere. Someone maybe could help to identify where the problem is? Thanks a lot

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  • Escaping single quote in PHP when inserting into MySQL

    - by hairdresser-101
    PLEASE NOTE: I am reposting as the original was not answered correctly... I AM LOOKING FOR THE WHY - NOT THE SOLUTION - I KNOW THE SOLUTION, WHAT I DON'T UNDERSTAND IS THE WHY! I have a perplexing issue that I can't seem to comprehend... I'm hoping someone here might be able to point me in the right direction... I have two SQL statements: - the first enters information from a form into the database. - the second takes data from the database entered above, sends an email and then logs the details of the transaction The problem is that it a appears that a single quote is triggering a MySQL error on the second entry only!!! The first instance works without issue but the second instance triggers the mysql_error(). Does the data from a form get handled differently from the data captured in a form? Query#1 - This works without issue (and without escaping the single quote) $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO job_log (order_id, supplier_id, category_id, service_id, qty_ordered, customer_id, user_id, salesperson_ref, booking_ref, booking_name, address, suburb, postcode, state_id, region_id, email, phone, phone2, mobile, delivery_date, stock_taken, special_instructions, cost_price, cost_price_gst, sell_price, sell_price_gst, ext_sell_price, retail_customer, created, modified, log_status_id) VALUES ('$order_id', '$supplier_id', '$category_id', '{$value['id']}', '{$value['qty']}', '$customer_id', '$user_id', '$salesperson_ref', '$booking_ref', '$booking_name', '$address', '$suburb', '$postcode', '$state_id', '$region_id', '$email', '$phone', '$phone2', '$mobile', STR_TO_DATE('$delivery_date', '%d/%m/%Y'), '$stock_taken', '$special_instructions', '$cost_price', '$cost_price_gst', '$sell_price', '$sell_price_gst', '$ext_sell_price', '$retail_customer', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '1')"); Query#2 - This fails when entering a name with a single quote (i.e. O'Brien) $query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO message_log (order_id, timestamp, message_type, email_from, supplier_id, primary_contact, secondary_contact, subject, message_content, status) VALUES ('$order_id', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '$email', '$from', '$row->supplier_id', '$row->primary_email' ,'$row->secondary_email', '$subject', '$message_content', '1')");

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  • Escaping single quote in PHP when inserting into MySQL

    - by hairdresser-101
    I have a perplexing issue that I can't seem to comprehend... I'm hoping someone here might be able to point me in the right direction... I have two SQL statements: - the first enters information from a form into the database. - the second takes data from the database entered above, sends an email and then logs the details of the transaction The problem is that it a appears that a single quote is triggering a MySQL error on the second entry only!!! The first instance works without issue but the second instance triggers the mysql_error(). Does the data from a form get handled differently from the data captured in a form? Query#1 - This works without issue (and without escaping the single quote) $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO job_log (order_id, supplier_id, category_id, service_id, qty_ordered, customer_id, user_id, salesperson_ref, booking_ref, booking_name, address, suburb, postcode, state_id, region_id, email, phone, phone2, mobile, delivery_date, stock_taken, special_instructions, cost_price, cost_price_gst, sell_price, sell_price_gst, ext_sell_price, retail_customer, created, modified, log_status_id) VALUES ('$order_id', '$supplier_id', '$category_id', '{$value['id']}', '{$value['qty']}', '$customer_id', '$user_id', '$salesperson_ref', '$booking_ref', '$booking_name', '$address', '$suburb', '$postcode', '$state_id', '$region_id', '$email', '$phone', '$phone2', '$mobile', STR_TO_DATE('$delivery_date', '%d/%m/%Y'), '$stock_taken', '$special_instructions', '$cost_price', '$cost_price_gst', '$sell_price', '$sell_price_gst', '$ext_sell_price', '$retail_customer', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '1')"); Query#2 - This fails when entering a name with a single quote (i.e. O'Brien) $query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO message_log (order_id, timestamp, message_type, email_from, supplier_id, primary_contact, secondary_contact, subject, message_content, status) VALUES ('$order_id', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '$email', '$from', '$row->supplier_id', '$row->primary_email' ,'$row->secondary_email', '$subject', '$message_content', '1')");

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  • How can I choose different hints for different joins for a single table in a query hint?

    - by RenderIn
    Suppose I have the following query: select * from A, B, C, D where A.x = B.x and B.y = C.y and A.z = D.z I have indexes on A.x and B.x and B.y and C.y and D.z There is no index on A.z. How can I give a hint to this query to use an INDEX hint on A.x but a USE_HASH hint on A.z? It seems like hints only take the table name, not the specific join, so when using a single table with multiple joins I can only specify a single strategy for all of them. Alternative, suppose I'm using a LEADING or ORDERED hint on the above query. Both of these hints only take a table name as well, so how can I ensure that the A.x = B.x join takes place before the A.z = D.z one? I realize in this case I could list D first, but imagine D subsequently joins to E and that the D-E join is the last one I want in the entire query. A third configuration -- Suppose I want the A.x join to be the first of the entire query, and I want the A.z join to be the last one. How can I use a hint to have a single join from A to take place, followed by the B-C join, and the A-D join last?

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  • ContentControl + RenderTargetBitmap + empty image

    - by Kellls
    Im trying to create some chart images without ever displaying those charts on the screen. I'v been at this for quite a while and tried a lot of different things but nothing seems to work. The code works perfectly if I display the chart in a window first, but if I don't display it in a window, the bitmap is just white with a black border (no idea why). I have tried adding the chart to a border before rendering and giving the border a green borderBrush. In the bitmap, I see the green borderBrush then the black border and white background but no chart. I don't know where the black border is coming from as the chart is not contained in a black border. I have tried adding the chart to a window without calling window.Show() and again just the black boarder and white background. However if I call window.Show() the bitmap contains the chart. I have tried using a drawingVisual as explained here, same result. Here is the code (not including adding the element to a border or window): private static BitmapSource CreateElementScreenshot(FrameworkElement element, int dpi) { if (!element.IsMeasureValid) { Size size = new Size(element.Width, element.Height); element.Measure(size); element.Arrange(new Rect(size)); } element.UpdateLayout(); var scale = dpi/96.0; var renderTargetBitmap = new RenderTargetBitmap ( (int)(scale * element.RenderSize.Width),(int)(scale * element.RenderSize.Height),dpi,dpi,PixelFormats.Default ); // this is waiting for dispatcher to perform measure, arrange and render passes element.Dispatcher.Invoke(((Action)(() => renderTargetBitmap.Render(element))), DispatcherPriority.Render); return renderTargetBitmap; } Note: The chart is a ContentControl. Is there anyway I can get the chart to render without displaying it in a window first?

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  • ado.net Concurrency violation

    - by Bicubic
    My first time using ADO.net. Trying to make database of Users. First I populate my DataSet: adapter.AcceptChangesDuringFill = true; adapter.AcceptChangesDuringUpdate = true; adapter.Fill(dataset); To create a user: User user = new User(); user.datarow = dataset.Users.NewUsersRow(); user.Name = username; user.PasswordHash = GetHash(password); user.Rights = UserRights.None; users.Add(user); dataset.Users.AddUsersRow(user.datarow); adapter.Update(dataset); When a user property is modified: adapter.Update(dataset); Creation by itself is fine. If I take an existing user and make multiple changes, fine. Multiple creations in a row, fine. Creation followed by a property change, I get this: "Concurrency violation: the UpdateCommand affected 0 of the expected 1 records." Any ideas?

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  • Ordered delivery with NetNamedPipeBinding using oneWay calls

    - by Aseem Bansal
    Is it possible to guarantee ordered delivery with oneWay calls using namedPipe binding? I have a WCF service/client communicating using namedPipe binding. The client is exposing a callback contract in which all the methods in the callback are marked as OneWay. Something like this [ServiceContract(CallbackContract = typeof(IMyServiceCallback))] public interface IMyService { [OperationContract] void MyOperation(); } public interface IMyServiceCallback { [OperationContract(IsOneWay=true)] void MyCallback1(); [OperationContract(IsOneWay=true)] void MyCallback2(); } At the server side, the implementation of MyOperation method always calls MyCallback1 first and then MyCallback2 but I am observing that sometimes the client receives the calls in the incorrect order (MyCallback2 first and then MyCallback1). On searching the internet I found that the order is not guaranteed with oneway operation as mentioned here and also there is something called reliableSession which ensure message ordering. All the examples on the internet for reliable session are with TCP binding (and not a single one with NamedPipeBinding) and the tcpBinding also has a property called ReliableSession which is not present on the NetNamedPipeBinding. So I am not sure whether reliable session is expected to work with NetNamedPipeBinding or not. Question: Does reliable session work with namedPipeBinding? If yes, how? If no, Is there any other approach with which I can guarantee ordered delivery?

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  • TableAdapter.Update not working

    - by Wesley
    Here is my function: private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { wO_FlangeMillBundlesTableAdapter.Update(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_FlangeMillBundles); wO_HeadMillBundlesTableAdapter.Update(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_HeadMillBundles); wO_WebMillBundlesTableAdapter.Update(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_WebMillBundles); int rowsaffected = wO_MillTableAdapter.Update(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_Mill); MessageBox.Show(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_Mill.Rows[0]["GasReading"].ToString()); MessageBox.Show(rowsaffected.ToString()); } You can see the fourth update in the function uses the same functionality as the rest, I just have some debugging stuff added. The first three tables are bound to DataGridViews and work fine. The fourth table has it's members bound to various text boxes. When I change the value in the text box bound to the GasReading column and click save the first MessageBox does in fact show the new value, so it's making it into the dataset correctly. However, the rowsaffected is always showing 0 and the value in the actual database is not being updated. Can anyone see my problem? I understand that the problem must be elsewhere in my code since the four update methods are the same, but I just don't know where to start.

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